Operating Room Management
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Operating Room Management explores the principles, strategies, and practices necessary for the efficient administration of surgical suites within healthcare institutions. The course covers topics such as staffing, scheduling, infection control, resource allocation, patient safety, regulatory compliance, and interdisciplinary team coordination. Emphasis is placed on workflow optimization, evidence-based decision making, and the use of information systems to improve operational efficiency and patient outcomes in perioperative environments. Students gain insights into the complexities of maintaining high standards of care while effectively managing the logistical and organizational challenges unique to operating rooms.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1285 Page 2
Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25509
Sample Questions
Q1) A perioperative nurse's role only encompasses supervision of unlicensed personnel who scrub and requires knowledge of practices and procedures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Describe one way a relatively safe procedure can rapidly become a catastrophic or fatal event.
A)Preoperative patient anxiety
B)Postoperative pain
C)Unknown patient allergies
D)Subjective responses to OR activities
Answer: C
Q3) What is the common goal of a perioperative team?
A)Do not report any surgical mishaps to patients or family members.
B)Keep general anesthesia to a minimum.
C)Complete every surgical procedure in less than 4 hours.
D)Deliver efficient patient care for each procedure.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circulating nurse should assess a patient for which type of injury before entering the OR?
A)Medication error
B)Wrong IV site
C)Skin injury
D)Sharp object
Answer: C
Q2) Postoperative infection can originate only in the OR from a break in technique by the surgeon or team.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Failure of a caregiver to provide accountability is considered negligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Access to health care is a privilege of every human being.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "Never Event" as defined by CMS includes:
A)bariatric surgical procedure.
B)myocardial infarction.
C)poor blood sugar control.
D)coronary artery disease.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
Q3) Euthanasia is derived from the Greek words meaning "harsh or painful death."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a member of the sterile perioperative team?
A)Scrub person
B)Anesthesia provider
C)Circulating nurse
D)Radiograph technician
Q2) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q3) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification
A)after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B)after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C)once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D)after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q4) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Q2) The surgical first assistant's knowledge and skill level involves an understanding of A)surgical anatomy and physiology.
B)biochemical engineering.
C)psychomotor kinesiology.
D)advanced airway placement.
Q3) Why is intraoperative suturing performed?
A)To remove a tissue mass
B)To dissolve a tumor or benign mass
C)Evidence that the procedure was performed as scheduled
D)To stabilize an organ
Q4) The RNFA should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ________________ of infection and control ______________.
Q2) Which communication tool involves being continually vigilant for progress or regression of goals?
A)SBAR
B)Team STEPPS
C)Hands-free communication
D)STEP
Q3) Which is one benefit of Magnet status for a facility?
A)It provides the opportunity for professional growth and enrichment.
B)Nursing salaries are increased.
C)Nursing retention is minimized and increased turnover results.
D)The cost of care provided at the facility is higher.
Q4) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An advanced practice nurse uses specialized ________________ and _____________ to make decisions relative to direct and indirect patient care in the perioperative environment.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What form of diabetes mellitus involves the pancreas producing little or no insulin and usually occurs in juveniles and adults up to 40 years of age?
A)Type 1
B)Type 2
C)Type 3
D)Diabetes associated with other syndromes
Q2) When radiation sources are delivered to the OR,each needle,seed,or capsule must be counted by the surgeon with the radiation therapist and that number is recorded.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which irrigation is commonly used during a mastectomy procedure?
A)Sterile normal saline
B)Sterile water
C)Sterile ice cold saline
D)Marcaine with polymyxin
Q4) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
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9
Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one specific feature of patients with "pectus excavatum"?
A)Barrel-shaped chest
B)Extreme convex-shaped chest tissue
C)Concave depression over lower end of sternum
D)Under developed pectus muscle
Q2) Neonates born before completion of 37 weeks' gestation are referred to as
A)preterm.
B)postterm.
C)infant.
D)fetus.
Q3) Which is a congenital anomaly characterized by a fusion of two or more fingers or toes?
A)Dyndactyly
B)Syndactyly
C)Polydactyly
D)Manydactyly
Q4) Pediatric patients have a higher occurrence and frequency of malignant tumors than adults.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What theory suggests that the body loses its ability to keep pace with the maintenance of life processes?
A)Genetic mutation theory
B)Wear-and-tear theory
C)Viral theory
D)Environmental theory
Q2) What does the term geriatric mean?
A)Not independent anymore
B)Over the age of 80
C)Living in a nursing home
D)Older than 65
Q3) Some common findings seen when assessing an older adult patient's integumentary system might be
A)nonhealing foot wounds.
