Pathophysiology for Health Professions
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Health Professions provides an in-depth exploration of the physiological processes underlying human diseases and disorders, emphasizing the mechanisms by which normal bodily functions are disrupted. The course covers foundational concepts such as cellular injury, inflammation, immune responses, and the progression of common illnesses affecting various organ systems. Students will develop a strong understanding of the biological basis of disease, linking clinical manifestations to underlying physiological changes. Through case studies and applied learning, students prepare to interpret signs and symptoms in clinical practice, enhancing their ability to contribute effectively to patient assessment, diagnosis, and management within diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
A)The Initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
B)If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly,the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state.
C)If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time,the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
D)Initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism,structure,or function.
Answer: D
Q2) A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
A)latent stage
B)predisposing factor
C)incidence
D)precipitating factor
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti-inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs?
A)increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation
B)Reye's syndrome developing in children and young adults
C)increased incidence of heart attacks and strokes
D)greatly delayed blood clotting
Answer: C
Q2) The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
A)increased interstitial fluid
B)production of complement
C)large number of WBCs entering the area
D)increased blood flow into the area
Answer: D
Q3) A specific defense for the body is:
A)phagocytosis
B)sensitized T-lymphocytes
C)the inflammatory response
D)intact skin and mucous membranes
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
A)active natural
B)active artificial
C)passive natural
D)passive artificial
Answer: B
Q2) The role of memory cells is to:
A)change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation
B)immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen
C)recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response
D)bind complement to the antibody
Answer: C
Q3) Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include:
A)inflammation in multiple organs
B)lack of a specific diagnostic blood test
C)acute onset,nonprogressive course
D)typical skin rash on the chest and back
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
A)fever and leukocytosis
B)headache and anorexia
C)pain,erythema,and swelling
D)nausea,weight loss,and fatigue
Q2) Prions are transmitted by blood and:
A)oral droplets on hands of food handlers
B)fomites
C)ingestion of contaminated meat
D)oral-fecal (cysts)
Q3) Fungi reproduce by:
1)budding
2)extension of hyphae
3)binary fission
4)production of spores
A)1,2
B)2,4
C)1,2,4
D)2,3,4
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
A)It is unencapsulated and invasive.
B)It consists of undifferentiated cells.
C)It exerts systemic effects.
D)Cells appear relatively normal.
Q2) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A)the effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B)severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C)the decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D)the effects of multiple metastatic tumors
Q3) What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
A)Carcinomas
B)Sarcomas
C)Melanomas
D)Fibromas
Q4) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A)metastasize early in their development
B)they create excessive pressure within the skull
C)cannot be removed
D)cause serious systemic effects
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
A)Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities.
B)All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys.
C)The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant.
D)The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of sodium ion?
A)It is a cation.
B)It is present primarily in the intracellular fluid.
C)It shifts out of the blood by active transport.
D)Blood levels are controlled by ADH (antidiuretic hormone).
Q3) Which of the following causes tetany?
A)increased permeability of nerve membranes
B)insufficient calcium in skeletal muscle
C)excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves
D)increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood tests are primarily performed on neonates in order to:
A)determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies
B)commence immediate treatment for metabolic abnormalities
C)identify the presence of any inherited disorders
D)rule out the presence of any infection
Q2) What is an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell,organized in pairs in descending order of size,called?
A)a pedigree
B)Punnett squares
C)a karyotype
D)the genotype
Q3) The term proteomics refers to the study of:
A)DNA sequences with unknown functions
B)gene sequences in individual chromosomes
C)the proteins resulting from activation of specific genes
D)identifying certain base pairs in DNA
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Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A)sweat glands of the upper body
B)dermis and epidermis of the skin
C)apocrine glands
D)sebaceous glands and hair follicles
Q2) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A)levels of androgens
B)abnormally thin epiphyseal plate in X-ray
C)lack of a broader pelvis in males
D)development of kyphosis
Q3) Infectious Mononucleosis is characterized by all EXCEPT:
A)sore throat,fever,fatigue,malaise and rash on trunk
B)enlarged lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)and spleen (splenomegaly)
C)increased occurrence in infants and young children
D)the presence of atypical T-lymphocytes
E)a positive heterophil antibody test (Monospot test)
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Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy due to:
A)reduced kidney function
B)decreased serum albumin
C)increased blood volume
D)more sedentary lifestyle
Q2) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A)proteinuria,edema,and weight gain
B)persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C)vaginal bleeding
D)blood clots forming in the legs
Q3) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A)normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy
B)no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery
C)delivery of a high birth-weight infant
D)no additional complications for the infant or mother
Q4) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A)The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B)The parents differ in blood type.
