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Course Introduction
Nutrition for Health Sciences explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition and its application in health sciences. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients, the role of macronutrients and micronutrients in maintaining health, and the impact of nutrition on disease prevention and management. Students will examine current dietary guidelines, analyze the relationship between diet and chronic conditions, and consider the ethical, cultural, and social factors influencing nutritional choices. Through evidence-based learning, students will gain the knowledge needed to assess nutritional status and implement effective nutrition strategies in clinical and public health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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1011 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Mary hears the nurse tell her she will need to increase her caloric intake, her first response to the nurse was, "More chips, candy, colas." What is the nurse's response?
Answer: The nurse must help Mary understand that the weight gain must be from desirable foods that are nutrient dense and emphasize the importance of choosing a varied diet. The empty calories that Mary prefers provide no nutritional value for her or the baby.
Q2) Wellness is a way of life that integrates mind, body, and spirit. What lifestyle habits will help one achieve wellness?
Answer: Wellness can be accomplished through lifestyle habits such as focusing on healthy food choices, not smoking, participating in regular physical activity, and maintaining a healthy weight.
Modified True / False
Q3) State three nursing diagnosis statements from the assessment data.
Answer: Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to adolescent pregnancy, when her own needs for growth and maturation are still high and eating habits are poor. Knowledge deficit related to nutritional requirements during pregnancy. Anxiety related to changes, discomforts, or emotional feelings resulting from pregnancy.
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Q1) For adults to receive substantial health benefits from exercise, which of the following is true?
A)At least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity is necessary each week.
B)At least 75 minutes of moderate-intensity or 150 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity is necessary each week.
C)Aerobic exercise should be performed in episodes of at least 30 minutes in order to be effective.
D)Only aerobic exercise provides health benefits-strength training is not necessary.
Answer: A
Q2) Discuss nutritional deficiencies and other health risks that may be a result of excess alcohol use.
Answer: One ounce of most alcoholic beverages contains approximately 80 calories and traces of nutrients. Moderate drinkers have increased appetite, which increases food consumed, resulting in weight gain. Heavy drinkers lose their appetites, and that results in nutritional deficiencies. Excess alcohol causes cirrhosis, liver and brain damage, birth defects, and the risk of cancer of the throat or neck.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the process that takes released energy and builds new substances from simpler ones?
A)anabolism
B)catabolism
C)oxidation
D)metabolism
Answer: A
Q2) What do lacteals absorb?
A)glucose and water-soluble vitamins
B)amino acids and enzymes
C)fatty acids, glycerol, and fat-soluble vitamins
D)minerals only
Answer: C
Q3) Acid reflux disease is caused by malfunction of the pyloric sphincter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the goal of the initial medical treatment?
Answer: Alleviating the symptoms.
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Q1) Which of the following sugars is created during the fermentation process that produces alcohol?
A)lactose
B)sucrose
C)maltose
D)glycogen
Q2) Which disaccharide is produced by enzymatic action during the digestion of starch in the body?
A)lactose
B)sucrose
C)maltose
D)glycogen
Q3) Carbohydrates are required by the body to furnish adequate fiber needed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Provide an explanation for the use of fiber in at least five medical conditions. Explain the rationale for each. What are the best food sources for fiber?
Q5) Compare and contrast the three groups of carbohydrates: monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides.
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Q1) A healthful way to lower cholesterol is to _______.
A)reduce the amount of saturated fat in the diet
B)avoid all dairy foods
C)increase simple carbohydrate intake
D)take prescription drugs to lower cholesterol
Q2) In cells, fatty acids are broken down to ______.
A)carbon dioxide and water
B)carbon dioxide and oxygen
C)oxygen and nitrogen
D)carbon dioxide, oxygen, and water
Q3) Develop a dietary plan to discuss with Mr. and Mrs. Balboack when his condition is stable. What types of foods does he need to add or remove from his diet? What tips can you offer to help him remove excess fats/lipids from his diet?
Q4) Monounsaturated fats lower the amount of low-density lipoprotein in the blood when they replace saturated fats in one's diet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the pathology that occurs within the cardiovascular system with the ingestion of coffee, nicotine, and fats.
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Q1) Discuss the process of metabolism of proteins.
Q2) List the symptoms of kwashiorkor.
Q3) Which term indicates the protein status of a client with a severe burn?
A)nitrogen balance
B)negative nitrogen balance
C)positive nitrogen balance
D)complete protein
Q4) What is the state of the nitrogen balance with a burn victim?
Q5) What nursing actions/interventions will need to be performed to meet the desired outcomes?
Q6) What types of proteins are consumed routinely by vegans?
A)complete proteins
B)incomplete proteins
C)amino acids
D)high-quality proteins
Q7) The body uses the recycled amino acids as efficiently as those obtained from the diet.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Discuss the impact of a high-protein diet on the body.
