Organizational Behavior Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior examines the dynamics of individuals, groups, and structures within an organization to understand how they influence behavior and overall performance. This course explores key concepts such as motivation, leadership, teamwork, communication, decision-making, organizational culture, conflict, and change management. Through theoretical frameworks and practical case studies, students will develop the analytical and interpersonal skills necessary to navigate and improve workplace environments, promoting effective management and a positive organizational climate.
Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technical skill refers to the ability to see the organization as a whole, how the different parts affect each other, and how the company fits into or is affected by its environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) List and briefly describe the three basic managerial roles identified by Mintzberg. Include a list of the basic sub-roles that characterize each of these roles in your definition.
Answer: Managers fulfill three major roles while performing their jobs: (1) interpersonal roles (i.e., talking to people), which include the subroles of figurehead, leader, and liaison; (2) informational roles (i.e., gathering and giving information), which include the subroles of monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson; and (3) decisional roles (i.e., making decisions), including the subroles of entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator.
Q3) The three interpersonal roles are monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:
A) general managers
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) top managers
Answer: C
Q2) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Top managers are responsible for creating a context for change in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A manager engaged in the management function of __________ is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed.
A) planning
B) organizing C) leading D) controlling
E) motivating
Answer: D
Q3) Managers are responsible for doing the basic work in the company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ occurs when 1 + 1 = 3.
A) An open system
B) Synergy
C) Entropy
D) Reciprocity
E) A closed system
Q2) A(n) ____ is a set of interrelated elements or parts that function as a whole.
A) synergistic graph
B) dependency
C) relationship
D) organism
E) system
Q3) According to Mary Parker Follett ____.
A) most things that occur in organizations are interrelated
B) coordination is a continuing process
C) conflict can be beneficial
D) integration is the most effective approach to conflict resolution
E) all of these are true
Q4) How is your ability to be a manager influenced by acceptance of the contingency approach to management as the most effective way to manage?
Page 6
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of scientific management was to:
A) make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
B) decreased wages for individual workers
C) eliminate conflict between workers and management
D) find the one best way to perform each task
E) find different ways to motivate workers
Q2) Which of the following management theorists helped develop human relations management?
A) Max Weber
B) Mary Parker Follett
C) Henri Fayol
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Henry Gantt
Q3) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
A) Managers realized the importance of synergistic tasks.
B) Managers realized the importance of customer relations.
C) Low-paid, unskilled workers running machines began to replace high-paid, skilled artisans.
D) Skilled jobs were performed in homes rather than in factories.
E) Managers learned to use delegation.
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth are important to management because they:
A) used motion studies to eliminate unnecessary or repetitive motions from the work process
B) proved the effectiveness of nonfinancial motivators in convincing workers to strive for organizational goals
C) realized how the principles of sociology applied to worker performance
D) viewed the organization as a system that influenced its environment and that was influenced by its environment
E) identified the four functions managers perform
Q2) _____ involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A) Operations management
B) Resource management
C) Systems management
D) Contingency management
E) Bureaucratic management
Q3) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Changes in any sector of the general environment eventually affect most organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Business confidence indices are a viable alternative to economic statistics for management decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organizations use behavioral addition, behavioral substitution, and ____ to change their organizational culture.
A) media advocacy
B) visible artifacts
C) psychological counseling
D) affective stores
E) incremental valences
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Employees tend to feel a greater sense of ownership and responsibility in companies with organizational cultures characterized by:
A) delegation
B) adaptability
C) employee involvement
D) consistency
E) managerial empathy
Q3) Changes in any sector of the general environment:
A) will typically not impact most organizations
B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C) inhibit the innovation process
D) influence customers first and then suppliers
E) will eventually affect most organizations
Page 10
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q3) __________ involves deciding who your competitors are, anticipating competitors' moves, and determining competitors' strengths and weaknesses.
A) Competitive mapping
B) A market audit
C) A SWOT analysis
D) A proactive strategy
E) A competitive analysis
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) To create a compliance program that is acceptable under the U.S. Sentencing Guidelines, a company should ____.
A) establish standards and procedures to meet the company's business needs
B) put upper-level managers in charge of the compliance program
C) encourage employees to report violations
D) train employees on standards and procedures
E) do all of these
Q2) Refer to Gap. Today it could be argued that Gap has become the most proactive retailer in the industry. This means Gap ____.