C)The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D)Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) With advancing age,the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A)irregular impulse conduction in the heart
B)reduced number of collagen fibres to support cardiac muscle
C)vascular degeneration leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis
D)heart valves become thin and weak
E)lower blood pressure and slower pulse
Q2) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A)menopause
B)dysmenorrhea
C)amenorrhea
D)menarche
Q3) All are physiologic changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A)reduced skeletal muscle mass
B)degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine
C)increased Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
D)reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying
E)thinner dermis and decreased subcutaneous tissue
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Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A)contracture
B)muscle hypertrophy
C)muscle atrophy
D)increased osteoblastic activity
Q2) Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
A)infection by resident flora
B)inadequate circulation at pressure points
C)normal degenerative changes
D)allergic reaction to adhesive tape or dressings
Q3) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A)bone demineralization
B)lengthening of tendons and ligaments
C)decreased skeletal muscle mass
D)a,b
E)a,c
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Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Q1) A serious consequence of a major disaster,first recognized in war veterans is:
A)stress ulcers
B)delayed tissue healing
C)posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)cancer
Q2) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A)the presence of several stressors at the same time
B)past experiences
C)lack of effective coping mechanisms
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
Q3) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1)glycogenesis
2)bronchodilation
3)vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera
4)decreased metabolic rate
A)1,2
B)2,3
C)2,4
D)3,4
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A)It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B)The drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C)The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D)The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
Q2) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A)tension
B)sinus
C)migraine
D)intracranial
Q3) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A)methadone
B)diazepam
C)disulfiram
D)naloxone
Q2) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A)antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly
B)a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken
C)a large dose of a drug affects the central nervous system
D)an individual involuntarily develops a habit
Q3) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A)behavioral change
B)weight gain
C)depression
D)loss of sensory function
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Q1) Which of the following events would most likely cause a person to faint and experience difficulty breathing?
A)exposure to gamma rays
B)eating fish containing mercury
C)an insect sting
D)inhalation of asbestos particles
Q2) Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
A)lead
B)carbon monoxide
C)inhaled particulates
D)mercury
Q3) During the development of hyperthermia,the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A)body core temperature is very high
B)skeletal muscle spasms occur
C)hypovolemia and fainting occur
D)the cool-down process is too rapid
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Q1) A medical doctor who incorporates drugs,surgery,and manipulations of the musculoskeletal system is classified as a:
A)chiropractor
B)naturopath
C)osteopath
D)reflexologist
Q2) A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may:
1)stimulate activity in those cells
2)inhibit activity in those cells
3)have widespread effects on body functions
4)produce many unwanted side effects
A)1,2
B)2,3
C)3,4
D)1,3,4
Q3) Ingesting a drug with a large meal would likely:
A)immediately increase the blood level of the drug
B)delay the absorption of the drug into the blood
C)ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood
D)cause more rapid excretion of the drug
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following substances is classified as an anticoagulant?
A)prothrombin
B)heparin
C)fibrinogen
D)vitamin K
Q2) Thalassemia is caused by:
A)a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin
B)an abnormal form of heme
C)abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron
D)overproduction of hypochromic,microcytic RBCs
Q3) In cases of polycythemia vera,blood pressure is elevated due to:
A)increased blood volume
B)frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation
C)congested spleen and bone marrow
D)increased renin and aldosterone secretions
Q4) Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B ?
A)An immune reaction in the stomach would destroy the vitamin.
B)Digestive enzymes would destroy the vitamin.
C)The vitamin irritates the gastric mucosa.
D)The ingested vitamin would not be absorbed into the blood.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Q1) What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?
A)development of lipid plaques in large arteries
B)recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries
C)degeneration and loss of elasticity in arteries
D)increased systemic vasoconstriction
Q2) What does the term cardiac arrest mean?
A)cardiac output is less than the demand
B)decreased circulating blood volume
C)missing a ventricular contraction
D)cessation of all cardiac function
Q3) An atheroma develops from:
A)a torn arterial wall and blood clots
B)accumulated lipids,cells,and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
C)thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins
D)repeated vasospasms
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does total obstruction of a major bronchus lead to atelectasis?
A)Decreased surfactant production impairs lung expansion.
B)The involved lung is compressed.
C)Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
D)Air continues to be inspired but is trapped distal to the obstruction.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a patient with active tuberculosis?
A)Streptomycin
B)Isoniazid
C)Rifampin
D)streptomycin
Q3) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)is caused by a/an:
A)Rhinovirus
B)Mycoplasma
C)Influenza virus
D)Coronavirus
Q4) Whenever PO levels decrease below normal,then PCO levels:
A)increase
B)decrease also
C)may or may not change
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors appear to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?