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Q1) What is the consequence of vitamin D deficiency?
A)rickets
B)scurvy
C)pellagra
D)dermatitis
Q2) Ms. Salmendos asks you, "Who are vitamins meant for, and why is it such a big business if people do not need supplements?"
Q3) Some vitamins are easily destroyed by light, air, heat, and water. Describe ways to preserve the vitamin during its preparation and cooking.
Q4) _____is the excess of one or more vitamins.
A)Hypervitaminosis
B)Toxicity
C)Hypovitaminosis
D)Avitaminosis
Q5) In which of the following situations is vitamin K NOT indicated?
A)to clients with faulty fat absorption
B)to a client after extensive antibiotic therapy
C)as an antidote for an overdose of a blood thinner
D)to prevent hemolytic anemia in premature infants
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Q1) Describe the function of potassium.
Q2) Bone mass is acquired until one is approximately _____ years old.
A)18
B)30
C)50
D)65
Q3) Which major mineral is required for the transmission of nerve impulses?
A)phosphorus
B)sulfur
C)potassium
D)iron
Q4) Explain how mineral salts are related to the concept of electroneutrality.
Q5) Which food is most likely to enhance the absorption of iron?
A)legumes
B)orange juice
C)whole grains
D)corn
Q6) Ms. James asks you to recommend the best food sources of calcium.
Q7) List the best food sources of potassium.
Q8) What is the best food source of sodium?
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Q1) Water constitutes what percentage of body weight?
A)between 20 and 30%
B)between 50 and 60%
C)between 30 and 40%
D)over 60%
Q2) What is the pH of blood plasma in a healthy person?
A)pH 6.8-7.1
B)pH 7.35-7.45
C)pH 7
D)below pH 7
Q3) Which fluid is found in the intravascular fluid and glandular secretions?
A)intracellular fluid
B)extracellular fluid
C)interstitial fluid
D)electrolyte fluid
Q4) Identify nursing goals.
Q5) If your body needs 2,000 calories daily, then you should consume 1,000 mL of water in order to maintain hydration and fluid balance.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following are pregnant adolescents particularly prone to?
A)gestational diabetes
B)weight gain
C)pregnancy-induced hypertension
D)abruptio placentae
Q2) Pregnancy-induced hypertension is characterized by _____.
A)hyperemesis gravidarum
B)pica
C)proteinuria
D)eclampsia
Q3) The infant's sucking initiates the release of _____ (a hormone), which causes the ejection of milk into the infant's mouth.
A)oxytocin
B)aldosterone
C)insulin
D)prolactin
Q4) "Tell me why I should breastfeed."
Q5) "How long do the experts recommend breastfeeding? I want to go back to work and I don't think I could do that pumping at work."
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Q1) During the first year, the normal child needs half as many calories per kilogram as the adult requirement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are outcomes that ensure that the infant is receiving sufficient nutrition and calories from breastfeeding?
Q3) Burping helps prevent _____.
A)gas
B)regurgitation
C)air bubbles
D)gagging
Q4) When introducing solid foods to an infant's diet, _____ is usually introduced first.
A)soft fruits
B)pureed vegetables
C)finely ground meat
D)cereal
Q5) What assessment data is most important?
Q6) How can you account for the underweight condition and the psychosocial withdrawal of Lucia?
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Q1) Discuss the four primary symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
Q2) What vitamin needs to be increased if a person decides to smoke on a regular basis?
A)vitamin B12
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin C
D)vitamin E
Q3) What is the basis for the importance of fiber in the diet of a child? Why is it important to monitor the fiber intake for children?
Q4) An obese child needs a snack after school.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Smoking increases the risk of _____.
A)heart disease
B)cirrhosis
C)anorexia nervosa
D)none of the above
Q6) Discuss the parameters of the nutritional needs of Chandra, childhood type 2 diabetes, and the impact on her performance as an athlete.
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Q1) One pound of weight gain equals how many calories?
A)2,500
B)2,000
C)3,000
D)3,500
Q2) What is the most common cause of being overweight?
A)genetics
B)environment
C)energy imbalance
D)disease
Q3) More than 80% of people over the age of 65 have one or more chronic diseases. Current research emphasizes the role of nutrition in preventing or relieving these conditions. Discuss the role of nutrition in the treatment of the elderly with chronic disease.
Q4) Most Americans ingest _____ the amount of salt needed each day.
A)half
B)one-fourth
C)10 times
D)2-6 times
Q5) List causes of anorexia in older adults.
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Q1) List causes of malnutrition.
Q2) Obesity is more prevalent in _____________.
A)immigrant families
B)families in poverty
C)single-parent families
D)minority families
Q3) One of the limitations of BMI is that it may overestimate body fat in older persons and others who have lost muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the dangers of being underweight.
Q5) All of the following play a role in weight regulation EXCEPT _____________.
