Pathogenic Microbiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, ecology, and mechanisms of disease caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course examines the characteristics, identification, and classification of major human pathogens, emphasizing their modes of transmission, virulence factors, and interactions with host immune defenses. Students will also study concepts in microbial pathogenesis, epidemiology, and emergence of new infectious diseases, alongside laboratory techniques for detection and control of pathogens. This course is fundamental for understanding infectious diseases and underpins careers in medicine, research, public health, and clinical microbiology.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Q1) During a single growth cycle experiment, the titer of extracellular and intracellular virus drops in the first hour.What explains this observation?
A) The virus is inactivated by antibodies in the medium.
B) The virus is inactivated by cellular enzymes.
C) The virus enters the cell and is uncoated.
D) The virus binds to the cells in the dish and can't be released.
E) The cell's antiviral defenses prevent replication of the virus
Answer: C
Q2) If the genome of a negative-strand RNA virus, which has been purified away from all of the virion proteins, was injected into the cytoplasm of an appropriate host cell, what would happen first?
A) The genome would be copied into complementary negative RNA.
B) The genome would be translated by cellular ribosome's.
C) The genome would be transcribed by a cellular RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase.
D) The genome would be transcribed by a viral RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase.
E) None of the above.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) A very common structure for bacteriophage particles is which of the following?
A) an icosahedral head and an envelope
B) a naked icosahedral head
C) a naked helical tail
D) an icosahedral head with a helical tail
E) a cubic head with a helical tail
Answer: D
Q2) The lipid membrane that surrounds the nucleocapsid of some virus particles is called the:
A) matrix
B) tegument
C) capsid
D) envelope
E) glycoprotein
Answer: D
Q3) Cryoelectron microscopy uses computer reconstruction of images of multiple virions to produce a high resolution image of a virion or capsid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) The family classification scheme for DNA bacteriophages is not very useful for describing the evolutionary relationships between these viruses.What is the best explanation for this?
A) DNA bacteriophages can infect more than one host species.
B) DNA bacteriophages have a wide variety of virion structures.
C) The viral genomes are genetic mosaics due to recombination.
D) There are too many bacteriophages to classify into families.
E) These viruses do not have an evolutionary relationship to each other.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the RNA World hypothesis, which of the following enzymes may have evolved first?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
E) self-replicating RNAs
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) Orthymyxoviruses and paramyxoviruses both bind to which receptor on the surface of which host cells?
A) an immunoglobulin family receptor protein
B) the CD4 protein
C) the carbohydrate sialic acid
D) the neuraminidase enzyme
E) a multiple membrane spanning transport protein
Q2) The interaction between the viral particle and the host cell receptor is a major determinant of the species specificity of viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best description of a syncytia?
A) A cellular structure that viruses us to move within a host cell.
B) A fusion of two cells causes by viral envelope glycoproteins.
C) A structure between two plant cells that viruses can use for cell to cell movement.
D) A vesicle involved in the receptor mediated endocytosis pathway.
E) A protein that is involved in the transport of proteins into the nucleus.
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) Why must the ssRNA phage, like MS2 and Qb, prevent the viral genome from simultaneously being translated by a ribosome and replicated by the replicase enzyme?
Describe the mechanism that these viruses use to prevent this from happening.
Q2) Which of the following proteins in the virions of the ssRNA phages binds to the F-pilus during virus attachment and entry?
A) Lysis protein
B) Attachment protein
C) Coat protein
D) Maturation protein
E) Replicase protein
Q3) The viral polymerase complex from the RNA phage Qb contains which of the following host cell proteins?
A) Host Factor
B) S1 ribosomal protein
C) EF-Tu translational factor
D) EF-Ts translational factor
E) All of the above are part of the complex.
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Abundant synthesis of the E protein from the bacteriophage X174 would lead to premature lysis of the host cell.Which of the following mechanisms controls the synthesis of the E protein?
A) The mRNA is transcribed from a weak promoter.
B) The open reading frame has a weak ribosome binding site.