B)skin tags.
C)bruising on arms or hands.
D)bruises.
Q4) Geriatric patients are at risk when positioning or moving them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one of three areas into which the surgical suite is divided?
A)Sterile area
B)Negative pressure area
C)Unrestricted area
D)Waiting area
Q3) Which is one of the three storage areas found within the perioperative area?
A)Contaminated instrument storage
B)Minimally invasive procedure room
C)Sterile supply room
D)Contaminated equipment storage
Q4) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fiberoptic cables should not be detached from the instrument.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical
Locations
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a verbal order either in person or over the phone,what must be done to ensure the correct order will be implemented?
A)Call another physician to verify the order is right.
B)Check with the head nurse for accuracy.
C)Read back the verbal order or results to the person delivering the information.
D)Ask another nurse to take the call to receive the order.
Q2) Because nurses are not on the front line fighting in battle,they do not experience the posttraumatic stress disorder that the wounded soldier might.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Q4) Which area would NOT be found in an ambulatory surgery setting?
A)Preprocedural testing and assessment area
B)Preoperative holding area
C)Intensive care unit
D)Waiting room
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) As long as the instrument and prep tables are within the confines of the OR,it does not particularly matter where they are placed.
A)True B)False
Q2) Remove gloves first before taking off the gown,so as not to contaminate the front of the gown with dirty gloves.
A)True B)False
Q3) An accepted way to transport large used or contaminated items to the decontamination area after a case is finished is to
A)wrap them in dry towels and carefully carry them to the decontamination area.
B)find an unused prep table and slowly roll them to the appropriate area.
C)place them on an open case cart with a plastic drape, place items or instruments inside the case cart, and roll to the appropriate area.
D)rinse the used items in the scrub sink then carry them in plastic bags to the decontamination area.
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Noise in the OR should be kept as quite as possible.What are major sources of noise?
A)High-pitched power instruments
B)Noise from the front desk
C)Laughing from the lounge
D)Anesthetic gas
Q2) What item may not be used within the MRI environment?
A)Titanium hemostats
B)Plastic drape clips
C)Metal implants
D)Plastic coated scissors
Q3) It is all right to use the electrosurgical unit (ESU)near the rectum after the rectum has been packed with a moist sponge.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Women who are pregnant should not work in the OR because of the unavoidable health risks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one example of an infection resistant to antibiotic therapy?
A)MRSA
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)Tetracycline
D)Rhinitis
Q2) Which conditions may be indicative of a systemic infection?
A)Temp = 37.5° C, heart rate = 76
B)Temp = 38.5° C, respiratory rate = 26 to 30
C)White blood cell count = 5000, heart rate = 90
D)Temp = 36.5° C, respiratory rate = 18,
Q3) Bacteria are transmitted only through insect bites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a common fungal infection transmission route?
A)Urine
B)Coughing
C)Fecal material
D)Spermatic fluid
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an item in the OR is not known definitively to be sterile,what is the next action to be taken?
A)Consider it contaminated and throw it out.
B)Call your supervisor.
C)Keep it in the room and use it so as not to waste an opened item.
D)Ask the anesthesiologist in the room to determine its sterility.
Q2) Every patient in the OR is considered infected. A)True B)False
Q3) Asepsis is another way of stating something is sterile. A)True B)False
Q4) When removing instrument trays from the sterilizer,it is acceptable to touch the door of the sterilizer with the tray because the door is sterile. A)True B)False
Q5) Hair is considered a gross contaminant and a major source of staphylococci. A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a brushless/waterless method to cleanse the hands and arms,personnel should wash their hands before applying the antiseptic solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When drying your hands after a surgical hand/arm scrub,it is acceptable to use the same end of the towel for both hands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The purpose of wearing OR attire is to maintain uniformity among the operative team.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the purpose of surgical hand and arm cleansing?
A)To sterilize the skin before gloving
B)To remove every microorganism present on the skin
C)To warm hands and arms before entering a cold OR environment
D)To decrease the number of resident microorganisms on the skin to a minimum
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments may be immersed in which of the following solutions?
A)Ethyl alcohol
B)Distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Chlorhexidine
Q2) What is glutaraldehyde used for?
A)Disinfectant for endoscopes and lensed instruments
B)Housekeeping
C)Low-level disinfectant
D)Used on wet instruments for cleaning
Q3) Which is one proper way to mark an instrument for identification before being put into service?
A)Identification codes or numbers are etched into the instrument handle.
B)Names or numbers are engraved in the handles or teeth.
