Operating Room Techniques
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Operating Room Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to function efficiently and safely within a surgical environment. The course covers the principles of aseptic technique, the organization and layout of the operating room, and the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team. Students learn about sterilization methods, instrumentation, patient positioning, draping, and the proper handling of surgical materials. Emphasis is placed on infection control, safety protocols, communication, and the critical thinking required during surgical procedures. Through practical demonstrations and hands-on experiences, students gain a strong foundation in preparing operating rooms and supporting successful surgical interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 16th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
749 Verified Questions
749 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ambulatory surgery unit is planning to develop a standardized skin preparation practice for their unit.The best process to gather scientific information is to:
A) conduct a survey of skin prep policies at the next AORN chapter meeting.
B) review their surgical site infection data from the last 6 months.
C) conduct a literature search on antimicrobial agents and infection prevention.
D) review the scientific literature from the leading manufacturers of prep solutions.
Answer: C
Q2) The perioperative nurse implements protective measures to prevent skin or tissue injury caused by thermal sources.Successful accomplishment of this intervention would meet which of the following desired nursing outcomes?
A) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of injury from anxiety.
B) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of impaired skin integrity.
C) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of surgical site infection.
D) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of hyperthermia.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fires and explosions in the perioperative setting require three components,described as the "fire triangle." The element of the triangle the perioperative nurse has the most control over is:
A) the ignition sources.
B) the fuel.
C) the oxidizer.
D) static electricity.
Answer: B
Q2) Researchers in the area of patient safety have proposed an emphasis on transparent systems,asserting that adverse patient events cannot be effectively prevented until the legal and professional licensure systems discontinue their focus on individual error and blame.In order for a transparent system to exist and thrive,it requires:
A) human factor reliance.
B) confidentiality.
C) open reporting.
D) disciplinary guidelines.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevated noise levels and distractions in the OR can make communication difficult and may impact patient safety.Behavioral noise reduction strategies may include:
A) implementing a No Interruption Zone (NIZ) during the preprocedure time-out.
B) counting instruments quietly after the patient enters the room.
C) playing music softly.
D) turning off alarms.
Answer: A
Q2) Which list of medications best reflects medications indicated for latex sensitivity therapeutic management?
A) Epinephrine, prednisone, and a beta-agonist inhaler
B) Atropine, dopamine, and beta-blockers
C) Dopamine, mannitol, and sodium bicarbonate
D) Dimethylxanthine, atropine, and mannitol
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Closed gloving is the technique of choice for the initial donning of sterile gloves by the scrubbed team member; however:
A) it can only be used for the initial gloving.
B) it requires two people to execute without contamination.
C) there is a risk of contamination if the thumbs are not extended.
D) it is only used when double gloving is anticipated.
Q2) With the production of more steam in the sterilizer chamber,the pressure increases as well.The steam should contain little or no entrapped liquid water.Steam quality is the term that describes the amount of water mixed with the steam.The constitution of high-quality steam would be measured by:
A) 70% or greater.
B) 55% or greater.
C) less than 3% of the mixture is liquid water.
D) less than 1% of the mixture is liquid water.
Q3) An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure:
A) time and pressure.
B) pressure, steam, and temperature.
C) temperature, time, and presence of steam.
D) sterility and pressure.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Anesthesia
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perioperative nurses should be familiar with all basic anesthetic monitors and normal ranges of physiologic parameters to:
A) relieve the anesthesia provider for short periods of time during long procedures with stable patients.
B) be familiar with the setup, operation, and leak testing of the anesthesia machine.
C) safely monitor a patient under MAC.
D) be familiar with the principles and practices of anesthesia and the perioperative functions of the anesthesia provider.
Q2) What is the primary purpose of premedication before anesthesia?
A) Tranquilize the patient and reduce stomach acidity (pH).
B) Sedate the patient and reduce anxiety.
C) Elicit desirable amnesia and prevent awareness under anesthesia.
D) Promote rapid induction and airway management.
Q3) The term balanced anesthesia is described as:
A) a combination of IV medications and inhalation agents.
B) nitrous oxide, air, and oxygen.
C) premedication, induction agents, and reversal agents.
D) induction agent, muscle relaxation, and analgesics.
