
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior explores the dynamics of how individuals, groups, and structures influence behavior within organizations. This course examines key concepts such as motivation, leadership, team dynamics, communication, decision-making, and organizational culture. Students will analyze real-world scenarios and case studies to understand how effective management of human behavior can enhance organizational performance, foster collaboration, and drive change. Through interactive activities and discussions, the course equips students with practical skills and theoretical knowledge essential for effectively navigating and leading within complex organizational environments.
Recommended Textbook
ORGB 5th Edition by Debra L. Nelson
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18 Chapters
1128 Verified Questions
1128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of interdisciplinary influences, _____ is the science of human learned behavior.
A)management
B)anthropology
C)sociology
D)psychology
Answer: B
Q2) To ensure that skill development does occur and that the learning is self-correcting as it occurs, a student:
A)must rely primarily on the group process.
B)should not experiment with new ideas and information.
C)must passively accept the direction of others with more knowledge.
D)must accept responsibility for his or her own behavior, actions, and learning.
Answer: D
Q3) Management is especially important to our understanding of organizational culture.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The ethical questions in procedural justice examine the process by which an organization distributes its resources.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is a major challenge that managers must overcome to remain competitive?
A)Globalizing their firm's operations
B)Managing a person's finances and daily activities
C)Managing a uniform workforce
D)Anticipating changes in foreign currency valuations
Answer: A
Q3) Procedural justice concerns:
A)creativity and innovation.
B)organizational flexibility.
C)the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated.
D)the fairness of outcomes individuals receive.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of barriers to social perception, _____ are also called the Pygmalion effect.
A)projections
B)self-fulfilling prophecies
C)first-impression errors
D)selective perceptions
Answer: B
Q2) Carl Jung's theory holds that the _____ preference reflects the most important distinction among individuals.
A)Extraversion/Introversion
B)Sensing/Intuition
C)Thinking/Feeling
D)Judging/Perceiving
Answer: A
Q3) High self-monitors pay attention to what is appropriate in particular situations and to the behavior of other people, and they behave accordingly.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) What are the three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion?
Q2) In the context of the ABC Model, affect can be measured by:
A)asking a person's intentions.
B)attitude scales.
C)self-report questionnaires.
D)observing behavior.
Q3) What are the advantages of displaying ethical behavior for a firm?
Q4) In the context of ethical behavior, which of the following is an instrumental value identified by Rokeach?
A)Self-sufficiency
B)Freedom
C)Self-respect
D)Happiness
Q5) Substantial social learning occurs through cognitive dissonance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly discuss the relationship between job satisfaction and performance.
Q7) Firms with better reputations attract more applicants.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to McClelland, high achievers:
A)prefer to work alone, irrespective of their task.
B)often hope and plan for success.
C)set goals that are very simple.
D)like having external events interfere with their progress.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the expectancy theory of motivation?
A)It takes into account the irrational choices that individuals may make.
B)It is easy to test because of its simplicity.
C)It is time-consuming, and the values for each construct change over time for an individual.
D)It ignores individuals' perception of the relationship between effort and performance.
Q3) The _____ encouraged hard work on the grounds that prosperous workers were more likely to find a place in heaven.
A)psychoanalytic approach
B)Spirit of Socialism
C)Protestant ethic
D)sociocultural perspective
Q4) Briefly explain McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y.
Q5) What are some of the characteristics of high achievers?
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the planning component?
A)Interim reviews are conducted by managers and employees and formal performance evaluation.
B)Employees challenge the supervisor's ideas about future development and expressing their own goals.
C)Effective performance reviews must be tailored specifically to the business.
D)Individuals and departments develop operational and tactical plans to support the corporate objectives.
Q2) Reward and punishment decisions affect only the people receiving the consequence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first step in the performance measurement process is:
A)rewarding positive performance behaviors.
B)measuring performance.
C)defining performance in behavioral terms.
D)assessing the impact of performance behaviors.
Q4) Briefly describe the informational cues based on which attributions are made.
Q5) Briefly describe individual reward systems and team reward systems.
Q6) Briefly describe the attribution theory.
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Q1) Counterdependence, a healthy, secure interdependent pattern of behavior, is a personality attribute strongly related to social relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primary prevention is a stage in preventive stress management designed to reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand or stressor causing stress.
A)True B)False
Q3) _____, a way of managing stressful events, may lead to short-term stress reduction at the cost of healthy, long-term life adjustment.
A)Transformational coping
B)Counterdependence
C)Regressive coping
D)Stress avoidance
Q4) Dramatic changes at work and lack of control are some of the major causes of work stress.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is an example of computer-mediated communication.
A)policy manual
B)e-mail
C)operation manual
D)form
Q2) A manager says to her secretary, "Nancy is a slacker.She is always hard to find when there is a deadline." In this scenario, the manager is indulging in _____.
A)power play
B)jargon usage
C)screening
D)labeling
Q3) _____ is at the core of personal integrity and managerial success, as is evident in the lives of most successful executives.
A)Healthy communication
B)Kinesics
C)Proxemics
D)Defensive communication
Q4) How do communication technologies affect behavior in the work environment?
Q5) Explain how language is a potential barrier to communication.
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Q1) Team creativity and divergent thinking can be enhanced through greater diversity in teams, electronic brainstorming, training facilitators, and building a playground.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An effective group must have a(n)_____, especially when the group is a cross-functional one, where different perspectives carry the seeds of conflict.
A)integrator
B)communicator
C)challenger
D)collaborator
Q3) The task of seeking information involves asking for ideas, suggestions, information, or facts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of a wild turkey in the upper echelons is always a negative force.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the stages of group development in Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model.
