Occupational Therapy Assistant Studies
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Occupational Therapy Assistant Studies introduces students to the foundational principles and practical skills needed to support individuals in achieving independence in their daily lives. The course covers concepts of occupational therapy practice, therapeutic techniques, anatomy, psychosocial approaches, and client-centered care across the lifespan. Students learn to assist registered occupational therapists in designing and implementing treatment plans, adapting environments, and promoting participation in meaningful activities. Emphasis is placed on ethical practice, effective communication, documentation, and the importance of cultural competence when working within diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by
Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The integumentary system helps to maintain a boundary between the internal and external environment.Give an example of something that is prevented entry to the body and an example of something prevented from escaping the body by the integumentary system.
Answer: The integument prevents entry of pathogens (germs,viruses,bacteria)OR harmful chemicals.The integumentary system prevents water (body fluid)loss.
Q2) The fingers are ________ to the wrist.
A)Proximal
B)Anterior
C)Distal
D)Medial
E)Lateral
Answer: C
Q3) The ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is called
Answer: responsiveness or excitability
Q4) What is the function of the serous membranes?
Answer: They act to reduce friction and allow the organs to slide across cavity walls.
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.
A) long fatty acid chains
B) a high water content
C) unsaturated fatty acids
D) saturated fatty acids
Answer: C
Q2) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work.Kinetic energy is energy in action.
Q3) The lower the pH,the higher the hydrogen ion concentration.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) salt water
B) rubbing alcohol
C) blood
D) cytosol
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted to the hospital for severe dehydration.Explain what changes occur in extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments during dehydration.
Answer: Fluid volume deficit occurs when the body loses both water and electrolytes from the extracellular fluid compartment.Fluid is initially lost from the intravascular compartment (blood).Then fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular compartment,depleting the interstitial compartment.To compensate for the decreased volume,the body then draws intracellular fluid out of the cells.This could lead to collapse and death.
Q2) Water may move through membrane pores constructed by transmembrane proteins called ________. Answer: aquaporins
Q3) How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes?
Answer: Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol.Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell.
Q4) ________ is the division of the cytoplasmic mass into two parts.
Answer: Cytokinesis
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a step in tissue repair?
A) inflammation
B) formation of new stem cells
C) restoration of blood supply
D) regeneration and fibrosis
Q2) What tissue has lacunae,calcium salts,and blood vessels?
A) bone (osseous tissue)
B) cartilage tissue
C) fibrocartilaginous tissue
D) areolar tissue
Q3) A major characteristic of fibrocartilage is its unique amount of flexibility and elasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood is considered a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is blood unique among connective tissues?
Q6) What type of membrane lines closed ventral body cavities? List three examples.
Q7) Explain what is meant by epithelial tissue being avascular but innervated.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.
A) external root sheath
B) cortex
C) cuticle
D) medulla
Q2) Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback?
A) Production of vitamin D initiated by the suns UV light striking the skin.
B) Formation of cerumen wax to deter insects from entering the ear.
C) Changes in the response of the hair follicle to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
D) Thickening of epidermis to form a callus in places where the skin is exposed to friction.
Q3) The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibers while the epidermis does not.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How are burns commonly classified? Give an example.
Q6) What are vellus hairs?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following?
A) presence of osteoblasts in the bone
B) amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone
C) amount of mineral salts in the bone
D) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules
Q2) Cranial bones develop ________.
A) from a tendon
B) within osseous membranes
C) within fibrous membranes
D) from cartilage models
Q3) List in order the four major healing stages of a simple fracture.
Q4) Create an analogy for the chemical composition of bone using highway construction.
Q5) Armlike bar of bone.
A)Spine
B)Trochanter
C)Facet
D)Foramen
E)Ramus
Q6) What is found in a central (Haversian)canal?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
A) no transverse processes
B) transverse foramina
C) costal facets
D) no intervertebral discs
Q2) Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect.
Q3) Identify the arches of the foot and describe how they are maintained.
Q4) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q5) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Greg is somewhat of a "weekend athlete" who has overextended himself by pitching multiple baseball games for a local team during the week and by playing golf on the weekends for several hours.He presented himself to the emergency room last week with severe shoulder pain (at the glenohumeral joint).The physician told him that the X-ray was not conclusive,but he may have damage to his rotator cuff.What is the rotator cuff,and how might he have caused this damage? What remedies will the physician recommend?
Q2) All of the following are factors that influence synovial joint stability EXCEPT?
