Operating Room Management
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Operating Room Management explores the principles and practices that ensure efficient, safe, and high-quality surgical care within the perioperative environment. This course covers topics such as surgical scheduling, staff coordination, infection control, equipment and supply logistics, budgeting, quality improvement, and patient safety protocols. Students will learn strategies for optimizing operating room workflow, minimizing delays, maximizing resource utilization, and fostering interdisciplinary teamwork. The curriculum also addresses regulatory compliance, ethical considerations, and leadership skills necessary for effective management of surgical services in hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication is an essential part of working as a team.What is another key element of communication?
A)Attitude
B)Body language
C)Education
D)Constant talking
Answer: B
Q2) Perioperative experience teaches that minor procedures may be fairly quick,but still have risks such as
A)cardiac arrest.
B)hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
C)severe bleeding.
D)All the above
Answer: D
Q3) What is the common goal of a perioperative team?
A)Do not report any surgical mishaps to patients or family members.
B)Keep general anesthesia to a minimum.
C)Complete every surgical procedure in less than 4 hours.
D)Deliver efficient patient care for each procedure.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical conscience is considered the Golden Rule: Do unto the patient as you would have others do unto you.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Who is responsible for documenting the final counts at the end of the case as correct or incorrect?
A)Scrub person
B)Surgeon
C)Anesthesiologist
D)Circulating nurse
Answer: D
Q3) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a charting modality used to document patient care?
A)Hand-off reporting
B)Verbal report
C)Block charting
D)Paper and pen charting
Answer: C
Q2) National Patient Safety Goals were implemented by the Joint Commission to keep patients safe.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scrub person
A)does not participate in the surgical "time out."
B)is a member of the nonsterile team.
C)provides hemostasis of the surgical wound.
D)may be a nurse or surgical technologist.
Q2) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification
A)after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B)after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C)once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D)after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q3) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a member of the sterile perioperative team?
A)Scrub person
B)Anesthesia provider
C)Circulating nurse
D)Radiograph technician
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q2) It is important to __________ and think in advance about each step to help the procedure run smoothly.
A)guess every move
B)anticipate
C)retract every time
D)react
Q3) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A physician assistant (PA)can assist in the OR and write prescriptions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q6) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A)Physical abuse towards one's peers
B)Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C)Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D)Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
Q2) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
Q3) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is the responsibility of the central processing department?
A)Biomedical testing
B)Biohazard material transport
C)Distributing supplies
D)Linen storage
Q5) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ________________ of infection and control ______________.
8
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) In every state it is mandated that a health care worker who suspects child abuse must notify the child welfare authorities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At what time of day should diabetic patients be scheduled for surgical procedures?
A)Middle of day
B)Late afternoon
C)Early in the day
D)Last case of the day
Q3) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q4) One definition of a patient is
A)a healthy person using medical services.
B)an individual recipient of health care services.
C)adults or children who are sick.
D)a person trying to feel better.
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Talipes ________ means the forefoot is inverted and talipes ________ means the forefoot is everted.
A)venous; valgus
B)varus; valgus
C)equines; various
D)venous; variegated
Q2) Choose the palliative procedure performed on an infant with transposition of the great vessels.
A)Mustard procedure
B)Jantene procedure
C)Rashkind procedure
D)Senning procedure
Q3) Which is one of the four defects that make up the tetralogy of Fallot?
A)Left ventricular hypertrophy
B)Displacement of aorta to the left
C)Pulmonary valve dilation
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q4) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what temperature can a geriatric patient be at risk for hypothermia?
A)Below 100.5° F
B)Above 94° F
C)Below 96.8° F
D)Above 99.6° F
Q2) Subcutaneous fat deposits increase with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The perioperative nurse should not worry about the geriatric patient's hydration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some common findings seen when assessing an older adult patient's integumentary system might be
A)nonhealing foot wounds.
B)skin tags.
C)bruising on arms or hands.