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7
Chapter 6: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the positioning devices and accessories commonly used for bariatric surgery.
A) Air-filled, roller, or slider transfer device
B) Lower body ramp
C) Elevated padded heel supports with footboard
D) Abduction pillow
Q2) Pressure injury assessment tools designed specifically for use in the perioperative population include the:
A) Scott Triggers Tool, Braden Scale.
B) Braden Scale, Munro Pressure Ulcer Risk Scale.
C) Munro Pressure Ulcer Risk Scale, Scott Triggers Tool.
D) ASA Physical Status Classification, Braden Scale.
Q3) Select the positioning device and accessory commonly used for neurosurgical procedures.
A) Cavitron ultrasonic surgical aspirator (CUSA) head positioner
B) Crutchfield cranial tongs
C) Mayfield head positioner
D) Cushing head stabilizer
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8
Chapter 7: Sutures, sharps, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical adhesives may be divided into two categories,cyanoacrylates and fibrin tissue adhesives.These adhesives are sometimes grouped together and considered the same product,but the inherent properties of each result in separate indications.Select the true statement/s about cyanoacrylic tissue adhesives.
A) They are used for superficial wound closure.
B) The mechanism of action occurs on the coagulation cascade.
C) The longer chain derivatives have decreased toxicity.
D) There is no hemostatic property
E) They are composed of two elements that activate when mixed together.
Q2) Flat neurosurgical patties are flat sponges composed of soft compressed cotton or rayon with an embedded radiopaque element and string attached.They are often used in neurosurgical procedures.While used for hemostasis and exposure,what other use would be important in surgery?
A) Application of topical steroids
B) Marking of suspicious site on a specimen for frozen section
C) Filter for suction tip to prevent underlying tissue damage
D) Permanent packing to fill cranial defect
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Chapter 8: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-pressure insufflation rates can cause increased intra-abdominal pressure that can result in life-threatening sequelae.The perioperative nurse reduces the flow rate in collaboration with the surgeon,while monitoring the patient for signs of:
A) CO gas embolism.
B) hemostasis.
C) deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D) hypoxia.
Q2) A female patient arrived at the endoscopy center 2 days before her scheduled interventional bronchoscopy to receive an injection of a photosensitive intravenous dye that the pulmonologist explained would highlight the dysplastic tissues of her bronchi that were precancerous.He scheduled her for an ablative procedure called photodynamic therapy (PDT),where the highlighted tissues would be affected by the laser light that is color-specific for uptake of the dye.Select the laser tissue interaction that describes the patient's treatment.
A) Reflection
B) Absorption
C) Transmission
D) Scattering
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Chapter 9: Wound Healing, dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection control and prevention surveillance was underway in the cardiac ICU because of an alarming prevalence of sternal wound infections.The infection preventionist and perioperative clinical nurse specialist reviewed the criteria to define the SSI and develop strategies for further investigation and prevention.The infectious signs and symptoms arose on postoperative day 2 with edema,redness,and purulent exudates that appeared to be isolated to the subcutaneous plane above the sternum.What two important criteria must be met to conclusively define this SSI?
A) Physician examination for wound separation with cultures of superficial and deep tissues
B) Positive wound cultures from deep tissues, but not the organ space, with cultures of drainage
C) Positive wound cultures obtained from the deepest accessible source of wound drainage
D) Positive diagnosis of the SSI by the surgeon or attending physician
Q2) Which statement best reflects the appropriate purpose of a surgical drain?
A) Drains can prevent the development of deep wound infections.
B) Drains allow optimal observation of the incisional site.
C) Drains provide a portal for antibiotic irrigation.
D) Drains can provide opportunities for wound aeration.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothermia is a common side effect of surgery and the perianesthesia setting.Which of the following interventions is most effective in normalizing and maintaining body temperature?
A) Prewarming patients in normothermia
B) Warming patients in hypothermia
C) Setting ambient OR and PACU temperatures to 65° to 75° F and using warming devices
D) Using warmed skin prep solution during surgery
E) Using continuous fluid-circulating blankets or warm-water mattresses
F) Reapplying warmed cotton blankets every 10 minutes
Q2) Delirium is described as an extreme disturbance of arousal,attention,orientation,perception,affect,and intellectual function accompanied by fear and agitation.What is the most common cause of postoperative agitation?