A) structure and shape of the articulating bone
B) strength and tension of joint ligaments
C) arrangement and tension of the muscles
D) number of bones in the joint
Q3) Compared to the shoulder,displacements of the hip joints are ________.
A) rare because of the ligament reinforcement
B) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures
C) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint
D) common in all people who are overweight
Q4) Hinge joints permit movement in only two planes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual muscle fiber.
A)A
B)E
C)D
D)C
E)B
Q2) Depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms.
A)Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
B)Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
C)fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
Q3) Lynn has been waking up each night with intense pain in her calves.She does not feel that it is serious enough to seek medical attention but would like to know what is causing the pain.What would you tell her concerning this problem? She has been playing tennis all summer for several hours each day.Could this have anything to do with the night pain?
Q4) Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) excitability
B) extensibility
C) contractility
D) secretion
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Levator scapulae.
A)D
B)A
C)B
D)E
E)C
Q2) The ________ extends the great toe.
A) tibialis anterior
B) gastrocneumius
C) fibularis (peroneous) tertius
D) extensor hallucis longus
Q3) Second-class lever.
A)C
B)A C)B
Q4) A wide receiver for a college football team pulled a hamstring muscle.What muscles could be affected and what would the effect be?
Q5) Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid
A) ependymal cells
B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
D) Schwann cells
Q2) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the
Q3) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.
Q4) Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction.The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division
Q5) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
Q6) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation.
Q2) Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is a form of deep sleep.
D) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.
Q3) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling.
C) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.
D) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.
Q4) A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the limbic system?
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drooping of the upper eyelid,and double vision are potential symptoms of damage to the oculomotor nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lamellar corpuscle.
A)Pacinian corpuscle
B)Ruffini endings
C)Meissner corpuscle
Q3) One of the adaptive advantages of human body hair is believed to be its ability to help us detect potentially harmful insects crawling or landing on our skin.Which receptor type is most associated with this type of perception?
Q4) The neural machinery of the spinal cord,including spinal cord circuits.
A)Segmental level
B)Projection level
C)Precommand level
Q5) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Body movement receptors are called ________.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
B) raising blood glucose levels
C) lens accommodation for close vision
D) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
Q3) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT
A) their effectors
B) target organ responses to their neurotransmitters
C) regulation of activity by higher brain centers
D) their efferent pathways and ganglia
Q4) Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia,containing the cell bodies of motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe outcome criteria that can be used to evaluate whether a patient is effectively coping with a stressful problem.
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Controls lens shape.
A)A
B)C
C)B
D)E
E)D
Q2) Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units contain only 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contains utricle and saccule.
A)Otoliths
B)Vestibule
C)Pharyngotympanic tube
D)Tympanic membrane
Q4) The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body is the external auditory meatus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gluconeogenesis,the formation of glucose from fats and proteins,is due to the action of ________.
A) insulin
B) secretin
C) cortisol
D) aldosterone
Q2) All anterior pituitary hormones EXCEPT growth hormone affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone?
A) estrogen
B) cortisol
C) epinephrine
D) aldosterone
Q4) Epinephrine production.
A)Neural stimulus
B)Hormonal stimulus
C)Humoral stimulus
Q5) What is the difference between autocrines and paracrines?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
A) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O
B) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O
C) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
D) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
Q2) Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When diagnosing an iron deficiency one of the first tests is a red blood cell count.Why is this so?
Q4) Why are the two pathways of blood clotting referred to as the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?
Q5) List the granulocytes and describe the appearance of their granules in a typical blood smear.
Q6) Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.
A)Embolism
B)Polycythemia
C)Anemia
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Leukemia
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Right atrium.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)E
Q2) Pulmonary veins.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)E
Q3) As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis,more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define systole and diastole.Which heart chambers are usually referenced when these terms are used?
Q5) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria?
Q6) Explain the role of pacemaker cells in cardiac tissue.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance.
A)Large arteries
B)Large veins
C)Capillaries
D)Large Arteries
E)Arterioles
Q2) Describe the effect of hypovolemic shock on the blood vessels and the heart.
Q3) Normal average blood pressure for a newborn baby is ________.
A) 150/90
B) 120/80
C) 90/55
D) 130/80
Q4) Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) lungs
D) liver
Q5) A family of peptides called ________ are released by the endothelium and are among the most potent vasoconstrictors known.
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother takes her son to the doctor and describes the following symptoms that she has observed.The child is running a fever,has flu-like symptoms,and his lymph glands are very swollen and sore to the touch.Of what significance are the swollen and sore lymph glands?