D)bruises.
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11
Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The OR temperature should be maintained within a range of _________________ to___ ° F and _________________to_____%
humidity.(Insert numbers only.)
Q2) Which is one use of the OR ceiling?
A)Surface mount for lighting devices
B)Blood barrier
C)Location of the air conditioning unit
D)Storage site for overhead equipment
Q3) Which is an equipment item commonly found in each OR?
A)PYXIS medication machine
B)Mayo stand
C)Crash cart
D)Scrub sink
Q4) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is one of three areas into which the surgical suite is divided?
A)Sterile area
B)Negative pressure area
C)Unrestricted area
D)Waiting area
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical
Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of outpatient surgery department is a self-contained unit located within or attached to the hospital but physically separate from the inpatient OR suite?
A)Office-based center
B)Hospital-based integrated unit
C)Hospital-based dedicated unit
D)Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
Q2) When taking a verbal order either in person or over the phone,what must be done to ensure the correct order will be implemented?
A)Call another physician to verify the order is right.
B)Check with the head nurse for accuracy.
C)Read back the verbal order or results to the person delivering the information.
D)Ask another nurse to take the call to receive the order.
Q3) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A)4 hours after the procedure
B)Within 48 hours of the procedure
C)The following week
D)At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) An accepted way to transport large used or contaminated items to the decontamination area after a case is finished is to
A)wrap them in dry towels and carefully carry them to the decontamination area.
B)find an unused prep table and slowly roll them to the appropriate area.
C)place them on an open case cart with a plastic drape, place items or instruments inside the case cart, and roll to the appropriate area.
D)rinse the used items in the scrub sink then carry them in plastic bags to the decontamination area.
Q2) When is "terminal cleaning" done during the course of a day in the OR?
A)At the beginning of the day
B)In between each case
C)At the end of daily use
D)Every 4 hours
Q3) How should trash be handled at the end of a procedure?
A)All trash in the same bag
B)In the recycle bin
C)Separated into biohazard, noninfectious trash, and recyclable trash
D)Red biohazard bags
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14
Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a biologic hazard in the OR?
A)Back injury
B)Cytotoxic drug
C)Electricity
D)Infectious waste
Q2) Which item in the OR could cause a fire or explosion?
A)Nylon suture
B)IV tubing
C)Oxygen or nitrous oxide gas
D)Saline soaked sponges
Q3) When working with disinfectants such as phenol or povidone-iodine,what steps should be taken to protect you?
A)Wear goggles.
B)Use a fan in the OR to dissipate the fumes.
C)Wear corneal protectors.
D)Wear a mask with proper nasal and mouth openings to allow air to escape.
Q4) Competency in using equipment should be tested regularly because technology changes often.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with a compromised immune system are at risk for contracting tuberculosis (TB).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which are two examples of diseases caused by exotoxins?
A)Tuberculosis, acute respiratory infection
B)Influenza, anthrax
C)Diphtheria, leprosy
D)Otitis media, E.coli
Q3) Which conditions may be indicative of a systemic infection?
A)Temp = 37.5° C, heart rate = 76
B)Temp = 38.5° C, respiratory rate = 26 to 30
C)White blood cell count = 5000, heart rate = 90
D)Temp = 36.5° C, respiratory rate = 18,
Q4) Which is a transmission route of viruses?
A)Vector contact
B)Insect bites
C)Skin-to-skin contact
D)Intact skin
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When removing instrument trays from the sterilizer,it is acceptable to touch the door of the sterilizer with the tray because the door is sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The management of puncture wounds needs to be taken care of immediately.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Good housekeeping techniques should reduce microbial flora by approximately 90%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Double-gloving during a procedure will keep the wearer from incurring a puncture wound caused by a suture or knife blade.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eyeglasses are acceptable protection against bodily fluids while at the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to use a closed gloving technique during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When drying your hands after a surgical hand/arm scrub,it is acceptable to use the same end of the towel for both hands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) From what direction should one scrub the hands and arms?