A)genetics
B)environment
C)lifestyle
D)education
Q6) Describe the distribution of fat as an indicator of possible health problems.
Q7) List possible reasons for Ms. Janie's deficient nutritional status, as well as for that of other geriatric clients.
Q8) List nursing interventions in order of priority.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q2) Exercise helps the body use glucose by increasing insulin receptor sites and stimulating the creation of glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List goals to assist with making life changes to improve metabolic control.
Q4) Which condition may result when clients do not eat the prescribed diet, yet still continue to take the prescribed meal-time insulin?
A)hyperglycemia
B)ketosis
C)hypoglycemia
D)hypertension
Q5) When increasing one's fiber intake, one must also increase _____ intake.
A)fat
B)carbohydrate
C)water
D)protein
Q6) Formulate nursing diagnosis statements for Mary.
Q7) Describe dietary management for gestational diabetes.
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Q1) The primary treatment for hyperlipidemia is _____.
A)medical nutrition therapy
B)statin medications
C)exercise
D)weight loss
Q2) Which of the following foods contains a high amount of cholesterol?
A)egg yolks
B)peanuts
C)soft margarine
D)olive oil
Q3) Search the Internet to find the guidelines compiled by the American Heart Association for cholesterol intake. List them.
Q4) Cholesterol is found only in animal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compile a list of foods or condiments that are high in sodium.
Q6) The newest guideline for potassium intake is 2,500 mg per day to lower blood pressure.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the dietary regimen for prevention of kidney stones?
Q2) A typical renal daily diet is sometimes referred to as "80-3-3," meaning what?
A)80% protein, 3% fats, 3% carbohydrates
B)80 g of carbohydrates, 3 g of fat, 3 g of protein
C)80 g of protein, 3 g of sugar, 3 g of fat
D)80 g of protein, 3 g of sodium, 3 g of potassium
Q3) The use of salt substitutes is not recommended for clients with renal disease. Why?
Q4) When the kidneys are unable to adequately eliminate nitrogenous waste from the body, a urinary tract infection occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each kidney contains approximately 100,000 working parts called nephrons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is the condition when urinary output is less than 500 mL/day.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Oliguria
C)Acute renal failure
D)Renal stones

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Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux can cause _____.
A)hiatal hernia
B)diverticulosis
C)pancreatitis
D)esophagitis
Q2) Which food can cause the lower esophageal sphincter to relax?
A)milk
B)banana
C)chocolate
D)oatmeal
Q3) Diet therapy for pancreatitis is intended to reduce stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. The type of diet used is a liquid diet consisting mainly of carbohydrates because they have the least stimulating effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Peptic ulcers occur in both the stomach and the duodenum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?
Q6) Describe the treatment for peptic ulcers.
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Q1) What type of diet is recommended for a cancer client with diarrhea?
A) liquid diet
B) soft diet
C) low-residue diet
D) high-fiber diet
Q2) Families with a genetic predisposition to cancer should take certain precautions. List those.
Q3) What part of the body does squamous cell carcinoma affect and what usually causes it?
Q4) What nutritional conditions result from use of radiation?
Q5) Some foods contain substances that may protect against cancer. List those.
Q6) Postoperatively, Jennie has pain when she chews, smiles, laughs, or talks. The doctor has ordered pain medication as needed. What side effect from narcotics affects nutrition? List measures to relieve the problem.
Q7) Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the nutritional needs of the cancer client.
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Q9) Discuss the nutrition-related effects of radiation treatment to the head and neck.

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Q1) Which microorganism can be found on human skin and in infected cuts and pimples?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)Salmonella
Q2) The toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum can be produced in sealed containers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Devise a nursing care plan for Brian. Include assessment data to observe, nursing diagnosis, goals, and nursing interventions.
Q4) Which temperature range inhibits the growth of bacteria?
A)above 140°F or below 40°F
B)between 40° and 140°F
C)above 165°F
D)below 165°F
Q5) Compare and contrast Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium perfringens. Include source, signs and symptoms, prevention, and prognosis.
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Q1) Clients who are able to digest and absorb nutrients are given a commercial formula containing intact proteins, carbohydrates, and fats that require digestion. What is the term for this formula?
A)modular formula
B)hydrolyzed formula
C)polymeric formula
D)elemental formula
Q2) Rosa has developed anemia. State causes and dietary recommendations.
Q3) Describe alternate enteral feeding methods when the oral route cannot be used.
Q4) Give a nursing diagnosis statement in relation to nutrition.
Q5) Compare the three methods for administering tube feedings.
Q6) Acute or chronic illness or surgery can devastate one's nutritional status. Describe the effects.
Q7) Parenteral nutrition is the provision of nutrients via an ostomy into the stomach or jejunum.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Nutrition is of primary importance for a burn client. List some vitamins and minerals that have an impact on the healing process.
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