

Orthopedic Physical Therapy
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Orthopedic Physical Therapy focuses on the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of musculoskeletal conditions and injuries. This course covers the anatomical, biomechanical, and physiological principles underlying orthopedic disorders, including fractures, joint replacements, ligament sprains, and muscle strains. Students will learn to develop evidence-based treatment plans that utilize manual therapy techniques, therapeutic exercises, modalities, and patient education. Emphasis is placed on assessment techniques, clinical reasoning, and the creation of individualized rehabilitation programs aimed at restoring function, reducing pain, and optimizing patient outcomes in a variety of orthopedic populations.
Recommended Textbook
Joint Structure and Function 5th Edition by Pamela K. Levangie
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12 Chapters
299 Verified Questions
299 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3869

2

Chapter 1: Biomechanical Applications to Joint Structure and Function
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77116
Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of lever is the M Ad always less than one?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Answer: C
Q2) Upon what variables is the magnitude of friction dependent?
Answer: The magnitude of friction is dependent upon (1)the magnitude of contact between the two surfaces on which the friction is occurring-increased contact increases the maximum value of static friction or the absolute value of kinetic friction; (2)the nature of the contacting surfaces-the rougher one or both of the surfaces (increased coefficient of static or kinetic friction),the greater is the maximum value of static friction or the absolute value of kinetic friction; and (3)the shear force(s)on the objects-friction has magnitude only when there is attempted motion (static friction)or actual motion (kinetic friction)between the two surfaces-the magnitude of friction on a static object will always equal the net shear force on that object; the magnitude of friction on a moving object is always the product of the contact force and the coefficient of kinetic friction.
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Joint Structure and Function
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77115
Sample Questions
Q1) When a bone is repeatedly loaded with low-level forces over an extended period of time,fatigue fractures may occur within the bone.This is due to:
A) Increased stiffness,decreased yield strength,increased permanent deformation
B) Decreased stiffness,increased yield strength,no effect on deformation
C) Decreased stiffness,decreased yield strength,increased permanent deformation
D) Increased stiffness,increased yield strength,no effect on deformation
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would constitute a closed kinematic chain activity of the left shoulder complex?
A) Using your left arm to push yourself out of a chair
B) Throwing a Frisbee with your left hand
C) Combing your hair with your left hand
D) Waving with your left hand
Answer: A
Q3) The plastic portion of the stress-strain curve pictured above lies between:
A) Point A and point B
B) Point A and point D
C) Point B and point D
Answer: C
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Muscle Structure and Function
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77114
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient attempts to strengthen his triceps by positioning his shoulder at the end of range of shoulder and elbow extension.He reports weakness and inability to extend his shoulder more in this position.His report may best be explained by which of the following?
A) Active insufficiency of the biceps
B) Active insufficiency of the triceps
C) Passive insufficiency of the biceps
D) Passive insufficiency of the triceps
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding cross-bridges?
A) A cross-bridge is the basic unit of active muscle tension.
B) A cross-bridge is formed when head groups on the actin myofilament bind with tropomyosin on the myosin filament.
C) Cross-bridges do not occur in lengthening contractions.
D) A release of sodium is necessary to reveal the binding site on the actin.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Vertebral Column
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77113
Sample Questions
Q1) What effect will normal gravitational moments tend to have on a weak sacroiliac joint?
Q2) What is the difference between the lamina and the pedicle of the vertebrae?
Q3) Which muscle serves as an important frontal and horizontal plane stabilizer of the trunk?
A) Longissimus thoracis
B) Quadratus lumborum
C) Rectus abdominus
D) Iliocostalis lumborum
Q4) Which of the following structures would be best suited to resist the tensile forces produced during spinal extension?
A) Posterior vertebral body
B) Posterior longitudinal ligament
C) Anterior longitudinal ligament
D) Facet capsule
Q5) Identify the ligaments that are unique to each of the areas,including the motions each ligament checks.
Q6) What is the predominant motion of the lumbar region? Where is the most motion occurring? Contrast the mobility and stability demands of this area.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Thorax and Chest Wall
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77112
Sample Questions
Q1) How does pregnancy affect the biomechanics of the chest wall?
Q2) Describe the ligamentous support system for the costotransverse (CT)joint.
Q3) During respiration,motion occurs at both the costovertebral and costotransverse joints.Which of the following statements is true regarding the axis of motion and the type of motion that occurs at these joints?
A) The axis of motion of the upper ribs is close to the sagittal plane.
B) The axis of motion of the lower ribs is close to the frontal plane.
C) Motion of the upper ribs increases in the transverse (medial/lateral)diameter of the thorax.
D) The lateral end of the lower ribs is displaced laterally.
Q4) Which of the following is considered an accessory muscle of inspiration?
A) Pectoralis minor
B) Quadratus lumborum
C) Diaphragm
D) Scalenes
Q5) The "pump handle" motion of the upper ribs occurs primarily in what plane of motion?
A) Horizontal
B) Frontal
C) Sagittal

Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Temporomandibular Joint
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77111
Sample Questions
Q1) During normal mandibular lateral deviation to the left,the left condylar head moves in this manner.
A) Gliding posteriorly and superiorly
B) Gliding anteriorly and inferiorly
C) Spinning posteriorly
D) Spinning anteriorly
Q2) Biting down on the left side of the mouth promotes unloading of the right temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first phase of mandibular depression occurs in the ________________joint and consists of anterior ________________of the condylar head.
A) upper,rotation
B) lower,rotation
C) upper,translation
D) lower,translation
Q4) Describe the attachments of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
Q5) What is the significance of a "reciprocal click"?
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Chapter 7: The Shoulder Complex
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77110
Sample Questions
Q1) How would range and strength of abduction of the upper extremity be affected if there were a rupture of the coracoclavicular ligament?
Q2) Elevation of the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint involves osteokinematic motion of the clavicle in the ________________direction and arthrokinematic motion of the joint surface in the ________________direction.
A) inferior,superior
B) inferior,inferior
C) superior,inferior
D) superior,superior
Q3) How would range and strength of abduction of the upper extremity be affected if the sternoclavicular joint were fused?
Q4) When a tennis player elevates her shoulder during a serve,the clavicle rolls in a(n)________________direction and glides in a(n)________________direction on the clavicular notch at the sternoclavicular joint.
A) superior,superior
B) inferior,inferior
C) superior,inferior
D) inferior,superior
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Page 9

Chapter 8: The Elbow Complex
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77109
Sample Questions
Q1) A football offensive lineman takes his three-point stance.The base of support (BOS)includes 1 upper extremity (hand placed on ground)and both lower extremities with his right elbow in 30° of flexion.Which of the following would best resist a valgus stress applied to the humeroulnar joint by an opposing player?
A) Lateral collateral ligament
B) Anterior medial collateral ligament
C) Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
D) Posterior medial collateral ligament
Q2) What is the causative mechanism and the structure(s)involved in "Nursemaid's elbow"?
Q3) Which of the following muscles helps to support the medial collateral ligament when exposed to large valgus forces?
A) Brachioradialis
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
C) Pronator quadrates
D) Anconeus
Q4) Where would you position the elbow joint to optimize the biomechanical effects of both the brachialis and the biceps brachii?
Q5) Which muscles are the first recruited in forearm supination and pronation?
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Chapter 9: The Wrist and Hand Complex
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77108
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the joint structure of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joints with that of the interphalangeal (IP)joints of the fingers.Identify both similarities and differences.
Q2) Which of the following factors would explain why there is a weaker grip on the ulnar side of the hand?
A) Active finger flexion range of motion (ROM)increases from the radial to the ulnar side of the hand,lending to increased occurrence of active insufficiency of the ulnar digits.
B) Active finger flexion ROM increases from the ulnar to the radial side of the hand,lending to increased occurrence of active insufficiency of the radial digits.
C) Active finger flexion is the same in all fingers.
D) Weaker grip is not possible with the ulnar side of the hand.
Q3) If finger flexion strength is measured at each extreme of the four wrist motions,which position is least effective for grasp? If wrist positions were combined (multiplanar),which would give the most effective grip?
Q4) What requirement does spherical grip have that differentiates it from a cylindrical grip?
Q5) Why is it hypothesized that the ECU is active during wrist flexion?
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Chapter 10: The Hip Complex
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77107
Sample Questions
Q1) What forces maintain A-P equilibrium of the hip joints in bilateral stance?
Q2) If an individual has a weak gluteus medius:
A) The hip joint compression forces are greater during single limb stance,which can lead to joint degeneration.
B) He or she will rarely present with a Trendelenburg gait.
C) He or she will often shift the trunk over the hip to eliminate the force the gluteus medius needs to produce for single limb stance.
D) Using a cane on the ipsilateral side is a good way to address the weakness.
Q3) The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles act:
A) To stabilize the pelvis during unilateral stance.
B) As the primary extensors of the hip.
C) To laterally rotate the hip in unilateral stance.
D) As accessory muscles to hip flexion.
Q4) How can the two-joint hip muscles affect this rhythm?
Q5) What is the role of the ligamentum teres at the hip joint?
Q6) Why are fractures across the femoral neck common,especially among elderly women? How does the blood supply of the femoral head play a role in the critical nature of the injury?
Q7) What is the close-packed position of the hip joint?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Knee Complex
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77106
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the screw home mechanism of the tibiofemoral joint during open kinetic chain movement?
A) Lateral rotation of the femur on the tibia occurring at 90<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
B) Medial rotation of the tibia on the femur occurring at 60<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
C) Lateral rotation of the tibia on the femur occurring at 0<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
D) Medial rotation of the femur on the tibia occurring at 45<sup>o</sup> knee flexion to lock the tibiofemoral joint in its close-packed position
Q2) Describe the patellofemoral articulation,including the number and shape of the surfaces.
Q3) Which facet(s)of the patella are subject to the earliest degenerative changes under normal conditions? Why?
Q4) What are the dynamic stabilizers of the knee,and in what plane do they contribute to stability?
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Chapter 12: The Ankle and Foot Complex
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77105
Sample Questions
Q1) When a person supinates during a closed chain activity,the head of the talus dorsiflexes and ________________on the calcaneus while the calcaneus
A) adducts,everts
B) abducts,everts
C) adducts,inverts
D) abducts,inverts
Q2) Your patient was casted and presents with limited plantarflexion range of motion (ROM)at the talocrural joint.What associated movements at the superior tibiofibular joint would you expect to be limited?
A) Cephalic fibular glide and medial rotation
B) Cephalic and posterior fibular glide
C) Caudal fibular glide and lateral rotation
D) Caudal and anterior fibular glide
Q3) Describe the three articular surfaces of the subtalar joint,including the capsular arrangement.
Q4) Describe the articulations of the transverse tarsal joint.
Q5) What ligaments contribute to support of the osseoligamentous arch of the foot on either the medial or lateral side?
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