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Occupational Therapy Foundations introduces students to the core principles, history, and philosophy of occupational therapy as a health profession. The course explores the role of occupation in health and well-being, the theoretical models guiding practice, and the significance of client-centered care. Students will gain insight into the values, ethics, and professional standards that underpin occupational therapy. Through examination of case studies and foundational frameworks, learners will begin to understand the occupational therapy process as it relates to assessment, intervention, and outcome evaluation in diverse settings and populations.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
Q2) When a person grasps an overhead exercise bar and pulls it down,what type of motion is occurring at the shoulder joint?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: A
Q3) The fibula is on which side of the lower leg?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
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Q1) The structure of the bone where growth occurs is the A) diaphysis.
B) medullary canal.
C) endosteum.
D) epiphyseal plate.
Answer: D
Q2) A bone marking that consists of a sharp ridge or border is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: B
Q3) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
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Q1) The wrist is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: C
Q2) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?
A) Tendon
B) Bursa
C) Ligament
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
Q3) A broad,flat tendinous sheet is called
A) linea alba.
B) aponeurosis.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) labrum.
Answer: B
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Q1) The intervention of joint mobilization is best performed in the close-packed position at any given joint.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The close-packed position of the facet joints of the spine is in which of the following spinal positions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Lateral bend
D) Elevation
Q3) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called
A) roll.
B) spin.
C) glide.
D) Any of the above
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding oblique muscle fibers?
A) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
B) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
C) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
D) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
Q2) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
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Q1) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The "stress-response" and stimulation part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)is the sympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with "wrist drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q4) A person experiencing "ape hand" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
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Q1) A circulatory pathology characterized by inflammation of a vein is which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Phlebitis
C) Embolism
D) Occlusion
Q2) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the forearm and hand is which of the following?
A) Radial and ulnar
B) Axillary
C) Subclavian
D) Internal iliac
Q3) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
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Q1) The reason that a large-handled object is easier to turn is that the mechanical advantage is larger.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The law of motion best demonstrated when a person in a wheelchair gains speed when she pushes on the rims is the
A) law of inertia.
B) law of acceleration.
C) law of action-reaction.
D) law of physics.
Q3) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
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Q1) The upper trapezius,serratus anterior,and lower trapezius have which of the following actions in common?
A) Retraction of the scapula
B) Protraction of the scapula
C) Downward rotation of the scapula
D) Upward rotation of the scapula
Q2) A person who lacks the free motion of upward rotation is limited in which of the following shoulder joint motions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Abduction
D) A and C
Q3) The bony landmark of the scapula that exists where the vertebral and axillary borders meet is the
A) superior angle.
B) inferior angle.
C) spine.
D) acromion process.
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Q1) The pectoralis major,latissimus dorsi,and teres major have which of the following shoulder motions in common?
A) Horizontal abduction
B) Adduction
C) Lateral rotation
D) Flexion
Q2) All of the following can contribute to joint subluxation of the glenohumeral joint EXCEPT
A) weight of the upper extremity.
B) gravity.
C) shallow glenoid fossa.
D) strong lateral capsular ligaments.
Q3) Which muscles originate on the axillary border of the scapula and insert on the greater tubercle of the humerus?
A) Teres minor
B) Teres major
C) Infraspinatus
D) Subscapularis
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Q1) Which ligament spans the elbow longitudinally (long ways)on the little finger side of the elbow?
A) Lateral collateral ligament
B) Annular ligament
C) Medial collateral ligament
D) Proximal radioulnar ligament
Q2) Which of the following groups are the prime movers in elbow flexion?
A) Biceps,supinator,and brachialis
B) Brachialis,brachioradialis,and anconeus
C) Biceps,pronator teres,and supinator
D) Brachialis,biceps,and brachioradialis
Q3) The broad,flat membrane located longitudinally between the radius and the ulna is called the
A) thoracolumbar fascia.
B) joint capsule.
C) interosseous membrane.
D) annular ligament.
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Q1) If the emphasis for the above exercise is eccentric strengthening,how would you instruct your client to pace the exercise?
A) Emphasis on the "up" motion
B) Emphasis on the "down" motion
C) Both directions will work the muscle eccentrically.
D) Emphasis on holding the wrist in neutral position for 5 to 10 seconds
Q2) The flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris are agonists in which of the following motions?
A) Flexion
B) Ulnar deviation
C) Radial deviation
D) A and C
Q3) The three wrist extensors are innervated by which nerve?
A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the scaphoid,trapezium,and flexor retinaculum and inserts on the proximal phalanx of the thumb?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Opponens pollicis
C) Flexor digiti minimi
D) Abductor digiti minimi
Q2) The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle flexes all but which of the following joints of the fingers?
A) Distal interphalangeal joints (DIP)
B) Proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP)
C) Metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP)
D) This muscle flexes all of these joints.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the humeral lateral condyle and inserts at the base of the distal phalanges of the four fingers?