C)Numbers or codes can be imprinted with a laser onto an instrument.
D)Names or numbers are carved into an instrument handle.
Q4) High-level disinfection is not effective against Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the three known residual products found after EO sterilization?
A)Ethylene chloride
B)Ethylene alcohol
C)Ethylene glycol
D)Hydrogen peroxide
Q2) Most gravity displacement steam sterilizers have a minimum exposure time of ____ minutes.
A)8 to 10
B)15 to 30
C)4
D)15
Q3) A wet pack is acceptable to use as long as it is still sealed and has been sterilized.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does Sterrad sterilization work?
A)Items don't need to be thoroughly rinsed before use.
B)They have low volatility.
C)It works by a strong vacuum.
D)Aeration is needed.
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument can be used to examine a cavity's interior?
A)Yankauer
B)Speculum
C)Tungsten needle holder
D)Bayonet forceps
Q2) Manual retractors come in different shapes and sizes.They are held by the first or second assistant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a responsibility of the circulating nurse before the start of a procedure?
A)Drape the Mayo stand and back table
B)Inspect sterile instruments for imperfections and condition
C)Count instruments
D)Assemble the scalpel blade in the proper handle
Q4) All power surgical instruments have complex assemblies of gears,shafts,and seals.Powered instruments decrease the fatigue from manual instruments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
Q2) What is the safest location for the placement of a dispersive electrode pad for a patient who has a total knee replacement on the left knee?
A)Left calf
B)Left thigh
C)Right thigh
D)Right knee
Q3) Which microscope lens provides the greatest magnification?
A)100 mm
B)200 mm
C)250 mm
D)400 mm
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to protect the patient's privacy,the circulating nurse should only refer to the patient by the procedure he or she is having when speaking to the patient or in the OR with other perioperative staff.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To prevent an incorrect surgical procedure on a patient or an error in medication.A "time out" takes place before incision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The preoperative nurse is the only person from the OR who needs to see the patient before surgery.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Diagnostics, specimens, and Oncologic
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors help determine how the tumor cells respond to chemotherapy?
A)Type of tumor
B)Sex of the patient (male vs.female)
C)Age of patient
D)Type of tumor debulking
Q2) What type of radiologic procedure is used to study a joint after the injection of gas or contrast into it?
A)Ventriculography
B)Computed tomography
C)Arthrography
D)Ultrasonography
Q3) Tissue specimens should not be allowed to dry out.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because MRI uses a large electromagnet,metallic devices are allowed into the MRI machine as long as they are stainless steel.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dispensing ointment from a multidose pack,the tube should be squeezed to dispense 1/2 inch of ointment in the trash before applying a portion to the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient's weight should be accurate and documented in which manner?
A)Kilograms
B)Pounds
C)Grams
D)Milligrams
Q4) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A)Official name
B)Chemical name
C)Brand name
D)Trade name
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25
Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which system can monitor the effects of anesthesia on the brain during a procedure?
A)DTS
B)IMV
C)BIS
D)GPS
Q2) During a local anesthesia case,an anesthesia provider must be present in the room with the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a function controlled by homeostatic mechanisms?
A)Urine pH
B)Pain level
C)Muscle contraction
D)Heartbeat
Q4) What position should a patient be in when receiving spinal anesthesia?
A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Lithotomy
D)Lateral
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should anticipate the needs of the surgeon and try to stay one step ahead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small sutures do not need to be accounted for at the end of a procedure because they probably will not show up on a radiograph if the suture count is not correct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What instrument should be immediately handed up after a suture ligature is passed to the surgeon?
A)A Kelly clamp
B)ESU pencil
C)Scissors
D)Mahoney dilator
Q4) If the countable items count results in an incorrect count,the circulating nurse is responsible only for informing the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a possible complication of being in the lithotomy position?
A)Mitral valve prolapse
B)Hearing loss
C)Compartment syndrome
D)Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q2) A donut is a ring shaped device used to pad and protect only the head during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When moving an x-ray tube over a sterile field,the field must be covered with a sterile sheet,which is discarded by the circulator after use because it has become contaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What patient position can compromise the respiratory function,due to the limited chest excursion that may result?
A)Sitting
B)Semi-Fowler
C)Beach chair
D)Lithotomy
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an invasive monitoring device?
A)Intracardiac catheter
B)Blood pressure cuff
C)Pulse oximeter probe
D)Axillary thermometer
Q2) What sign indicates the pulmonary artery catheter is in the correct location?