A) admits responsibility for problems but does the least required to meet social expectations
B) does less than society expects
C) accepts responsibility for a problem and does all that society expects to solve that problem
D) anticipates responsibility for a problem before it occurs and does more than society expects to address the problem
E) anticipates responsibility for a problem before it occurs and tries to keep the general public from learning about it
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12
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Kohlberg's model of moral development, people at the __________ make decisions that conform to societal expectations.
A) unconventional level
B) preconventional level
C) conventional level
D) postconventional level
E) amoral level
Q2) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
Q2) Historically, __________ responsibility means making a profit by producing a product valued by society. It has been business's most basic social responsibility.
A) discretionary
B) ethical
C) legal
D) fiscal
E) economic
Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is responsible for developing strategic plans that make clear how the company will serve customers and position itself against competitors in the next two to five years.
A) An action team
B) Middle management
C) Planning staff
D) A change agent
E) Top management
Q2) According to the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines, goals should be ____.
A) Service-oriented
B) Measurable
C) Rational
D) Tactical
E) Actionable
Q3) Briefly identify and explain the two accepted methods of tracking progress toward goal achievement.
Q4) Identify and explain the purpose of the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines.
Q5) List the six steps in the rational decision making process.
Q6) List and briefly describe the three kinds of standing plans. Comment on their relative specificity.
Page 15
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
Q2) Top management is responsible for developing long-term:
A) standing plans
B) tactical plans
C) operational plans
D) strategic plans
E) mission statements
Q3) The process of decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
Q2) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
Q4) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strategic dissonance is a discrepancy between upper management's intended strategy and the strategy actually implemented by the lower levels of management.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the five industry forces that determine overall levels of competition in an industry. Identify what happens to competition as these forces increase in strength.
Q3) ____ is the measure of the intensity of competitive behavior between companies in an industry.
A) Character of culture
B) Competitive barrier
C) Character of the rivalry
D) Benchmarked rivalries
E) Product substitutability
Q4) Briefly identify the four conditions used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage by companies.
Q5) How do companies use situational analyses and what are the basic components of a situational analysis?
Q6) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
Q2) The research on diversification in portfolio management indicates that the best approach is probably:
A) related differentiation
B) related diversification
C) unrelated diversification
D) repositioning
E) no diversification
Q3) Reactors follow the consistent strategy of anticipating and reacting to potential external opportunities and threats prior to their occurrence.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) An organization implementing a(n) ____________________ strategy would NOT follow a consistent strategy.
A) defender
B) pioneer
C) analyzer
D) reactor
E) prospector
Q2) Significant cost reductions, layoffs of employees, closing of poorly performing stores, offices, or manufacturing plants, or closing or selling entire lines of products or services would be characteristic of a __________ strategy.
A) portfolio
B) retrenchment
C) stability
D) firm-level
E) rehabilitation
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Page 20
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Kodak is a company associated with photography and has decided to become a market leader in digital imaging. Kodak can encourage the development of a culture where workers perceive that new ideas are welcomed by offering challenging work and supervisory encouragement. In other words, the company can create a(n) ____.
A) creative work environment
B) open system
C) adaptive culture
D) culture of change
E) tall structure to encourage horizontal communications
Q2) A technology cycle occurs whenever there are major advances or changes in the ____ in a field or discipline.
A) human, technical, and conceptual skills needed
B) structure or personnel requirements
C) internal resource environment
D) knowledge, tools, and techniques
E) way information is integrated
Q3) Identify and briefly describe the three steps involved in the process of managing organizational change as defined by Kurt Lewin.
Q4) How are technology cycles and innovation streams related?
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) __________ is the knowledge, tools, and techniques used to transform inputs into outputs.
A) Resource manipulation
B) Procedural innovation
C) A transformation system
D) Technology
E) Creativity
Q2) The research on technology cycles and technological innovation applies only to high-tech products developed in the bioengineering, robotics, and computer industries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q2) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q3) The first stage of organizational decline is:
A) crisis
B) inaction
C) blinded
D) faulty action
E) dissolution
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Page 23
Chapter 8: Global Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly comment on the types of training that should be provided AND to whom that training should be provided in order to ensure the success of managers who go on international assignments.
Q2) As Malta got ready for its admittance into the European Union (EU), the EU removed all taxes on the importation of goods manufactured in Malta. In other words, the EU abolished ____ for Malta-manufactured merchandise.