C) The secondary structure of the mRNA prevents translation of the E protein.
D) The repressor protein prevents transcription of the mRNA.
E) There is a strong transcriptional terminator upstream of the E gene.
Q2) Which of the following describes the first step in the replication cycle of the phage X174?
A) Conversion of ssDNA into dsDNA.
B) Translation of the viral genome into protein.
C) Transcription of the viral DNA by the cellular RNA polymerase.
D) Transcription of the viral DNA by the viral RNA polymerase.
E) Integration of the viral DNA into the host chromosome.
Q3) The ssDNA phage X174 does not encode DNA binding proteins to regulation gene expression from the viral genome.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) What is unique about the RNA polymerase encoded by the bacteriophage T7?
A) It depends on host cell proteins for its function.
B) It is composed of a single polypeptide.
C) It is composed of many polypeptides.
D) It can transcribe host genes in addition to viral genes.
E) It can only transcribe the Class I genes on the T7 genome.
Q2) The genome of the bacteriophage T7 has circularly permuted ends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The RNA polymerase from bacteriophage T7 has become a useful tool in molecular biology.Which of the following describes how it can be used?
A) To express high levels of a foreign protein in a bacterial cell.
B) To measure small amounts of target RNA molecules in a sample.
C) To measure the levels of pathogenic viruses in drinking water.
D) To amplify DNA molecules in a sample.
E) To fuse two pieces of RNA together.
Q4) How does the bacteriophage T7 inhibit the host cell RNA polymerase and why is this advantageous to the virus?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) The N and Q proteins from phage both have which of the following functions?
A) Recombination of the viral genome
B) Repressors of transcription initiation
C) Activators of transcription initiation
D) Repressors of transcription termination
E) Unwinding of the viral genome
Q2) Explain the mechanisms by which treatment of a phage lysogen with UV light leads to the induction of the prophage and the production of virus particles.
Q3) Which of the following terms describes a bacterial cell that has a repressed copy of a bacteriophage genome integrated into its chromosome?
A) Lysogenic
B) Temperate
C) Prophage
D) Lytic
E) Lysogen
Q4) Explain how the binding affinity of the phage cI repressor to the three rightward operators (O<sub>R</sub>1, O<sub>R</sub>2, O<sub>R</sub>3)controls transcription from both P<sub>R</sub> and P<sub>RM</sub>?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Some of the viruses that infect host cells in the euryarchaeota phyla have similar virion structures as the head-tail viruses in the Myoviridae and Siphoviridae families.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Even though the two archaeal viruses HHPV-1 and HRPV-1 are clearly related to each other, based on genome and virion structures, they have one major difference.Which of the following describes this difference?
A) One can undergo lysogeny while the other can only carry out lytic infection.
B) One infects hyperthermophilic hosts while the other infects a hyperhalophilic host.
C) One packages a dsDNA genome while the other packages a ssDNA genome.
D) One appears to encode an obvious DNA polymerase while the other does not.
E) One has a linear genome while the other has a circular genome.
Q3) Which of the following is a description of an IS element?
A) A short transposable DNA sequence
B) A region of DNA where transcription begins
C) A telomeric-like sequence at the ends of the DNA
D) A region of the host chromosome where the viral DNA integrates
E) A region of DNA that acts as an origin or replication
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11
Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) Which of the following describes the structures of the genomic RNA segments from cucumber mosaic virus?
A) They have a 5' cap and a 3' poly A tail.
B) They have a 5' IRES and a 3' poly A tail.
C) They have a 5' cap and a 3' terminal tRNA-like structure.
D) They have a 5' phosphate and a 3' terminal tRNA-like structure.
E) They have a protein covalently bound to the 5' end and a 3' poly A tail.
Q2) Which of the following statements about cucumber mosaic virus is FALSE?
A) It has an enveloped helical nucleocapsid.
B) It has a wide range of host species that it can infect.
C) Its genome is composed of positive-strand RNA.
D) It is transmitted by aphids.