A) Organic brain disease
B) Hypoxemia
C) Preoperative anxiety
D) Excessive blood loss
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Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure of intra-abdominal anatomy in laparoscopy is crucial to safe surgery and employs varied instruments,applications of highly technical energy sources,patient manipulations,light,and imaging.Review the list below and select the technique that is initiated to promote exposure.
A) Insertion of self-retaining retractors
B) Employing the Hasson technique
C) Establishing pneumoperitoneum
D) Insertion of fan retractor
Q2) A 38-year-old female has been admitted through the emergency department (ED)for severe abdominal pain,distended abdomen,and fever.The surgery service has been consulted and has scheduled her for exploratory surgery.The patient has undergone two open abdominal surgeries in the past for "female problems" and states that she has a tendency to form keloids.Review the list below and select the most likely preoperative diagnosis for the patient based on her surgical history and symptoms.
A) Keloidal mass of the mesentery
B) Endometriosis plaques on the small bowel
C) Small bowel obstruction with torsion
D) Ruptured appendix
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Chapter
Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The head of the pancreas is fixed to the:
A) spleen.
B) duodenum.
C) stomach.
D) biliary tree.
Q2) A 51-year-old male with hepatobiliary disease is scheduled for surgery.The perioperative nurse,during the preoperative assessment,questions and examines the patient for signs and symptoms of jaundice,petechiae,and lethargy and:
A) reviews his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count.
B) assesses for ascites and ensures a peritoneal drainage kit is available.
C) palpates his abdomen for left upper quadrant tenderness and liver margins.
D) reviews the findings of his endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP).
Q3) The functional units of the liver are the lobules.The functional cells of the liver are the ______________,and they manufacture _______________.
A) Kupffer cells; phagocytes
B) sinusoid cells; lymphocytes
C) hepatocytes; bile
D) portal triad cells; ductal epithelium
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Chapter 13: Hernia Repair
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.
A) Inguinal ligament, rectus abdominis muscle, deep epigastric vessels
B) Rectus abdominis muscle, Cooper ligament, aponeurosis
C) Scarpa's fascia, deep epigastric vessels, external oblique muscle
D) Inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, Cooper ligament
Q2) Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals?
A) Postoperative obese patients
B) Newborns
C) Weight lifters
D) Women
Q3) Implantable mesh prosthetics can be made of synthetic,biosynthetic,or biological material.What is the primary advantage of biologic mesh?
A) Results in reduced absorption.
B) May be used in all wound classes.
C) Results in reduced cost.
D) Forms a dense fibrous capsule.
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15
Chapter 14: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An experienced perioperative nurse has recently been hired at the new ambulatory surgery center to lead their endometrial ablation and fibroid embolization program.She has created a teaching tool with relevant postprocedure care information for patients and caregivers and is developing a training module for the nurses to learn techniques for teaching patients before surgery and before discharge.She is teaching the nurses how to encourage patients and caregivers to reflect on what they have just learned in order to elicit a "teach-back" scenario.Select the reflective statements and questions appropriate for a post-endometrial ablation patient,to determine their understanding of her discharge instructions.
A) "Tell me what you know about vaginal bleeding."
B) "What do you do and who do you call if you notice heavy bleeding?"
C) "Do you feel that you are ready to take care of yourself?"
D) "What are your most troubling concerns about going home right now?"
E) "What are the activities that you must avoid for at least 2 weeks?"
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action best reflects the movement of urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder?
A) Normal intra-abdominal positive pressure promotes renal drainage.
B) Slight distention of the renal pelvis initiates a wave of peristaltic contractions.
C) Distention of the proximal ureter facilitates gravity drainage through signaling channels.
D) Urine is propelled into the bladder when adrenal hormones bind with ureteral receptor sites.