A) import quotas
B) customs classifications
C) import standards
D) tariffs
E) boycotts
Q3) Identify the two basic types of political risk facing organizations when conducting global business. Which one is more common?
Q4) An attractive business climate is defined by one single dimension: Does the business minimize the political risk to the company?
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
A) Maastricht Treaty of Europe
B) North American Free Trade Agreement
C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
D) Mercosur
E) Asian Free Trade Arrangement
Q2) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
Q2) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
A) exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
B) exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
C) exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
D) exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates
E) home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Functional departmentalization ____.
A) makes it easier for top managers to assess work-unit performance
B) allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists
C) produces managers with broader experience and expertise
D) enhances coordination between departments
E) encourages interdepartmental communication
Q3) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is ____, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
Q4) There is one common disadvantage associated with geographic, product, and customer departmentalization. What is it? Explain how the functional and matrix forms avoid this disadvantage.
Q5) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.
Page 27
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) __________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
A) Pooling interdependence
B) Reciprocating interdependence
C) Reengineering
D) Repositioning
E) Manufacturing conversion
Q2) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
A) modular
B) departmentalized
C) standardized
D) organic
E) mechanistic
Q2) __________ is the vertical and horizontal configuration of departments, authority, and jobs within a company.
A) Departmental mapping
B) Organizational charting
C) Organizational structure
D) Organizational configuration
E) Functionalization
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) What are project teams? List the advantages associated with their usage.
Q2) With ____, teams no longer have to go through the frustratingly slow process of multilevel reviews and signoffs to get management approval before making changes.
A) administrative reciprocity
B) structural accommodation
C) fast-track approval
D) virtual accommodation
E) bureaucratic immunity
Q3) The three significant disadvantages that teams and teamwork are prone to are initially high turnover, social loafing, and legal risk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and briefly describe the three methods of compensating employees for team participation and accomplishments.
Q5) One of the disadvantages of project teams is their lack of flexibility. A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain what managers can do to manage conflict in teams effectively.
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a member of a typical of traditional work group, Joshua should expect to be responsible for:
A) doing what he is told to do
B) giving advice and making suggestions to management
C) making decisions and solving problems regarding major production/service tasks
D) cross training employees who are not part of his work team
E) creating ideas through processes like brainstorming
Q3) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q2) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Domino's. Which of the following selection methods could Robert Chabot use to determine that prospective employees do not have a criminal record?
A) assessment center
B) cognitive ability tests
C) structured interviews
D) background checks
E) personality tests
Q2) Two of the most important results of a job analysis are ____.
A) recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries
B) job descriptions and job specifications
C) rater training and selection validation
D) employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
E) employee-needs assessment and job mapping
Q3) Dysfunctional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees due to unplanned downsizing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) Which training method is NOT used to practice, learn, or change job behaviors?
A) On-the-job training
B) Role-playing
C) Simulations and games
D) Lectures
E) Vestibule training
Q2) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Q1) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
Q3) Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Q1) Unlike ____, which punishes companies for not achieving specific gender and race differences in their work forces, ____ programs seek to benefit both organizations and their employees by encouraging organizations to value all kinds of differences.
A) affirmative action; self-monitoring
B) diversity; self-monitoring
C) diversity; affirmative action
D) affirmative action; diversity
E) federal agency monitoring; self-monitoring
Q2) To make sure that people with disabilities have the same opportunities as everyone else, organizations can ____.
A) make a commitment to reasonable workplace accommodations
B) use a matrix organizational structure
C) create a code of ethics
D) use job enlargement
E) centralize their hiring practices
Q3) List the Big Five Personality Dimensions. How does an understanding of these dimensions benefit managers?
Q4) What is affirmative action? How does it affect U.S. business?
Q5) How is surface-level diversity different from deep-level diversity?
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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Q1) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
A) Social integration
B) Norm cohesiveness
C) Social cohesiveness
D) Integrative focus
E) Social attraction
Q3) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
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Q1) Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
A) Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
B) Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
C) Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
D) Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
E) Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
Q2) Conscientiousness is:
A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented
B) the degree to which someone is curious
C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
E) defined by none of these
Q3) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
38
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Q1) A manager who wants to use reinforcement theory to motivate workers should first ____.
A) evaluate critical behavior
B) identify critical performance-related behavior
C) analyze motivational cues
D) measure the value of existing extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
E) intervene using a change agent
Q2) According to a survey done on teaching evaluations, engineering students consider the improvement of teaching to be the most important outcome of the evaluation process. For engineering students who believe their efforts will lead to better teaching, the motivation to fill out a teaching evaluation would have a ____.