A)From elbow to hand
B)From fingernail to elbow
C)Begin with wrist and end at elbow
D)It does not matter where one begins as long as all areas are scrubbed
Q4) Which is an item that must be worn by any person entering the sterile field?
A)Sterile gown
B)Eyeglasses
C)Exam gloves
D)Head cover
Q5) Double gloving is recommended for all sterile team members.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an advantage of using disposable products in the OR?
A)Disposable products are used once with an assurance of safety and effectiveness.
B)Disposable products decrease the amount of biodegradable waste produced by the OR.
C)Cross-contamination is inevitable.
D)A defect in one may mean the entire lot is defective.
Q2) Which is the proper order of the steps involved in cleaning instruments after they are used?
A)Washer-sterilizer, manual cleaning, sterilization
B)Precleaning, washer-sterilizer, sterilization
C)Disinfection, manual cleaning, washer-sterilizer
D)Manual cleaning, sterilization, rinsing
Q3) All instruments with moving parts should just be opened and closed to see if they still work after cleaning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Boiling water is an effective physical disinfectant used to kill spores.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a load control number?
A)To determine which OR is being used for particular procedures
B)To determine the time the item or instrument tray is being used
C)To facilitate identification and retrieval of supplies if a sterilization failure occurs
D)To track which patient is being operated on within a facility
Q2) When the sterilizer door is opened,wrapped instruments must be removed immediately to begin cooling and drying on a cool surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is required for the steam sterilization process to be effective in killing microorganisms?
A)Cool sterile air and hydrogen peroxide
B)Pounds of pressure and heat
C)Moisture and heat
D)Air in sterilizer chamber
Q4) An item that can be safely steam sterilized should never be gas sterilized.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trocar is an assembly instrument used to cut through tissue for access to fluid or a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wait until the end of the procedure to wipe and clean instruments of blood or bodily fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All power surgical instruments have complex assemblies of gears,shafts,and seals.Powered instruments decrease the fatigue from manual instruments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
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21
Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a responsibility of the biomedical laser technician?
A)Prepare and teach the patient intraoperatively.
B)Check the laser equipment brought into the OR.
C)Cover windows and provide appropriate eyewear.
D)Provide preventive maintenance of the laser periodically.
Q2) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
Q3) Which type of laser is useful in breaking up kidney stones?
A)Excimer
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Free electron
D)Ho:YAG
Q4) Surgical procedures performed under the microscope tend to be shorter in duration than traditional open procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact lenses are not to be removed during a surgical procedure because they protect the corneas from being scratched during induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a level of preoperative teaching?
A)Psychosocial support
B)Nursing diagnosis
C)Preoperative class
D)Empathy
Q3) Why should an anesthesia provider see a patient for a preoperative assessment?
A)To select an appropriate anesthetic for the procedure
B)To allow the provider to charge for an official consultation before the case
C)To decide whether the provider wants to work on the patient during the procedure
D)To determine whether the provider likes the patient before working with him or her
Q4) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiography assists in the diagnosis of AV malformations,aneurysms,tumors,or vascular accidents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of specimen is collected with a circular sharp,hollow tip?
A)Aspiration biopsy
B)Brush biopsy
C)Punch biopsy
D)Smear
Q3) According to the American Cancer Society,which is a common clinical sign of cancer?
A)Palpable mass
B)Abnormal bleeding or discharge
C)Nonhealing lesion
D)All of the above
Q4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)uses radiation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an irrigation fluid?
A)Cardioplegia solution
B)Formalin
C)Ringer's lactate
D)Gelfoam
Q2) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What items on the sterile field need to be labeled with a drug's name,strength,and amount once it is received on the field?
A)The drug's container and syringe
B)The needle holder
C)The retractor used before injecting the drug
D)The hypodermic needle used to inject the drug
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) For what type of procedure is hypothermia used?