E) It can cause asymptomatic infections in some plants.
Q3) Which of the following describes a feature of plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, that is rare or absent in animal viruses?
A) Segmented genomes are each packaged into a single virion.
B) Viral particles are transmitted to new hosts via an insect vector.
C) Viral genomes are composed of ssRNA with a negative sense.
D) Viral genomic RNA has a 5' cap.
E) Segmented genomes are each packaged into separate virions.
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Q1) Entry of the poliovirus genome into the host cell involves all of the following EXCEPT
A) Binding to a host cell receptor
B) Extrusion of the hydrophobic N-terminus of VP1
C) Conformational change of the virion
D) Loss of the internal VP4 protein
E) Acidification of the endosome
Q2) The 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA contains all of the following EXCEPT
A) A 5' cap
B) An unusually long noncoding region
C) A pyrimidine-rich tract
D) A high degree of RNA secondary structure
E) Multiple AUG start codons
Q3) Hepatitis A produces less cytopathic effects in infected cells than other picornaviruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the rhinovirus capsid can evolve to evade the immune system yet can still bind and recognize the same host cell receptor.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) Infection with a second strain of Dengue fever virus within two years of having had the first strain causes Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cloned DNA copy of the yellow fever virus can be used to produce infectious viral RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) West Nile Virus was introduced into the United States in 1999 and became an endemic infection over the next several years.Which of the following wild animal populations does this virus circulate in?
A) Bats
B) Bees
C) Birds
D) Beetles
E) Bears
Q4) Describe the final processing steps that the flavivirus virion goes through in order to be converted from an immature virion into a mature infectious virion.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) The P123 version of the polymerase protein from togaviruses can autocatalytically cleave itself into the individual nonstructural proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following members of the togavirus family is not transmitted via mosquitoes?
A) Sindbis virus
B) Equine Encephalitis virus
C) Rubella virus
D) Ross River virus
E) Semliki Forest virus
Q3) What is the definition of a "dead-end" host for an arbovirus?
A) A vertebrate host that does not transmit the virus efficiently.
B) An insect vector that dies before it can transmit the virus.
C) A vertebrate host that does not get sick when infected with the virus.
D) An insect vector that poorly replicates the virus.
E) A virus that can not replicate in the lungs of the host
Q4) There are two proposed mechanisms for how togaviruses assemble their virions.Describe the two mechanisms and any available evidence that supports them.
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?
Q2) All of the following are diseases which can be caused by members of the coronavirus family EXCEPT:
A) Bronchitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Arthritis
D) Gastroenteritis
E) Encephalitis
Q3) The subgenomic mRNAs in the coronaviruses are synthesized from subgenomic negative-strand templates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The negative-strand RNA templates account for over 10% of the RNA molecules found in a coronavirus infected cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following conditions during infection with a paramyxovirus causes the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to switch from start-stop transcription to production of full-length positive-strand antigenomes?
A) Levels of the mRNAs transcribed.
B) Concentration of the N protein.
C) Proteolytic cleavage of the polymerase protein.
D) Phosphorylation of the polymerase protein.
E) Levels of the L protein.
Q2) In the paramyxoviruses, cleavage of the F0 protein into two subunits F1 and F2 is important for which of the following?
A) Formation of the envelope.
B) Glycosylation of the protein.
C) Creation of the transmembrane domain.
D) Exposing the fusion peptide.
Q3) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)is a common complication of measles where the virus infects the nervous tissue immediately after causing the typical measles virus symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) All of the following are similarities between filoviruses and paramyxoviruses EXCEPT .
A) They have enveloped virions.
B) They have negative-strand RNA genomes.
C) They have long thin virions.
D) They encode the nucleocapsid gene at the 3' end of the genome.
E) They encode the polymerase gene at the 5' end of the genome.
Q2) Explain the system that has allowed scientists to produce infectious filoviruses using transfection of several plasmids into cells.
Q3) Scientists produced a mutant Ebola virus that does not express any of the soluble form of the envelope glycoprotein (sGP)but can only express the membrane bound form (GP).Which of the following explains the results of infecting cells with this mutant?