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Q1) The organizational foundations include a _____ that is essential because of the uncertainty within the organization.
A)nominal group technique
B)social organizational scheme
C)supportive organizational culture
D)social comparison approach
Q2) In the context of personality, attitudes, and values, the left side of the brain is the center for _____.
A)creative functions
B)planning
C)incubation
D)innovative ideas
Q3) Participative decision making is associated with:
A)the ability to know the possibilities of a situation.
B)less creativity among employees.
C)reduced productivity.
D)employee job satisfaction.
Q4) Strategic decision making in firms can vary widely by culture.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) For expert power to work, _____.
A)a target must trust that the expertise given is accurate.
B)the knowledge involved must be relevant and useful to an agent.
C)an agent and a target must agree that the agent has the right to influence the target.
D)an agent's perception of a target as an expert is crucial.
Q2) In the context of using power ethically, managers should _____ for the ethical use of legitimate power.
A)make only ethical requests
B)be cordial and polite
C)maintain credibility
D)engage in role modeling
Q3) A guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power is that managers should inform subordinates of rules and penalties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The positive face of power is personal power.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Explain the role of emotional intelligence in leadership.
Q2) The basic idea behind leader-member exchange theory is that:
A)followership is based on member perceptions of equity.
B)leaders form two groups of followers: in-groups and out-groups.
C)leadership effectiveness is determined by the degree of fit between the leader and the situation.
D)leaders adapt their behavior to fit the characteristics of the work environment.
Q3) Early evidence shows that men tend to use a more people-oriented style that is inclusive and empowering than do women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the guidelines for leadership, which of the following influence organizational performance?
A)Consideration and initiating structure
B)Concern for people and concern for products
C)Position power and task structure
D)Environmental factors and technological factors
Q5) Briefly explain the five guidelines for leadership.
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Q1) A key to recognizing functional conflict is that it is often cognitive in origin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The key to conflict management is:
A)to prevent or resolve dysfunctional conflict.
B)to discourage functional conflict.
C)to enhance creativity in an organization.
D)to improve work relationship between two parties.
Q3) Emotional intelligence is:
A)an aggressive mechanism in which an individual directs his or her anger toward someone who is not the source of the conflict.
B)a compromise mechanism whereby an individual patterns her behavior after another's.
C)the emotion of love, cooperation and the common good.
D)the power to control one's emotions and perceive emotions in others.
Q4) The high versus middle versus low power network illustrates the conflict felt by middle managers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss the scientific management approach to work design as advocated by Frederick Taylor.
Q2) The _____ to job design emphasizes a person's interaction with physical aspects of the work environment and is concerned with the amount of physical exertion required.
A)biological approach
B)scientific management approach
C)job enlargement approach
D)motivational approach
Q3) The _____ was developed to diagnose jobs by measuring five core job characteristics and three critical psychological states in the Job Characteristics Model.
A)Job Diagnostic Survey
B)Motivating Potential Survey
C)Career Growth Survey
D)Organizational Position Survey
Q4) The social information-processing model emphasizes objective core job characteristics.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to Mintzberg's organizational structures, the simple structure is a decentralized form of organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of horizontal differentiation, _____ refers to the particular grouping of activities performed by an individual.
A)centralization
B)standardization
C)specialization
D)formalization
Q3) In the context of Mintzberg's structural configurations for organizations, an automobile plant with routinized operating tasks is most likely to use a(n)_____.
A)simple structure
B)machine bureaucracy
C)professional bureaucracy
D)adhocracy
Q4) What are the variables Joan Woodward, Charles Perrow, and James Thompson considered in their approaches to understand traditional organizational technologies?
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Q1) _____ are examples of the qualitative method of assessing organizational culture.
A)Observations
B)Statistical surveys
C)Graphical analyses
D)Questionnaires
Q2) _____ are characterized by cautious management that tries to protect its own interests.
A)Linear organizations
B)Adaptive cultures
C)Matrix organizations
D)Nonadaptive cultures
Q3) A heavy reliance on a strict set of rules may:
A)reduce the perceived need for employees to be involved in ethical decision making.
B)lead to strong and superior choices in the long run.
C)lead to increase in instances of whistle-blowing.
D)institute the philosophy that ethical behavior makes good business sense.
Q4) List a few ways how leaders deal with crises.
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Q1) _____ involves knowing what to expect, both good and bad, which gives a newcomer in a company a sense of control that is important to job satisfaction and performance.
A)Open mindedness
B)Job stabilization
C)Uncertainty reduction
D)Satisficing
Q2) Which of the following types of support does the aspect of psychological contracting concerned with empathy, caring, and esteem provide for a newcomer in an organization?
A)Informational support
B)Emotional support
C)Modeling support
D)Evaluative support
Q3) During the maintenance stage, an:
A)employee's primary concern is related to maintaining a work-life balance.
B)employee is often mentored by a senior colleague.
C)employee transitions to nonsupervisory positions.
D)employee's probability of moving up the hierarchy is low.
Q4) How are career anchors modified?
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Q1) The most massive scope of change in an organization is known as:
A)incremental change.
B)strategic change.
C)transitional change.
D)transformational change.
Q2) The power players in the global market are the organizations that can capitalize on emerging markets throughout the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unplanned change is incremental and results from a deliberate decision to alter an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ focus on helping employees manage their stress.
A)Role negotiation programs
B)Health promotion programs
C)Leadership training and development programs
D)Process consultation programs
Q5) Why is management by objectives (MBO)considered a valuable intervention?
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Q6) What are some of the reasons for people resisting change in organizations?
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