A)Hernia procedure
B)Intubation
C)Wake up a patient quicker
D)Transplantation of organs
Q2) Which is a function controlled by homeostatic mechanisms?
A)Urine pH
B)Pain level
C)Muscle contraction
D)Heartbeat
Q3) During a local anesthesia case,an anesthesia provider must be present in the room with the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which local anesthetic is potent and probably the most commonly used?
A)Lidocaine
B)Cocaine
C)Marcaine
D)Percaine
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ help the scrub person and circulating nurse improve efficiency of the set-up procedure and case flow.
Q2) It is acceptable to open sterile supplies into a rigid container because all the edges are sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surgeon and assistants should never take their towels from the primary sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The temperature of irrigation solution should be between 110° F and 115° F so that the patient's tissues will not be burned.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What principle is not associated with motion economy?
A)Make each movement purposeful
B)Work quietly and quickly
C)Keep the work areas orderly
D)Use asymmetric motions
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonradiopaque sponges are used during the skin prep,rather than the counted sponges from the instrument table.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the prone position is to be used,the patient is anesthetized and intubated in the supine position on the transport cart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Before bringing a patient into the OR,special consideration regarding the patient's weight and type of surgical procedure needs to be taken into consideration when selecting an OR bed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nonwoven disposable drapes
A)are lightweight and moisture repellant.
B)are always more expensive than nondisposable drapes.
C)must be sterilized immediately before use.
D)are not flame retardant.
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a true statement about blood pressure (BP)measurement?
A)BP can be obtained by direct or indirect methods.
B)BP can be taken on an arm that has an IV.
C)Pressure is higher during diastole and lower in systole.
D)BP readings measure tissue perfusion.
Q2) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
A)15 to 25 mm Hg
B)6 to 12 mm Hg
C)15 to 25 mm Hg systolic, 8 to 15 diastolic
D)3 to 6 mm Hg
Q3) Pulmonary artery pressure
A)15 to 25 mm Hg
B)6 to 12 mm Hg
C)15 to 25 mm Hg systolic, 8 to 15 diastolic
D)3 to 6 mm Hg
Q4) Central venous pressure (CVP)
A)measures left atrial blood pressure.
B)measures total body blood volume.
C)reflects the pressure in the major veins as blood returns to the heart.
D)measures cardiac output.
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding suture knot tying?
A)Place the knot in a noticeable spot.
B)Tie the knot toward a weak blood supply.
C)Tie the knot toward a vital structure.
D)Tie the knot away from a potential irritant such as the nares.
Q2) What type of suture is typically used on facial procedures?
A)Chromic surgical gut
B)PDS
C)Surgical stainless steel
D)Plain surgical gut
Q3) What type of suture does not separate from the needle unless pulled off intentionally?
A)Double-armed attachment
B)Permanently swaged needle attachment
C)Controlled-release needle attachment
D)Halsted needle
Q4) When handling synthetic absorbable sutures,soak them in saline before using to allow better pliability.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an external mechanical method of hemostasis used in the OR setting?
A)Sequential compression device (SCD)
B)Sclerotherapy
C)Thrombin
D)Oxytocin
Q2) Which is a preventive measure that should be followed to reduce postoperative wound infections?
A)Do not operate on infected patients.
B)Control exogenous infections.
C)Decrease number of air exchanges in the OR suite.
D)Increase turnover rate of cleaning OR suites in between cases.
Q3) What type of wound healing is present when the wound is cleaned and debrided,antibiotic therapy is initiated,and a deeper and wider scar results?
A)Second intention
B)First intention
C)Third intention
D)Non-intention
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU?
A)Linen container
B)Suction equipment
C)Computer monitor for documentation
D)Bedside table
Q2) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q3) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on
A)discharge.
B)all physiologic processes.
C)circulation.
D)documentation.