A)An audible beep heard on the invasive monitor screen
B)A narrow downstroke followed by a single notch on the upstroke
C)A steep upstroke followed by a dicrotic notch on the downstroke
D)A tachycardic QRS waveform (heart rate 100 bpm or greater)
Q3) When sending an arterial blood gas sample to the laboratory for analysis,never place the specimen on ice because that will cause the sample to coagulate and not be usable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiac output (CO)is measured to determine how many liters the right aorta pumps into the left ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is also known as bone cement?
A)Dermabond
B)Cyanoacrylate
C)Polydiaxanone
D)Methyl methacrylate
Q2) Which is a principle to be followed when handling needles and needle holders at the sterile field?
A)Clamp the needle one quarter the distance from the eye to the point.
B)Close the ratchet of the needle holder on the first or second ratchet.
C)Never touch the free end of the suture material when handing it up at the sterile field.
D)Pass the needle holder with the needle point down toward the sterile wound.
Q3) What type of suture does not separate from the needle unless pulled off intentionally?
A)Double-armed attachment
B)Permanently swaged needle attachment
C)Controlled-release needle attachment
D)Halsted needle
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common cause of adhesion formation?
A)Wrong type of dressing applied
B)Suture material
C)Serosal injury
D)Scar formation
Q2) What term defines an overgrowth of firm,rounded scar that extends beyond the border of the wound?
A)Keloid
B)Hairy skin
C)Seroma
D)Hematoma
Q3) What are the benefits of early ambulation?
A)Increased gas pain
B)Improved circulation
C)Increased gastroparesis
D)Decreased wound pain
Q4) Hypothermia increases cellular metabolism as the body attempts to increase its warmth during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU?
A)Linen container
B)Suction equipment
C)Computer monitor for documentation
D)Bedside table
Q2) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q3) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
Q4) Invasive procedures are not performed in the PACU setting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the universal donor blood type?
A)Type AB-positive
B)Type Rh
C)Type O-negative
D)Type B- negative
Q2) Which is a way to cool a patient's body during a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)Pour frozen distilled water into surgical wound.
B)Decrease temperature of OR suite.
C)Administer iced normal saline intravenously.
D)Lavage the bladder with cooled fluids.
Q3) Which antidysrhythmic drug is used to suppress the PVCs and recurrent tachycardia?
A)Adenosine
B)Bretylium
C)Atropine
D)Lidocaine
Q4) A neurogenic shock involves the loss of tone in the peripheral blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lasers are not able to be used with endoscopic or laparoscopic procedures because of the limited vision endoscopy allows.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What can be attached to the endoscope that enables the surgical team to view the anatomy at the same time?
A)Monitor
B)Computer
C)Microscope
D)Camera
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ breast biopsy is taken when a larger biopsy needle is inserted into the mass and tissue is retrieved for histologic examination.
A)fine needle aspiration
B)core biopsy
C)stereotactic breast biopsy
D)excisional
Q2) What instrumentation is frequently used to dilate strictures in the esophagus?
A)Bougies
B)Cannula
C)Goodell dilator
D)Endoscope
Q3) What term is used when the surgeon manually palpates the entire length of the bowel starting at the duodenum and ending at the sigmoid flexure?
A)Stabilization
B)Gastrojejunostomy
C)Running the bowel
D)Exploration
Q4) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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35
Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) An anterior colporrhaphy or Kelly procedure is performed to prevent stress incontinence or urine leakage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a reason an abdominal hysterectomy would need to be performed instead of a vaginal hysterectomy?
A)Ovarian mass
B)Multiple pregnancies
C)Less extensive incision
D)Early menarche
Q3) Which technique of tubal ligation is one of the most reliable methods?
A)Cautery
B)Pomeroy technique
C)Falope ring
D)Filshie or Hulka clip
Q4) Intrauterine thermal balloon ablation is contraindicated for women wishing to have future pregnancies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a common postoperative complication after urologic surgery?
A)Joint pain
B)Wound dehiscence
C)Headache
D)Oliguria
Q2) Which glands are sometimes removed to prevent a recurrence of prostate or breast cancer?
A)Pituitary
B)Epithelial
C)Adrenal
D)Thyroid
Q3) Which is the working unit of the kidney?
A)Nephron
B)Renal pyramid
C)Ureter
D)Renin
Q4) Cystoscopy procedures are not sterile so they do not require the use of masks or a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to flash-sterilize a prosthetic implant such as an acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which substance is used in orthopedic procedures to provide hemostasis in bone?
A)Mineral oil
B)Thrombin and gelfoam
C)Bone wax
D)Lactated Ringer's
Q3) List the bone-healing process in the correct order of occurrence.