A) It caused the cells to release more virus from the cell.
B) It resulted in virus particles with higher levels of GP.
C) It allowed the immune system to attack the virus.
D) It caused the virus to produce smaller plaques.
E) It reduced the cytopathic effect caused by the virus.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes a similarity between bunyaviruses and flaviviruses?
A) They both have positive-strand RNA virus genomes.
B) They both have negative-strand RNB virus genomes.
C) They both have members that are transmitted by insects.
D) The both have members that only replicate in insects.
E) The both similar virion structures.
Q2) Bunyavirus mRNAs can be translated while they are still being transcribed by the viral RNA polymerase.Why has this been shown to be important for this group of viruses?
A) Transcription prevents premature termination of translation.
B) Translation prevents premature termination of transcription.
C) It allows the virus to use attenuation as a regulatory mechanism.
D) The virus can translate the structural protein on the rough ER ribosomes.
E) It prevents cellular ribosomes from translating cellular mRNAs.
Q3) Explain how genetic drift and shift can lead to the emergence of new strains of bunyavirus that are pathogenic in humans.
Q4) Bunyaviruses appear to use a pH dependent mechanism for entry into host cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) Most seasonal outbreaks of human influenza are caused by the influenza C virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Influenza virus is one of the only RNA viruses that replicates in the nucleus of the host cell.How does this virus regulate transport of viral nucleocapsids into and out of the nucleus at various times during the infection?
Q3) Several of the protein from influenza virus interact with the cellular protein a-importin.Why is this necessary for virus infection?
A) It allows the viral proteins to by glycosylated in the Golgi.
B) It is important for entry of the viral genomes into the cell.
C) It transports the viral proteins to the plasma membrane.
D) It transports the viral proteins into the nucleus.
E) It is involved in fusion of the viral envelope with the endosome.
Q4) While often confused with milder upper-respiratory infections caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses, the symptoms of influenza infection are more severe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Infectious subvirion particles are intermediates in the assembly of reovirus virions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The human pathogenic virus, rotavirus, is a member of the reovirus family and causes severe diarrhea in children.Describe the adaptations that rotavirus virions have which allow them to survive the human gastrointestinal tract.
Q3) Which of the following factors affect the abundance of the viral proteins produced during infection with a reovirus?
A) Length of the mRNA.
B) Sequences surrounding the start codon.
C) Length of the 5' noncoding sequences.
D) Secondary structure in the 5' noncoding sequences.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Reovirus capsid proteins assemble around positive-strand RNA segments before completion of genome replication.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Eukaryotic cellular chromosomes use the same mechanism as the parvoviruses to maintain the ends of their linear DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does NOT explain why parvoviruses replicate better in tumor cells than in normal cells?
A) Tumor cells have a reduced interferon response than normal cells.
B) Tumor cells bind to more parvovirus virions than normal cells.
C) Tumor cells have reduced DNA damage response than normal cells.
D) Tumor cells go through the cell cycle more quickly than normal cells.
E) None of the above.
Q3) Which of the following distinguishes the parvoviruses from adenoviruses and polyomaviruses?
A) They have naked capsids.
B) They replicate in the nucleus.
C) They require the cellular DNA polymerase.
D) They cannot induce the cell to enter S phase.
E) They have a DNA genome.
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Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) The nuclear localization signal on which of the following proteins directs the SV40 genome into the nucleus of the infected cell?
A) Importin
B) VP1
C) VP2
D) Histone 2A
E) Large T antigen
Q2) If the histone proteins are removed from genome of SV40, which of the following will happen?
A) The DNA becomes supercoiled.
B) The DNA becomes nicked.
C) The DNA assumes a relaxed circle form.
D) The DNA becomes denatured.
E) Nothing happens to the DNA.
Q3) While SV40 can not cause tumors in monkeys or humans, it can transform rodent cells.Explain the molecular mechanisms that cause this to happen.