A) low valence
B) weak expectancy
C) low performance value
D) high valence
E) strong instrumentality
Q3) Give an example of one well-known needs theory. Be sure to identify the needs described by that theory.
Q4) Define expectancy theory. Identify the theory's three key concepts.
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Q1) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
Q2) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
Q3) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
A) extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
B) extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
C) perceptions of equity and reward desirability
D) situational motivators
E) higher-order needs and organizational structure
Q2) According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
Q3) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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Q1) In many organizations, sales managers develop companywide sales forecasts by asking members of the sales force to decide how much growth they anticipate in their individual sales territories. Sales managers then take the input from the individual salespeople and create the companywide sales forecasts based on this information. In the normative decision model, this would be an example of a(n) ____ decision-making style.
A) Consultative
B) Group
C) Autocratic
D) Participative
E) Supportive
Q2) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, ____ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Q1) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
Q2) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
Q3) Whereas managers tend to have a short-term perspective, leaders tend to have a long-term perspective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fiedlers contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
Q2) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
Q3) According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the two reasons why companies use organization-wide communication? Define three types of organization-wide communication. Give an example of the effective or ineffective use of each communication. Using the material from the text chapter on Managing Communication, explain why the example was particularly effective or ineffective.
Q3) In the model of the communication process, decoding may result in faulty communication as a result of perceptual filters on the receiver's part.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Refer to Urban Legends. The angry P&G consumer who started the rumor about Febreeze would have used ____ to create the initial e-mail message.
A) physical stimuli
B) intranets
C) encoding
D) decoding
E) information diffusion
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Q1) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
A) when immediate feedback is needed
B) when messages are complex and ambiguous
C) when messages are emotion laden
D) when messages are very simple
E) when paralanguage is required
Q3) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
Q2) The steps in the basic perception process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) attention
B) organization
C) analysis
D) interpretation
E) retention
Q3) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Control
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Q1) Normative controls should be used when ____.
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q2) While the bureaucratic control model is designed to make companies more efficient, effective, and fair, it frequently has the opposite effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term excessive value appropriated (EVA) refers to the amount by which profits (after expenses) exceed the cost of capital in a given year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the steps in the basic control process and how you would respond to the statement, "Control is a process that should be employed intermittently?"
Q5) Identify and briefly define the three basic control methods.
Q6) Define benchmarking and list the three steps in this process.
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Q1) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
Q2) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Q1) __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
A) Optimization
B) Customer churn
C) Balanced scorecard
D) Customer defection
E) Financial ratio analysis
Q2) Benchmarking is the process of setting corporate norms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most expert systems work by using a collection of "if-then" rules to sort through information and recommend a course of action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The manual capture of information is ____.
A) slow
B) expensive
C) labor-intensive
D) often inaccurate
E) all of these
Q3) ____ is the process of ensuring that data are reliably and consistently retrievable in a usable format for authorized users, but no one else.
A) Decryption
B) Roadblocking
C) Data insulation
D) Protecting information
E) Cookie manipulation
Q4) Define data mining. Briefly describe the two general approaches to data mining.
Q5) Briefly distinguish between knowledge and information.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Q1) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q2) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one else. They are:
A) authentication and authorization
B) authorization and empowerment
C) delegation and empowerment
D) encryption and empowerment
E) authentication and encryption
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Q1) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
Q3) __________ is the direct electronic transmission of purchase and ordering information from one company's computer system to another company's computer system.
A) Automated processing
B) Electronic data interchange
C) Transaction channeling
D) Data manipulation
E) Information exchange
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a kind of inventory a manufacturer would keep in stock?
A) raw materials
B) nonrenewable materials
C) component parts
D) finished goods
E) work-in-process
Q2) Refer to RIP. What type of manufacturing operation are Americans who manufacture NEC, Fujitsu, and Sony products using?
A) stock-to-make
B) make-to-stock
C) raw-to-stock
D) make-to-order
E) assemble-to-order
Q3) A product's quality is determined by its ____.
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Q1) It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
Q3) A product's quality is determined by its:
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) Which of the following is the most flexible manufacturing operation?
A) project manufacturing
B) continuous-flow production
C) line-flow production
D) batch production
E) job shops
Q3) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 56