A)dietary factors
B)environmental toxins
C)genetic and immunologic factors
D)chronic alcoholism
Q2) What does the term periodontitis refer to?
A)erosion of the enamel tooth surface
B)bacterial damage to the ligaments and bone surrounding teeth
C)inflammation and infection of the gingivae
D)formation of calcified plaque on the tooth
Q3) What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
A)formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
B)infection by intestinal microbes
C)immune complex reaction
D)activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
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22
Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Q1) What does hydronephrosis lead to?
A)ischemia and fibrosis in the compressed area
B)multiple hemorrhages in the kidney
C)severe colicky pain radiating into the groin
D)increased GFR
Q2) Why does metabolic acidosis develop with bilateral kidney disease?
A)Tubule exchanges are impaired.
B)GFR is increased.
C)Serum urea is increased.
D)More bicarbonate ion is produced.
Q3) What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?
A)decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
B)decreased reabsorption of H+ in the tubules
C)increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone
D)inhibition of renin
Q4) What is a cause of acute tubule necrosis and acute renal failure?
A)prolonged circulatory shock
B)sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins
C)crush injuries or burns
D)all of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to:
A)the left frontal lobe
B)the left temporal lobe
C)the right motor cortex
D)Wernicke's area
Q2) Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio virus?
A)pain and paresthesia in a cranial nerve or dermatome
B)loss of motor and sensory function in the peripheral nerves
C)inflammation and increased intracranial pressure
D)loss of function of motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
Q3) Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture?
A)It is usually performed at L3-L4.
B)Fluid is withdrawn from the epidural space.
C)It can be used to confirm any diagnosis.
D)The tissue seals up immediately after puncture.
Q4) How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
A)rate decreases
B)rate increases
C)no change in rate
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
A)paralysis of the lower body,impaired cognitive function
B)tremors,weakness in the legs,visual problems
C)sensory deficit in the legs and trunk,memory loss,urinary incontinence
D)tremors,speech impairment,hearing loss
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
A)remissions and exacerbations
B)predictable pattern of progression in all patients
C)onset in men and women more than 60 years of age
D)full recovery of function during remissions
Q3) How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
A)prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
B)only after birth by direct observation of the sac
C)after birth when the sac herniates as CSF builds up
D)only with a spinal x-ray
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Q1) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A)retinal detachment
B)chronic (wide-angle)glaucoma
C)cataract
D)macular degeneration
Q2) Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
A)pupils are constricted
B)pupils are dilated
C)lens changes shape
D)excess vitreous humor forms
Q3) Which fluid is constantly secreted and reabsorbed through structures within the eye?
A)aqueous humor
B)vitreous humor
C)tears
D)cerebrospinal fluid
Q4) Loss of vision can occur when:
A)excessive intraocular pressure develops
B)the cornea is scarred
C)either of the preceding occurs
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Why does diabetes insipidus cause polyuria?
A)There is increased osmotic pressure of the filtrate.
B)Damaged tubules cannot reabsorb sufficient fluid.
C)Excessive ADH secretion is present.
D)There is a deficit of ADH.
E)Excessive aldosterone is secreted.
Q2) Which of the following indicates compensated acidosis in the diabetic?
A)increased serum bicarbonate
B)serum pH of 7.35
C)increased serum carbonic acid
D)urine pH 8.0
Q3) What is caused by hyperparathyroidism?
A)hypocalcemia
B)tetany
C)bone demineralization
D)deficit of vitamin D
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Q1) What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A)leukocytosis
B)osteoporosis
C)severe anemia
D)orthostatic hypotension
Q2) All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
A)weight-bearing activity
B)a sedentary lifestyle
C)long-term intake of glucocorticoids
D)calcium deficit
Q3) Immovable joints are called:
A)amphiarthroses
B)synarthroses
C)diarthroses
D)synovial joints
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28
Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a raised,thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
A)papule
B)pustule
C)vesicle
D)macule
Q2) All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
A)The malignant cell is a melanocyte.
B)They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.
C)The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early.
D)The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border.
Q3) Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
A)small brown pruritic lines
B)painful and pruritic fissures
C)erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
D)firm,red,painful nodule or pustule
Q4) Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
A)loss of protective sebum
B)entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
C)blockage of sebaceous glands
D)increased sweat production
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?
A)It forms a mature ovarian follicle.
B)It secretes hCG.
C)It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last half of the menstrual cycle.
D)It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
Q2) Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?
A)amenorrhea
B)dysmenorrhea
C)oligomenorrhea
D)metrorrhagia
Q3) Painful menstruation is called:
A)polymenorrhea
B)premenstrual syndrome
C)dysmenorrhea
D)endometriosis
E)dyspareunia
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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