Q4) Polyomaviruses are a major infectious cause of human cancers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) In papillomaviruses, plasmid replication produces a large number of viral genomes which will be packaged into new virions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cellular events causes the papillomavirus to enter "vegetative replication"?
A) Induction of the apoptosis pathway.
B) Entry into the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) Terminal differentiation of keratinocytes.
D) Cell division of the host cell.
E) Transformation into a cancer cell.
Q3) Which of the following is thought to be the reservoir for human papilomaviruses?
A) Cottontail rabbits
B) Surfaces contaminated with papillomaviruses.
C) Human male genital tract.
D) Human female genital tract
E) Both male and female genital tracts.
Q4) Mutations in the p53 gene are seen in over 50% of human tumors.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) Adenovirus has a linear double-stranded DNA genome.Describe how adenovirus DNA is replicated so that the "end problem" is solved.
Q2) There are five families of mature transcripts produced from the major late gene of adenovirus.Which of the following is the MAJOR determinant for which family is produced from the primary transcript?
A) The location of the polyadenylation site.
B) The location of the 5' splice site.
C) The location of the 3' splice site.
D) The location of the transcription start site.
E) The location of the start codon.
Q3) What is the function of the VA RNAs produced by adenovirus?
A) Inhibition of the cellular RNA polymerase III.
B) Inhibition of the interferon induced PKR kinase.
C) Stimulation of translation of viral mRNAs.
D) Regulation of mRNA stability.
E) Inhibition of the adaptive immune system.
Q4) A strain of adenovirus, called ONYX-015, that does not express the E1B 55K protein, is being studied as a treatment for cancer.Why does the lack of E1B 55K allows this virus to spread and kill cancer cells but not normal cells?
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is a disease NOT caused by a member of the herpesvirus family?
A) Cold sores.
B) Chickenpox
C) Common cold.
D) Encephalitis.
E) Hepatitis.
Q2) The EBER RNAs encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus are synthesizes by RNA polymerase III.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The EBNA1 protein is absolutely required for replication of the genome of Epstein-Barr virus during latent infection of B lymphocytes.Which of the following is NOT a function of the EBNA1 protein?
A) Binds to multiple sites on the oriP.
B) Serves as the primer for DNA replication.
C) Directs cellular replication enzymes to the viral genome.
D) Segregates the viral DNA into daughter cells.
E) Enhances expression of the latency genes.
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) How do the hosts of baculoviruses typically become infected with the virus?
A) They are injected with virus by a parasitic wasp
B) They hatch from an infected egg.
C) They breathe in aerosoled virus particles.
D) They feed on virus contaminated plants.
E) They mate with an infected host.
Q2) The tubular nucleocapsids of baculovirus allows the virion to accept a longer genome than normal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following groups of organisms is the primary host for baculoviruses?
A) mammals
B) insects
C) plants
D) bacteria
E) worms
Q4) Baculoviruses can infect and replicate in human but do not cause any disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) Smallpox was eliminated from the human population through the use of antiviral drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes the structure of the vaccinia virus genome?
A) Linear DNA with covalently closed ends.
B) Linear DNA with free ends.
C) Linear DNA with protein-bound ends.
D) Multiple linear DNA segments
E) Covalently closed circle of DNA.
Q3) Because poxviruses replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they must encode which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) mRNA processing enzymes.
D) Enzymes to produce deoxoynucleotides.
E) All of the above are encoded.
Q4) Describe the observations that Edward Jenner made and the experiment that he carried out to show that the "cowpox" virus could protect people from smallpox.
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) Which of the following may explain why mimiviruses encode a high number of DNA repair enzymes?
A) Their host produces a large number of nucleases.
B) The method used to replicate the viral genome introduces many mutations.
C) During long periods between infections, they are exposed to UV light.
D) During entry, the genome would be exposed to oxidizing conditions.
E) Both "c" and "d" are correct.
Q2) The primary capsid protein of the phycodnavirus PBCV-1, Vp54, is glycosylated.Which of the following describes how the viral protein is thought to acquire its sugar residues?