Q2) The adrenal glands lie retroperitoneally beneath the diaphragm,capping the medial aspects of the superior pole of each kidney.The adrenal medulla secretes ______________,while the adrenal cortex secretes ____________ and
A) epinephrine; steroids and hormones
B) steroids; adrenaline and hormones
C) epinephrine; pituitary-stimulating hormone and adrenaline
D) pituitary hormones; cortisol and norepinephrine
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Chapter 16: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid surgery is considered surgery of the head and neck.There is a high risk for surgical fires because of the proximity of all three components of the fire triangle.Select the statement that best reflects an appropriate nursing action to prevent a surgical fire.
A) Do not use self-adherent tape strips; they do not adequately seal the operative site from anesthetic vapors that may have leaked.
B) If bedsheets or towels become soaked with flammable prep solution, allow them to dry completely before surgery begins.
C) Ensure that the patient's skin is totally dry and all fumes from the prep solution have dissipated before draping.
D) Determine fire risk score during the postprocedure debriefing.
Q2) A 19-year-old woman is scheduled for a thyroidectomy.She is significantly underweight as a result of her thyroid disease.Of the following,which is the high-priority nursing action in the preoperative phase for this patient?
A) Perform a preoperative assessment of dependent pressure areas.
B) Identify age-specific outcomes.
C) Identify baseline musculoskeletal status.
D) Treat the patient as being high-risk for falls.
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Chapter 17: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mammary glands are affected by physiologic changes throughout a woman's life span.Select the option that best reflects the life cycle events that impact the anatomy and physiology of the breasts.
A) Growth and development, menstruation, and menopause
B) Menstruation, pregnancy, and lactation
C) Hormone development, pregnancy, and menopause
D) Growth and development, menstruation, and pregnancy and lactation
Q2) An 82-year-old woman was referred to the breast surgery service by her gerontologist because of a large inflammatory mass in her left breast.The patient stated that the lump has existed for several years,and she believed it was just part of old age.The surgeon examined her and found tumor nodules growing into the skin of the breast,with breast swelling and redness.Diagnostic imaging results described a tumor that had grown into the chest wall and may have spread to axillary lymph nodes and to other lymph nodes behind the breastbone and below the collarbone.Based on this description,what is the patient's probable cancer stage?
A) Stage IIa
B) Stage IIIc
C) Stage IIIb
D) Stage IV
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure for cataract extraction with implantation of an intraocular lens (IOL)exposes the patient to risks of infection of the anterior chamber and corruption of the implanted device.Appropriate measures for the circulating nurse and scrub person include managing patient safety needs.Efforts are directed at preventing foreign substances from being introduced intraocularly.Select the nursing actions that may ensure this outcome.
A) Use instruments designed for single use only.
B) Cleanse debris from instruments with a cellulose sponge.
C) Use only latex-free gloves.
D) Soak instruments in sterile water when not being used by the surgeon.
Q2) Cycloplegic drugs produce a similar effect on the pupil as mydriatic drugs,with one difference.From the options below,select the most appropriate statement about the effects of cycloplegics.
A) Anticholinergics constrict the pupil and inhibit focusing.
B) Epinephrine is added to balanced salt solution (BSS) to constrict sclera vessels and the pupil.
C) Homatropine hydrobromide (Isopto Homatropine) sustains the longest and most potent duration of dilation.
D) Cycloplegics and mydriatics have similar effects on dilating the pupil.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several types of diagnostic imaging studies visualize structures by producing serial sections through different anatomic planes,highlighting specific structures,or tissue densities.Examples of these imaging diagnostics would be:
A) complementary computed tomography (CT) scan with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) positron emission tomography (PET).
C) audiometry scan with photoacoustic spectrometry (PAT).
D) tuning-fork conduction scan with electrical capacitance volume tomography (ECVT).
Q2) The nasal septum is lined with blood vessels and mucus-secreting cells.The proper name of this lining is the:
A) mucoperichondrium.
B) columella.
C) nasoseptal mucosa.
D) cartilaginous vascular bed.
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21
Chapter 20: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone healing follows a logical sequence beginning with the formation of a hematoma.Select the action that typically occurs after formation of a hematoma.
A) Remodeling
B) Invasion of osteoblasts
C) Fibrin network formation
D) Callus formation
Q2) In an open anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)repair,an examination under anesthesia (EUA)is performed immediately after induction of anesthesia,when the ligaments are completely lax,to evaluate the severity of the injury.The surgeon then makes a straight midline or slightly medial incision across the knee.Arthroscopic repair causes less patellar pain and decreased disturbance of extensor mechanisms.What preoperative indicators contribute to selecting the surgical approach (open or arthroscopic)of choice?