Q2) From the right leg,lymph moves in which order?
A) right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, right subclavian vein
B) right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein
C) right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein
D) right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, right subclavian vein
Q3) Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q4) Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?
A) thymus
B) appendix
C) spleen
D) tonsils
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by
A) phagocyte mobilization
B) complement production
C) vasoconstriction
D) vasodilation
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
A) helper
B) antigenic
C) cytotoxic
D) regulatory
Q3) Pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant are called ________ antibodies.
Q4) Light chain.
Q5) Why are regulatory T cells important to the immune process?
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes mechanisms of CO<sub>2</sub> transport?
A) as bicarbonate ions in plasma
B) 7-10% of CO<sub>2</sub> is dissolved directly into the plasma
C) just over 20% of CO<sub>2</sub> is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin
D) attached to the heme part of hemoglobin
Q2) Which of the following is a conducting zone structure?
A) respiratory bronchiole
B) terminal bronchiole
C) alveolar sac
D) alveolar duct
Q3) For inspiration of air,which of the following happens first?
A) diaphragm descends and rib cage rises
B) intrapulmonary pressure drops
C) air (gases) flows into lungs
D) thoracic cavity volume decreases
Q4) In chronic bronchitis,mucus production is decreased and this leads to the inflammation and fibrosis of the mucosal lining of the bronchial tree.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.
A) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
B) The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.
C) Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.
D) Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2).
Q2) The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chief bile pigment is ________.
Q5) The longest portion of the small intestine is the ________.
Q6) Cells of the stomach that secrete HCl are ________ cells.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) must contain all the body's amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)?
A) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
B) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane formation
C) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for hormone synthesis
D) assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand
Q3) Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?
A) vitamins and minerals
B) proteins
C) foods and beverages high in caffeine
D) fats
Q4) The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Podocyte.
A)E
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)A
Q2) Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)contain so many mitochondria?
A) Cells of the PCT go through a great deal of mitosis.
B) A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT.
C) Contraction of the PCT moves filtrate through the tubule.
D) This provides the energy needed to fight kidney infection.
Q3) The function of angiotensin II is to ________.
A) decrease the production of aldosterone
B) decrease water absorption
C) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
D) decrease arterial blood pressure
Q4) The trigone is so named because of the shape of the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a chemical buffer system?
A) phosphate
B) bicarbonate
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
Q2) Helen is a 62-year-old smoker.Her physician has diagnosed her as having emphysema that has caused her to hypoventilate.Surprisingly,when her blood pH is checked,it is 7.40.Why?
Q3) The main fluid compartment outside the cells.
A)Nonelectrolytes
B)Electrolytes
C)Intracellular
D)Interstitial
E)Extracellular
Q4) Excessive loss of water from the extracellular fluid (ECF)leads to a rise in osmotic pressure in the ECF which causes cells to shrink as water leaves by osmosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?
A) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
B) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.
C) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.
D) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
Q2) Area of compacted DNA.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
Q3) Produces haploid cells.
A)Meiosis
B)meiosis
C)Mitosis
D)mitosis
Q4) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are some possible complications a patient may have after a radical mastectomy?
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Q1) A couple interested in conceiving has been carefully charting her menstrual cycles for many months.Relative to ovulation,what window of time does coitus need to occur in order to achieve fertilization?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a correct matching of a fetal structure with what it becomes at birth?
A) foramen ovale fossa ovalis
B) ductus venosus ligamentum venosum
C) ductus arteriosus ligamentum teres
D) umbilical arteries medial umbilical ligaments
Q3) The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.
A) placental tissue
B) allantois
C) lining of the endometrium
D) archenteron
Q4) In fetal circulation,one way in which blood bypasses the nonfunctional lungs is by way of the foramen ovale.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define Braxton Hicks contractions.
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Genes not expressed unless they are present in homozygous condition.
A)Homozygous
B)Sex chromosomes
C)Recessive
D)Genotype
Q2) Those characteristics that can be determined on superficial inspection of an individual are known as ________.
A) polyspermic
B) polygenic
C) genotypic
D) phenotypic
Q3) A Punnett square is a diagram that may be used to figure out the possible combinations of genes for a trait.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A dominant allele is best defined as ________.
A) the healthy allele sometimes referred to as the wild type allele
B) the allele that is most frequently expressed in a given population
C) the stronger of two matched alleles
D) an allele that stops or hides the expression of the other allele
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