

Operating Room Techniques
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Operating Room Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for effective performance in the surgical environment. Covering essential topics such as aseptic technique, surgical instrumentation, patient positioning, sterilization procedures, and the roles of the surgical team, the course emphasizes safety, communication, and teamwork within the operating room. Students will engage in hands-on practice with key instruments and learn protocols for infection control, preparation and draping of patients, and the organization of surgical setups, preparing them for real-world challenges encountered in perioperative care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following surgical team members would be primarily responsible for maintaining the patient's operative record and transporting the patient to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
A) anesthesia provider
B) circulating RN
C) surgeon
D) surgical technologist
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to describe surgical intervention that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time, for example, a torn meniscus repair?
A) elective
B) emergent
C) optional
D) urgent
Answer: A
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3

Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving injury to a patient as a result of a hospital employee's lack of proper training or credentialing?
A) captain of the ship doctrine
B) doctrine of borrowed servant
C) doctrine of corporate negligence
D) primum non nocere
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are components of the surgical patient's medical record EXCEPT:
A) anesthesia record
B) history and physical
C) interdepartmental communications
D) surgeon's preference card
Answer: D
Q3) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A terminally ill patient whose advance directive is to refuse any life-saving efforts by health care workers is choosing which type of euthanasia?
A) active
B) involuntary
C) passive
D) voluntary
Answer: C
Q2) A person with only basic physiological functions of respiration, blood pressure, and heartbeat intact is categorized as having suffered which kind of death?
A) cardiac
B) higher brain
C) sudden
D) whole-brain
Answer: B
Q3) Dr Hans Selye defines stress as a "nonspecific response of the body a demand" (2006)
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual?
A) conversation in close proximity
B) pregnancy and childbirth
C) sharing used hypodermic needles
D) unprotected sexual relations
Q2) Which organ is MOST often injured in motor vehicle accidents?
A) brain
B) heart
C) liver
D) spleen
Q3) Approximately 80% of which special patient population presents to surgery with one or more comorbid conditions?
A) geriatric
B) pregnant
C) pediatric
D) sensory impaired
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic studies emits ionizing radiation?
A) fluoroscopy
B) MRI scan
C) pulse oximetry
D) ultrasound
Q2) Positive pressure gradient that prevents airborne contaminants in the corridors from entering the OR when doors are opened
A)CSPD
B)Anesthesia cart
C)Hypodermics
D)Suction outlets
E)Pre-op holding
F)Static electricity
G)Fluoroscopy
H)Substerile
I)Laminar flow
J)Laser
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a safety mechanism engineered into the ESU that alerts the surgical team that the device is being activated?
A) audible tone
B) flashing light on pencil
C) smoke from generator
D) vibration of electrodes
Q2) Which of the following laser beams cannot transmit through clear fluid or glass?
A) argon
B) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) krypton
D) Nd:YAG
Q3) Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause of a patient burn from alternate exit pathway of ESU current?
A) fingernail bed under the pulse oximeter
B) placement site of electrocardiogram (ECG) leads
C) skin over a bony prominence such as the scapula
D) soles of the feet under the sequential pulsing pads
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?
A) bathing
B) dunking
C) greasing
D) milking
Q2) When opening a wrapped item such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper?
A) all the way to the edge
B) 1 inch from the edge
C) 2 inches from the edge
D) Only the item itself is sterile.
Q3) What is a potential risk of placing surgical instruments of dissimilar metallic type together in a washer sterilizer cycle?
A) alarm triggered by washer sterilizer
B) bioburden contamination
C) electrolytic conduction reaction
D) static electrical spark
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the letter D stand for in reference to the chain-of-survival concept in cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A) death reduction
B) definitive treatment
C) depth of compression
D) destination planning
Q2) How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize patients for treatment?
A) 1 minute or less
B) 1-2 minutes
C) 2-5 minutes
D) 5-10 minutes
Q3) What is the clinical term for the lesions that appear on the skin of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A) abrasions
B) carbuncles
C) plaque
D) urticaria
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which category of drug is used to outline hollow or tubular anatomical structures for radiographic visualization?
A) contrast media
B) dyes
C) stains
D) vasodilator
Q2) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of ophthalmic medication constricts the pupil?
A) cycloplegic
B) miotic
C) mydriatic
D) viscoelastic
Q4) What would be the scrubbed surgical technologist's role in the general anesthesia induction phase?
A) applies cricoid pressure for intubation
B) initates the "time-out"
C) maintains absolute quiet
D) suctions oral secretions
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In medical terminology, which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device?
A) -graph
B) -orrhaphy
C) -scope
D) -tome
Q2) During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:
A) 8 -10 mm Hg
B) 10-12 mm Hg
C) 12-15 mm Hg
D) 15-20 mm Hg
Q3) Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and nonmagnetizing?
A) chromium
B) stainless steel
C) titanium
D) tungsten carbide
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which historic figure in medicine is credited with creating principles of proper tissue handling and suturing?
A) DeBakey
B) Cushing
C) Halsted
D) Kocher
Q2) Which absorbable suture provides for the MOST extended wound support?
A) Vicryl
B) Monocryl
C) PDS Plus
D) Polysorb
Q3) Which statement is CORRECT regarding monofilament sutures?
A) They have high capillarity.
B) They cause increased tissue drag.
C) They are braided, twisted, and coated.
D) They may be used in infected wounds.
Q4) Suture gauge can range from #5 (being the smallest) to 11-0 (being the heaviest) diameter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?
A) bioburden
B) flora
C) fomites
D) biologicals
Q2) The sitting position is a modification of which position?
A) Trendelenburg
B) lithotomy
C) Fowler's
D) Kraske
Q3) Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?
A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.
B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.
D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin is measured in grams per deciliter, and hematocrit is measured in percentages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a vessel cannot be accessed percutaneously for angiography, how else could it be done?
A) auscultation
B) cut-down
C) digital subtraction
D) palpation
Q4) Which diagnostic method requires use of an image intensifier?
A) CT scanning
B) MRI scanning
C) fluoroscopy
D) ultrasonography
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Page 15

Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which potentially life-threatening disease or condition can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis?
A) Crohn's disease
B) Grave's disease
C) Hashimoto's disease
D) thyroid storm
Q2) What type of incision is made for excisional biopsy of a centrally located breast mass involving the lactiferous ducts?
A) circumareolar
B) elliptical
C) inframammary
D) paramedian
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?
A) body
B) capsule
C) head
D) tail
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments used for closure of the vaginal cuff in total abdominal hysterectomy are:
A) discarded in the trash
B) isolated as contaminated
C) flash sterilized by the circulator
D) used to elevate the fascia during closure
Q2) Which of the following procedures would likely be assigned a Class III or Class IV wound and may require aerobic and anaerobic culture tubes?
A) dilation and curettage
B) radical hysterectomy
C) cesarean section delivery
D) marsupialization of Bartholin's cyst
Q3) Which type of needle holder is curved and frequently used for hysterectomy procedures?
A) Castroviejo
B) Heaney
C) Mayo-Hegar
D) Webster
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scissors would NOT be used for ophthalmologic procedures?
A) Jorgenson
B) McPherson-Vannas
C) Stevens tenotomy
D) Wescott
Q2) Hereditary, progressive, noninflammatory disease of the anterior surface of the eye; diagnostic indication for keratoplasty
A)Diopter
B)Beaver
C)Aperture
D)Canthus
E)Vitrector
F)Split
G)Diplopia
H)Corneal dystrophy
I)Tarsal plate
J)Trabecular meshwork
Q3) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gas can cause expansion of the middle ear and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?
A) argon
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrous oxide
D) oxygen
Q2) Which type of laser is useful for procedures involving the stapes and middle ear?
A) argon
B) carbon dioxide
C) holmium: YAG
D) Nd:YAG
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) sphenoid sinus
D) vestibule
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type of x-ray that shows on one film: alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and zygomas
A)Gingiva
B)Enophthalmos
C)Panoramic
D)Pulp
E)Alveolar process
F)Weider
G)Dentin
H)Caldwell
I)Malocclusion
J)Molars
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?
A) crown
B) neck
C) root
D) socket
Q3) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?
A) abdominoplasty
B) blepharoplasty
C) mentoplasty
D) otoplasty
Q2) Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren's contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?
A) Derma-carrier
B) K-wires
C) lead hand
D) Senn retractors
Q3) Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?
A) apocrine
B) ceruminous
C) merocrine
D) sebaceous
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?
A) flank
B) Gibson
C) inguinal
D) scrotal
Q2) What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?
A) cystocele
B) hydrocele
C) omphalocele
D) rectocele
Q3) What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment?
A) fiber-optic
B) fluorescent
C) incandescent
D) ultraviolet
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22

Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?
A) above knee amputation (AKA)
B) below knee amputation (BKA)
C) bunionectomy
D) triple arthrodesis
Q2) The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?
A) clavicle
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) sternum
Q3) Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?
A) overproduction of immunoglobulins
B) human leukocyte antigen
C) serum phosphorus
D) serum urate
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus?
A) Bailey
B) Doyen
C) Mixter
D) Sarot
Q2) Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope?
A) suprasternal notch
B) oropharynx
C) subxiphoid
D) umbilicus
Q3) Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
A) superiorly on the right side
B) inferiorly on the right side
C) superiorly on the left side
D) inferiorly on the left side
Q4) The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty?
A) radial artery
B) carotid artery
C) femoral artery
D) subclavian artery
Q2) Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) titanium
B) fascia lata
C) polypropylene
D) stainless steel mesh
Q3) What are urokinase and streptokinase used for in vascular pathology?
A) lysis of embolus
B) vasoconstriction
C) vasodilation
D) hemostasis
Q4) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?
A) Dandy
B) Layla
C) Mayfield
D) Penfield
Q2) Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?
A) arterial bifurcations
B) tunica media
C) venous sinus
D) venous valves
Q3) What part of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?
A) anterior neck
B) lower extremity
C) posterior back
D) upper extremity
Q4) The skull flap can be reattached to the cranium by small titanium plates and screws or with stainless steel wire.
A)True
B)False
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