Q4) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A)Volume overload
B)Blood volume depletion
C)Hypercapnia
D)Derangement of clotting factors
Q2) Antiembolic stockings,with or without a sequential pneumatic compression device are placed on the patient's legs to prevent venous stasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is potassium an important electrolyte?
A)It prevents muscle twitching.
B)It needs to be in the extracellular fluid.
C)It is essential for electrochemical reactions.
D)It is nutritionally needed.
Q4) Which is a way to cool a patient's body during a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)Pour frozen distilled water into surgical wound.
B)Decrease temperature of OR suite.
C)Administer iced normal saline intravenously.
D)Lavage the bladder with cooled fluids.
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Endoscopes must be cleaned according to manufacturer's recommendations to prevent damaging them and proper removal of debris.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the intraoperative peritoneal pressure of an adult during a laparoscopic procedure when using CO ?
A)5 to 7 mm Hg
B)7 to 10 mm Hg
C)12 to 15 mm Hg
D)Greater than 18 mm Hg
Q3) The open method of gaining access into the body is by placing a trocar and sheath so that the expansion medium may be placed through the port.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The surgeon may place more than one trocar during puncture endoscopy. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) During a colonoscopy,the surgeon may also perform which procedure depending on the anatomy?
A)Laparotomy
B)Polypectomy
C)Sigmoidoscopy
D)Ileostomy
Q2) What is a possible complication after having a mastectomy?
A)Depression
B)Need for reconstruction
C)Disfigurement
D)Lymphedema
Q3) A gastrostomy is a procedure involving the passage of a flexible fiberoptic gastroscope to inspect the mucosal walls of the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What organ is removed when performing a cholecystectomy?
A)Colon
B)Gallstones
C)Pancreas
D)Gallbladder
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Which is a part of the female external genitalia that make up the vulva?
A)Labia majora
B)Fallopian tubes
C)Cervix
D)Bilateral ovaries
Q2) Define cervical incompetence.
A)Early painless dilation and effacement of cervix
B)Any pregnancy involving a prior cesarean section
C)Any pregnancy with previous elective termination of pregnancy
D)Early diagnosed ectopic pregnancy
Q3) What action does the surgeon take to assess female anatomy before a surgical procedure?
A)Examination under anesthesia (EUA)
B)Blood type
C)Date of last menstrual period
D)Age of children
Q4) Carbon dioxide gas is used as the expansion medium for uterine insufflation during a hysteroscopy.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) When is ureteral stent placement necessary?
A)Long-term drainage
B)Removal of waste products
C)Increase blood pressure
D)Increase production of renin
Q2) What type of procedure uses shock waves to break up and fragment a renal calculus?
A)Percutaneous nephrostolithotomy
B)ESWL
C)Percutaneous chemolysis
D)Cystoscopy
Q3) What type of procedure involves a kidney segment being removed along with the ligation of the renal blood supply to that segment?
A)Radical nephrectomy
B)Nephrectomy
C)Partial nephrectomy
D)Nephrostomy
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A closed reduction usually involves the use of a K-wire (Kirschner wire)to stabilize a fracture within the cortical bone distal to the fracture site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Broken bone protrudes through skin
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
Q3) Which is a component of a total knee replacement?
A)Femoral head component
B)Tibial stem component
C)Patellar component
D)Humeral head component
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) Which is a measure taken during a craniotomy to decrease blood loss?
A)Hyperthermia
B)Lithotomy position
C)Neuroradiology
D)Controlled hypotension
Q2) Which is one reason cerebral revascularizations are primarily performed?
A)To close a dural defect
B)To prophylactically prevent development of a major brain attack
C)To create a fistula
D)To decompress the subdura
Q3) Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A)Increased ICP allows increased cerebral cortex perfusion.
B)A normal adult ICP reading is from 5 to 8 mm Hg.
C)Manual blood pressure readings determine accurate ICP readings.