A) The sugars are added to the protein inside the lumen of the rough ER.
B) Cellular enzymes in the cytoplasm add the sugars to the capsid protein.
C) Viral enzymes add the sugars directly to the capsid protein.
D) The sugars are added to the protein in the Golgi of the host cell.
E) The sugars are added by viral enzymes after release of the virion from the host cell.
Q3) Chloroviruses, like PBCV-1, encode enzymes which can produce hyaluronan and chitin, two different saccharide polymers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) The Gag and Pol proteins are coded for in two different reading frames in the avian retroviruses.Which of the following mechanisms is used to produce the Pol proteins?
A) Alternative mRNA splicing.
B) RNA editing.
C) Read through of a translational stop codon.
D) Ribosomal frameshifting.
E) Initiation of translation at a downstream start codon.
Q2) Which of the following describes the phenomenon of promoter occlusion seen in retroviruses?
A) Transcription from the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
B) Cellular RNA polymerase can only recognize the factors bound to the left-hand LTR.
C) The inability of the LTR to be transcribed because it has integrated into heterochromatin in the host cell genome.
D) Deletion of the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
E) Transcription from both LTRs can occur simultaneously.
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) After treatment for ten years with highly active anti-retroviral drugs, most HIV infected patients can stop taking the medications and are considered cured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Rev protein from HIV has which of the following functions?
A) It can enter the nucleus of the host cell via the nuclear pore.
B) It binds to a specific RNA sequence in the viral genome.
C) It enhances transport of unspliced viral RNAs to the cytoplasm.
D) It indirectly enhances the translation of the viral mRNAs.
E) Rev has all of the above functions.
Q3) All of the following affect the clinical outcome of an infection with HIV EXCEPT:
A) The level of viral RNA maintained in the person's blood.
B) The route of infection with the virus.
C) The nature of the immune response to the virus.
D) The diversity of epitopes recognized by the immune system.
E) The strain of HIV the person was infected with.
Q4) Describe three unique aspects of HIV's biology that make it an extremely difficult virus for the human immune system to eliminate.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) Like retroviruses, the genome of hepatitis B virus is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The longest open reading frame in the genome of hepatitis B virus genome encodes which of the proteins?
A) The E protein.
B) The X protein.
C) The largest surface antigen.
D) The capsid protein.
E) The reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Q3) Which of the following describes an interesting feature of the preC and pregenomic mRNAs produced by the hepatitis B virus?
A) They are extensively spliced to produce a set of nested mRNAs.
B) They are transcribed by the cellular RNA polymerase III enzyme.
C) They are produced by the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
D) They are transcribed past a polyadenylation site near the promoter.
E) They each code for several proteins due to the use of alternative start codons.
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Viroids encode a single protein which is used to package the RNA for transmission between hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes the function of the large delta antigen, produced by hepatitis delta virus?
A) It stimulates the binding of the host cell RNA polymerase for genome replication.
B) It carries out the cleavage of the genome multimers into monomers.
C) It is required to package the genome into the hepatitis B virions.
D) It forms capsids to package the hepatitis delta virus genome.
E) It ligates the ends of the RNA genomes together.
Q3) When the ribozyme activity in the avocado sunblotch viroid cleaves the RNA genome, which of the following describes the structure of the nucleotide on the 5' side of the cleavage?
A) It contains a 5' phosphate group
B) It contains a 3' phosphate group
C) It contains a 3'-OH group
D) It contains a 2', 3'-cyclic phosphate
E) It contains a 3' hydrogen
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) All prion associated diseases are confined to which of the following organ systems of the body?
A) Immune system.
B) Muscular system.
C) Central nervous system.
D) Digestive system.
E) Endocrine system.
Q2) All of the following diseases have been demonstrated to be caused by protein misfolding EXCEPT:
A) Alzheimers disease
B) Autism
C) Huntington's disease
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) The high proportion of people who are heterozygous at codon 129 of the prion protein gene suggests that ancient humans may have participated in ritualistic cannibalism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is the best-known substrate of the interferon induced PKR?