A)Callus formation; hematoma formation; calcification process; remodeling
B)Calcification process; hematoma formation; callus formation; remodeling
C)Hematoma formation; callus formation; calcification process; remodeling
D)Hematoma formation; calcification process; callus formation; remodeling
Q4) What fibrous membrane covers bones?
A)Cortex
B)Epiphysis
C)Periosteum
D)Haversian canals
Q5) When treating skeletal injuries to the tibia and femur,external fixation devices apply ________________ and ________________ forces to the bones.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) Which procedure relieves the pain of trigeminal neuralgia,or tic douloureux?
A)A stereotaxy procedure
B)A radiofrequency retrogasserian rhizotomy
C)Stereotactic depth reimplantation
D)Thalamotomy
Q2) Which part of the brain is composed of gray matter?
A)Brainstem
B)Inner tissue
C)Outer cerebral cortex
D)Circle of Willis
Q3) Which is one reason cerebral revascularizations are primarily performed?
A)To close a dural defect
B)To prophylactically prevent development of a major brain attack
C)To create a fistula
D)To decompress the subdura
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of retractor is used in spinal surgery?
A)Bayonet
B)Penfield #4
C)Kerrison
D)Beckman
Q2) What classification of spinal cord injury is evident when some sensory and motor impulses are still present?
A)Complete
B)Incomplete
C)Sensory
D)Percutaneous
Q3) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is a candidate for radial keratotomy?
A)Farsighted individuals
B)Blind individuals
C)Nearsighted individuals
D)Individuals with cataracts
Q2) What extraocular procedure involves removing fat pads and removing extra skinfolds?
A)Ptosis
B)Chalazion removal
C)Blepharoplasty
D)Orbital decompression
Q3) What procedure removes a damaged cornea and replaces it with a human donor cornea?
A)Dacryocystorhinostomy
B)Keratoplasty
C)Evisceration
D)Vitrectomy
Q4) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What necessary environmental controls must be considered when caring for a severe burn patient?
A)Know preexisting medical history
B)Keep skin exposed to air
C)Let family visit to distract them from pain
D)Increase room temperature and practice reverse isolation
Q2) Which is a benefit of using omentum as a graft?
A)Will resorb into tissue when grafted
B)Does not usually require a split-thickness skin graft
C)Has very few blood vessels for anastomosis
D)Helps localize and control infection
Q3) How should a graft be handled until the surgeon is ready to apply it?
A)Leave it dry on the corner of the table.
B)Keep the graft moist on a separate sterile graft table.
C)Place it on the mayo stand.
D)Place it in an ice basin.
Q4) The goal of a plastic surgeon is to attempt to restore aesthetic appearance and function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which type of mastoidectomy removes air cells using a small burr by opening the mastoid process behind the ear?
A)Simple mastoidectomy
B)Modified radical mastoidectomy
C)Radical mastoidectomy
D)Simple mastectomy
Q2) Primary hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by which lab result?
A)High potassium
B)High vitamin D
C)Hypercalcemia (high calcium)
D)Anemia
Q3) From what area is autograft frequently taken for a mandibular reconstruction?
A)Femur
B)Humerus
C)Ilium
D)Tibia
Q4) Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ______________ and their face covered with a
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diaphragmatic bulging
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Which lung has three lobes and a straighter bronchus?
A)Left
B)Right lower
C)Left lower
D)Right
Q3) Which is a reason for inserting an airway stent?
A)Alternative to endotracheal intubation
B)Palliative care for obstruction of neoplasm
C)To prevent postoperative bleeding
D)To assist with laser use in the thoracic cavity
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What describes the use of solution delivered through a catheter during cardiac surgery?
A)MRI
B)Defibrillator
C)Argon beam coagulator
D)Cardioplegia
Q2) Assists ventricular function
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacologic injection to dissolve a clot
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q2) Which is an advantage of using an autologous saphenous vein graft?
A)Less expensive than an allograft
B)Does not have to be anastomosed to the receiving vessel
C)Is lined with epithelial cells to inhibit clotting
D)Decreases in diameter as it courses distally
Q3) Which of the following are used to protect the small intestine and colon during an abdominal aneurysmectomy?
A)Dry prep towels to soak up any blood loss
B)Warm, moist tapes
C)Warm, saline-soaked ray-tec
D)Sweetheart retractor
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46
Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Procured organs are placed in sterile containers and packed with dry ice to decrease ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transplantation to normal recipient site
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q3) People with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)cannot receive a transplanted organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
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