A) Classification and severity of the tear or capsular instability
B) Surgeon experience and preference
C) Patient history of a prior failed repair or gross knee joint disruption
D) Surgeon's choice of whether to use autograft or allograft to replace the torn ligament.
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Chapter 21: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twelve pairs of cranial nerves arise within the cranial cavity.Although they are part of the peripheral nervous system,from a surgical standpoint they are considered part of the anatomy of the head.Which three pairs of nerves,conveniently considered together because of their motor influence on the eye,are subject to toxic,inflammatory,vascular,and neoplastic lesions?
A) Ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves
B) Second, third, and fourth cranial nerves
C) Third, fourth, and sixth cranial nerves
D) First, second, and third cranial nerves
Q2) Select the statements that are accurate descriptions of the sensory and motor functions of the brain.
A) Another name for the homunculus is the dermatome grid.
B) Areas of fine motor and sensory control have more neurons.
C) The right motor and sensory cortices control the right side of the body.
D) The left motor and sensory cortices control the right side of the body.
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Chapter 22: Reconstructive and Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
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Q1) A 46-year-old woman had a scar revision of her knee.The knee scar,before revision,was an 8-cm linear,thin scar that extended obliquely across the anterior portion of her knee.The tension of the scar tissue met resistance when she would bend her knee.The surgeon opted to remove the scar with a procedure to break up the linear scar and rearrange the tissue direction to form a natural line.The proper name of this tissue transfer scar revision is the:
A) scar lysis.
B) epidermolysis with remodeling.
C) scarplasty.
D) Z-plasty.
Q2) Replantation is an attempt to reattach a completely amputated digit or other body part.Revascularization is the procedure performed on incomplete amputations,when the part remains attached to the body by skin,artery,vein,or nerve.Good candidates for replantation are those with which of the following amputations?
A) Almost any body part of a child
B) Proximal portion of the hand at palm level
C) Distal to middle foot
D) Distal to middle thigh
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Chapter 23: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT)include restrictive lung disease,emphysema,pulmonary hypertension,and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases,while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT)includes patients with:
A) bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B) bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C) cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D) bilateral disease, recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
Q2) Pleurodesis is undertaken as a treatment for malignant pleural effusion and for unresolved spontaneous pneumothorax.The end point goal of a pleurodesis is to:
A) prevent accumulation of pleuritic secretions.
B) bond the parietal pleura to the lung.
C) achieve permanent pneumothorax.
D) cause adherence of the pleural layers.
Q3) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A) Supine
B) Left semilateral
C) Supine with a shoulder roll
D) Semi-Fowler with neck extended
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant.The basic mechanism of heparin's action is best described as:
A) blocking the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin.
B) acting as an enzyme by lysing the fibrin-thrombin matrix.
C) extending the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
D) dissolving and liquefying existing blood clots and thromboemboli.
Q2) When selecting a vascular graft for a vascular bypass or replacement procedure,what are the desirable characteristics that influence the surgeon's choice of graft?
A) Thrombo-resistant, biocompatible, and easy to handle
B) Fairly priced, variety of sizes, and ability to clot blood
C) Sterilizable, nonantigenic, and able to last a lifetime
D) Reasonably priced, permit blood passage without clotting, and hypoallergenic
Q3) Patients with arterial disease are treated surgically more often than patients with chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)because:
A) CVI is not life-threatening or limb-threatening.
B) venous surgery contributes to thromboembolism.
C) surgical interventions for venous valves have not been refined.
D) surgery is never successful.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracic aortic aneurysmectomy is excision of an aneurysmal portion of the ascending aorta,aortic arch,or descending thoracic aorta and replacement with a prosthetic graft,valve-graft conduit,or intra-aortic prosthesis.Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis,trauma,infection,or cystic medial degeneration.Which presenting conditions will indicate that surgical intervention is necessary?
A) Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
B) Circumferential involvement
C) Spindle-shaped morphology
D) Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection
Q2) During the preoperative nursing assessment for a patient scheduled for cardiac surgery,the perioperative nurse reviews the patient's medication history with attention to medications that can affect the surgery or cause complications.Select the true statement about specific medications that can affect surgery or cause complications.
A) Aspirin may increase platelet levels.
B) Lipid-lowering drugs (statins) may promote new onset diabetes mellitus.
C) Herbal products may promote the development of thromboemboli.
D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) may cause malignant hypertension.
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Surgery
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Q1) Infants and children with severe gastroesophageal (GE)reflux can have life-threatening complications,including obstructive apnea,aspiration pneumonia,esophagitis,and failure to thrive.What is the name of the procedure,performed open or laparoscopically,that is designed to create a competent antireflux barrier?
A) Nissen fundoplication
B) Esophagectomy
C) Pyloromyotomy with pyloroplasty
D) Sphincterotomy
Q2) Children are more prone to foreign-body ingestion than adults.What is the most significant risk?
A) Aspiration with airway obstruction
B) Esophageal impaction
C) Mucosal tear
D) Poisoning
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Chapter 27: Geriatric Surgery
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37056
Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old woman,admitted for an abdominal perineal resection for early sigmoid cancer,has a recent history of a 4% weight loss.On admission to the OR,she is tachypneic,her tongue and mucous membranes of her mouth are dry,her speech is slurred,and she is confused.Her surgical unit nurse states that the patient's bowel prep the night before was successful.The patient states that she needs to vomit.The anesthesia provider tries to find a good vein for an intravenous (IV)access and asks the perioperative nurse to look for a possible vein on the patient's other arm as the left arm veins are flat.Based on these conditions,what nursing diagnosis is the patient presenting?
A) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to intraoperative blood loss
B) Deficient Fluid Volume related to age-associated total body water and plasma volume loss
C) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to NPO status and bowel prep
D) Deficient Fluid Volume related to NPO status and bowel prep
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Chapter 28: Trauma Surgery
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37057
Sample Questions
Q1) Traumatic deaths may occur in three phases or time frames.Which phase occurs within the first 1 to 2 hours after the injury,where definitive trauma care has the most significant effect?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Q2) A 26-year-old woman is rushed to the OR after a primary and secondary survey in the ED.She was hit by a small truck as she was riding her bicycle through a busy intersection.She has sustained rib fractures and several fractured transverse vertebral processes.Renal injury is suspected.As the perioperative nurse prepares to insert a urinary catheter,she notices blood at the urinary meatus.What should the nurse's next action be?
A) Place a gauze dressing over the perineum after inserting the urinary catheter.
B) Insert the catheter and notify the surgeon.
C) Discontinue the catheter insertion.
D) Insert a latex-free straight catheter to empty the bladder and then remove it.
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Chapter 29: Interventional and Image-Guided Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast media-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)results from administering intravascular radiographic contrast material.After the administration of contrast,a transient increase in blood flow is then followed by a longer period of decreased blood flow to the kidneys.Which statement best describes a true risk factor for CIN?
A) Biphasic renal flow has been shown to induce CIN.
B) Underlying renal insufficiency is believed to be a predictor of CIN.
C) Occasional nephrotoxic drug use and dehydration among diabetic patients comprise most patients with CIN.
D) Vasodilatation, toxic stress, and tubular necrosis are known contributing factors as cited by a recent study.
Q2) Personnel radiation monitoring is an important part of radiation exposure safety.Select the statement that best describes the proper placement of the personal radiation dosimeter.
A) On the trunk under the apron and at the collar level outside the apron
B) Attached to the facility identification badge and always worn
C) On the waist under the apron and the collar over the apron
D) On the trunk outside the apron and the neckline of the scrub shirt under the apron
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Chapter 30: Integrative Health Practices: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the herbal supplement that may cause potential adverse cardiac effects such as palpitations and hypertension.
A) Lavender
B) Garlic
C) Ephedra
D) Ginger
Q2) The National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM)has categorized the many integrative health practice modalities into five major domains.Biofield therapies are therapies that focus on fields believed to originate within the body.To which domain category does biofield therapy belong?
A) Mind-body interventions
B) Energy therapies
C) Manipulative and body-based methods
D) Biologically based therapies
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