A) Jak kinase
B) Ribonuclease L
C) Translation factor eIF2
D) IRF-3
E) Large ribosomal subunit
Q2) What is the role of the enzyme IKK in cellular antiviral defenses?
A) It phosphorylates the Stat protein during interferon signaling.
B) It phosphorylates IRF-3 transcription factor and activates it.
C) It phosphorylates the NF-kB protein and activates it.
D) It phosphorylates the IkB protein and inactivates it.
E) It phosphorylates the IkB protein and activates it.
Q3) Interferon can only induce an antiviral state in a cell if it enters the nucleus and binds to the promoters of interferon inducible genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is double-stranded RNA such a potent inducer of a cell's antiviral defenses?
Describe one antiviral defense system that requires double-stranded RNA in order to be activated.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to
Virus Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is a situation where an NK cell can recognize a virally infected cell and kill it?
A) The plasma membrane contains viral glycoproteins.
B) The NK cell recognizes the MHC-I complex on the surface.
C) The infected cell displays peptides on MHC-I complexes on its surface
D) The infected cell has a reduced amount of MHC proteins on its surface.
E) The NK cell recognizes the virus host cell receptor on the surface of the cell.
Q2) The constant region of an antibody molecule is only located on the light chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about MHC class I molecules is FALSE?
A) They are located on the surface of all cells in the body.
B) They are used to identify the cells as belonging to the host (self-identification).
C) They are recognized by natural killer cells.
D) They present cytoplasmic peptides to cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
E) They are recognized by B lymphocytes.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) The current vaccines that are marketed for human papillomavirus and hepatitis B are examples of what type of vaccine?
A) Subunit vaccine
B) Chimeric virus
C) Whole inactivated vaccine
D) Live attenuated vaccine
E) Multivalent peptide vaccine
Q2) Describe the benefits of using subunit vaccines rather than live or inactivated virus vaccines.What are some of the new techniques being investigated to produce recombinant vaccines that would improve the effectiveness of these types of vaccines?
Q3) Which of the following is the primary reason that live attenuated vaccines so difficult to develop?
A) Viruses do not mutate very quickly.
B) Viruses replicate very quickly.
C) The mutations that determine attenuation can not be predicted.
D) Not all pathogenic viruses can be grown in culture.
E) It is difficult to maintain the stability of attenuated viruses.
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) Describe the two factors that determine how the antiviral drug acyclovir is specifically targeted to inhibit the replication of herpes simplex virus.
Q2) Which of the following describes how the nonnucleoside inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase are different than the nucleoside inhibitors?
A) The nonnucleoside inhibitors prevent addition of the next nucleotide.
B) The nonnucleoside inhibitors do not bind to the active site of the enzyme.
C) The nonnucleoside inhibitors must be activated by the cellular thymidine kinase.
D) The nonnucleoside inhibitors prevent synthesis of the reverse transcriptase.
E) The nonnucleoside inhibitors lack a 3' OH group.
Q3) Explain the targeted-based high throughput screen approach to the discovery of new antiviral drugs.What makes a good viral target for this approach?
Q4) In addition to treating virus infections in patients, some antiviral drugs have been useful tools in the research lab to dissect the function of viral proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) A mammalian expression cassette used to produce an exogenous gene in a virus vector must have which of the following components?
A) Splicing signals.
B) Strong enhancer.
C) Polyadenylation signal
D) Translational leader sequence
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Zinc finger nucleases could be used to solve one major disadvantage of using retrovirus vectors in gene therapy treatments.Which of the following disadvantages could they solve?
A) The low levels of transgene expression.
B) The stimulation of the immune system by the virus vector.
C) The random integration into the host genome.
D) The ability to only insert small transgenes in the vector.
E) The toxicity of the viral proteins to the transduced cell.
Q3) The genes to treat most of the severe genetic diseases could fit in the AAV genome.
A)True
B)False
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