D)A ventricular catheter is the most accurate method of monitoring ICP.
Q4) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cautery is commonly used during spine surgery?
A)Handheld cautery
B)Tripolar cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Monopolar cautery
Q2) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
Q3) What structure provides support for the body,varies in size,and is separated by discs?
A)Vertebrae
B)Central foramen
C)Spinous process
D)Lumbar plexus
Q4) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What important aspect of postoperative care should be included in patient education?
A)Do not bend over
B)Report pain and swelling
C)Avoid coughing
D)All of the above
Q2) What procedure removes a damaged cornea and replaces it with a human donor cornea?
A)Dacryocystorhinostomy
B)Keratoplasty
C)Evisceration
D)Vitrectomy
Q3) Geriatric patients receiving diuretics can be at risk for which problem?
A)Impaired vision
B)Urinary urgency
C)Blindness
D)Blinking too much
Q4) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Which statement would not be included in the plan of care for a patient undergoing a procedure involving a tissue allograft?
A)A dark antiseptic agent, such as Betadine, is used to prep the skin in the sterile field.
B)Hypothermia is to be avoided.
C)The patient is positioned on a gel mattress to prevent pressure sores.
D)Donor and recipient sites are draped separately.
Q2) What process increases the surface of the dermal-epidermal layer to create a skin flap?
A)Rotational flap
B)Tissue expansion with a tissue expander
C)Subcutaneous flap
D)Arterialized flap
Q3) Which type of skin graft involves the epidermis,dermis,and sometimes subcutaneous fat deeper than 1 mm?
A)Composite graft
B)Split-thickness graft
C)Full-thickness graft
D)End graft
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The internal receiver of a cochlear bone conduction implant is implanted over the A)zygomatic bone.
B)temporal bone.
C)parotid gland.
D)middle turbinate bone.
Q2) Which instrument can be a fire hazard if oxygen builds up under the drapes?
A)Microscope
B)Scissors
C)Cautery
D)Forceps
Q3) Otorhinolaryngology is the surgical treatment of the ear,nose,and throat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which endoscopic sinus procedure clears the ethmoidal compartments of disease?
A)Functional endoscopic sinus procedure (FESS)
B)Wigand procedure
C)Sphenoidotomy
D)Rhinoplasty
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process,caused by a puncture of the left pleural cavity,may result in a collapsed right lung?
A)Pectus excavatum
B)Median sternotomy
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Segmental resection
Q2) What type of device is used to prolong resuscitation after a patient is removed from cardiopulmonary bypass?
A)BCMA
B)ACLS
C)CPRS
D)ECMO
Q3) Which ribs have no fixation anteriorly?
A)5th, 6th, and 7th ribs
B)7th and 8th ribs
C)8th, 9th, and 10th ribs
D)11th and 12th ribs
Q4) Chylothorax is a complication of thoracic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assists ventricular function
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) Which autologous vessel has the best long-term patency rate when used as a graft in a coronary artery bypass graft procedure?
A)Saphenous vein
B)Radial artery
C)Internal mammary artery (IMA)
D)Popliteal vein
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Veins are more difficult to anastomose and are more likely to occlude than arteries when used as a graft.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which serious immediate complication of peripheral vascular surgery requires an immediate return to the OR?
A)Pain
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hypotension
Q3) Which of the following uses streptokinase to dissolve a thrombus in an occluded vessel?
A)Endarterectomy
B)Thrombolytic therapy
C)Embolectomy
D)Fluoroscopy
Q4) Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q2) What act is recognized by all 50 states as a legal consent for organ donation?
A)Organ Transplant Registry Act
B)United Network for Organ Sharing Act
C)Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
D)Total Organ Perfusion System
Q3) Orthoclone OKT3 and cyclosporine are two types of immunosuppressive agents that do not affect the entire immune system when given to prevent and treat allograft rejection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During organ procurement,no drugs are given to the patient during the procedure.
A)True
B)False
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