A) Flexor digitorum profundus
B) Extensor digitorum
C) Flexor digitorum superficialis
D) Extensor carpi radialis longus
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Q1) Which cranial nerve is involved if your client has sensory loss to the face?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VI
C) Cranial nerve VII
D) A and C
Q2) Protraction is primarily achieved by which of the following muscles?
A) Lateral pterygoid
B) Medial pterygoid
C) Masseter
D) A and B
Q3) Which muscle originates on the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts on the hyoid bone?
A) Geniohyoid
B) Stylohyoid
C) Sternohyoid
D) Omohyoid
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Q1) The facet joints of the lumbar spine primarily run in which plane to allow good spinal flexion and extension?
A) Frontal plane
B) Sagittal plane
C) Transverse plane
D) A and C
Q2) Which muscle originates on the transverse processes of the cervical vertebra and inserts on the first and second ribs?
A) Sternocleidomastoid
B) Scalene
C) Splenius capitis
D) Splenius cervicis
Q3) The muscle of the cervical spine that is innervated by cranial nerve XI is the A) sternocleidomastoid.
B) scalene.
C) splenius capitis.
D) splenius cervicis.
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Q1) A chronic lung pathology characterized by loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls is which of the following?
A) Pneumonia
B) Bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Pleurisy
Q2) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Pleurisy
D) Hyperventilation
Q3) The most inferior tip of the sternum is called the A) xiphoid process.
B) manubrium.
C) demifacet.
D) tubercle.
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Q1) A person with tight hamstrings will likely adopt which of the following compensatory postures?
A) Posterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
B) Anterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
C) Posterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
D) Anterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
Q2) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
Q3) The pelvic force couple that combine to pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt are the A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.
D) hip extensors and trunk extensors.
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Q1) The BEST position to stretch the tensor fascia latae muscle is which of the following?
A) Hip flexion
B) Hip extension
C) Hip adduction and extension
D) Hip abduction and extension
Q2) Your patient has had a crush injury to the sciatic nerve.You would expect to see weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) semimembranosus.
B) biceps femoris.
C) rectus femoris.
D) All of these could be affected by a sciatic nerve injury.
Q3) Most of the hip adductors are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Sciatic nerve
B) Deep peroneal nerve
C) Obturator nerve
D) Femoral nerve
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Q1) Which muscle is responsible for "unlocking" the knee?
A) Popliteus
B) Plantaris
C) Soleus
D) Posterior tibialis
Q2) Which of the following Q angle measurements would be considered an abnormal finding?
A) 10 degrees
B) 13 degrees
C) 15 degrees
D) 18 degrees
Q3) Which muscles are prime movers in knee extension?
A) Rectus femoris,vastus medialis,vastus lateralis
B) Biceps femoris,semitendinosus,semimembranosus
C) Vastus medialis,plantaris,vastus intermedialis
D) Semitendinosus,gluteus maximus,semimembranosus
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Q1) You are asked to strengthen the muscles that support the arch of the foot (stirrup muscles).You would choose exercises for which of the following pairs of muscles?
A) Peroneus longus and anterior tibialis
B) Anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis
C) Peroneus longus and extensor hallucis longus
D) Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
Q2) Which muscle originates on the fibula and runs behind the lateral malleolus to the base of the fifth metatarsal?
A) Peroneus brevis
B) Peroneus tertius
C) Tibialis anterior
D) Tibialis posterior
Q3) The majority of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Medial and lateral plantar nerves
B) Superficial peroneal nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Deep peroneal nerve
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Q1) Causes of poor posture can be which of the following?
A) Habit
B) Congenital malformation
C) Paralysis of key postural muscles
D) Any of the above can be a cause of poor posture.
Q2) The pelvis is considered to be in a neutral position when which of the following landmarks are in the same plane?
A) The anterior inferior iliac spines and posterior inferior iliac spines are level
B) The anterior superior iliac spines and posterior superior iliac spines are level
C) The anterior superior iliac spines and symphysis pubis are in the same vertical plane
D) B and C
Q3) Which two spinal curves are considered to be the secondary (antigravity)curves?
A) Cervical and thoracic
B) Thoracic and sacral
C) Cervical and lumbar
D) Lumbar and sacral
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Q1) The period of the stance phase when the body is directly over the weight-bearing limb and the vertical displacement of the pelvis is at its highest point is
A) initial contact.
B) loading response.
C) midstance.
D) terminal stance.
Q2) A normal width of walking base measured from the midpoint of each heel is A)( <sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub> inch).
B) 1 inch.
C) 3 inches.
D) 6 inches.
Q3) A gait pattern characterized by a wide base of support and unsteady movements is called
A) Parkinsonian gait.
B) scissors gait.
C) ataxic gait.
D) antalgic gait.
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