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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application within various health professions. Emphasizing the relationship between diet, health, and disease prevention, the curriculum covers macronutrients and micronutrients, digestion and metabolism, energy balance, and nutritional needs throughout the lifespan. Students will learn to assess nutritional status, interpret dietary guidelines, and design individualized nutritional interventions. The course also addresses nutrition in clinical settings, food safety, cultural considerations, and emerging trends in nutrition science, equipping future health professionals with the knowledge and skills required to support optimal patient health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
1975 Verified Questions
1975 Flashcards
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70819
Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA advises consumers that:
A)a product that is labeled as "natural" and "non toxic" is always safe to use.
B)products based on "ancient remedies" are preferable to those based on modern "scientific breakthroughs."
C)they should be suspicious of product claims that use impressive-sounding medical terms.
D)an offer of a "money-back" guarantee from the manufacturer means the product is more likely to be effective.
Answer: C
Q2) Dietary Reference Intakes are values that are appropriate to use for planning and assessing diets for individuals and groups.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Identify and give an example of several factors that influence food choices. Answer: not answered
Q4) Provide a rationale for the following statement: "Too much meat is just as fattening as too many potatoes."
Answer: not answered
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) After digestion, lipids are packaged for transport as lipoproteins known as: A)HDL.
B)VLDL.
C)LDL.
D)chylomicrons.
Answer: D
Q2) The primary site of nutrient absorption is the: A)stomach.
B)pancreas.
C)small intestine.
D)large intestine.
Answer: C
Q3) The main function of bile is to:
A)emulsify fats.
B)stimulate the activity of protein digestive enzymes.
C)neutralize the intestinal contents.
D)decrease the acidity of the contents of the stomach.
Answer: A
Q4) Describe the role of the stomach in the process of digestion.
Answer: not answered
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nonnutritive sweetener sucralose is made from:
A)sucrose.
B)an amino acid.
C)aspartame.
D)maltose.
Answer: A
Q2) Chemically, lactose is a:
A)monosaccharide.
B)disaccharide.
C)dextrose.
D)polysaccharide.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following fibers is a nonpolysaccharide?
A)cellulose
B)lignin
C)pectin
D)gum
Answer: B
Q4) Discuss the harmful effects of excessive fiber intake. Answer: not answered
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unsaturated fats should be consumed in moderation because:
A)they are high in kcalories.
B)they raise LDL levels.
C)the foods that contain them are not nutritious.
D)they reduce blood clotting factors.
Q2) Sally eats meat but wants to reduce her saturated fat and cholesterol intakes.Which of the following should Sally do?
A)eliminate dairy foods from her diet
B)eat less meat and include more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains in her diet
C)eat more eggs and less meat
D)eliminate beef and pork from her diet
Q3) Consumers should keep the following in mind about foods made with fat substitutes:
A)They are a weight-loss wonder.
B)They still provide kcalories.
C)They aid in the absorption of certain vitamins.
D)They adversely affect the taste and texture of foods.
Q4) Describe the health effects of omega-3 fatty acids, and recommendations regarding their intake.
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Q1) A 25-year-old man weighs 154 pounds and consumes 2,700 kcalories with 45 grams of protein a day.If two-thirds of the protein comes from animal sources, it may be concluded that he:
A)ingested his recommended allowance of protein.
B)needs 8 grams more protein to meet the recommended allowance.
C)needs 11 grams more protein to meet the recommended allowance.
D)has exceeded his recommended allowance of protein.
Q2) Amino acids are a secondary source of energy.Their primary function is to:
A)build proteins needed by the body.
B)provide essential water-soluble vitamins.
C)produce thyroxin and insulin.
D)supply most of the kcalories in the average U.S.diet.
Q3) All of the following foods will contribute to the calcium intake of a vegan except:
A)dark green, leafy vegetables.
B)fortified soy milk.
C)legumes.
D)deep orange and yellow fruits and vegetables.
Q4) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q5) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss three indicators used to identify and evaluate the health risks from overweight and obesity.
Q2) The body's adaptations to fasting are sufficient to maintain life for a long period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to BMI criteria, a person with a BMI of 24 would be considered:
A)underweight.
B)overweight.
C)obese.
D)normal weight.
Q4) Which person is at the greatest health risk?
A)a 27-year-old woman with a waist circumference of 40 inches
B)a 25-year-old athlete with a BMI of 33
C)a 50-year-old male with a BMI of 29 who works out every day
D)a 42-year-old woman with a waist circumference of 34 inches
Q5) Skinfold measurements provide an inaccurate estimate of total body fat.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the following theories for the cause of obesity: (a) set-point theory and (b) fat cell development.
Q2) David has a difficult time gaining weight.Your recommendations to him include:
A)"Eat all you want and avoid physical activity."
B)"Limit low-kcalorie foods like fruits and vegetables."
C)"Ask your doctor for a prescription for orlistat."
D)"Consume energy-dense foods and engage in weight training."
Q3) Jill, who currently weighs 180 pounds and is 4' 8" tall, has asked to be placed on a weight-loss diet.Jill should cut _____ kcalories/day from her energy intake.
A)300-500
B)700-800
C)500-1000
D)600-1200
Q4) Which of the following is not an environmental stimulus that contributes to obesity?
A)the abundance of food available
B)an increase in portion sizes
C)energy-dense fast food
D)the year-round availability of fresh fruits and vegetables
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are vitamins similar to carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
A)typical roles in the body
B)organic nature
C)chemical structure
D)amounts required in the diet
Q2) Identify factors that can place people at risk for vitamin E deficiency and explain why.
Q3) The rate and extent to which a vitamin is absorbed and used by the body is called:
A)vitamin efficiency.
B)bioavailability.
C)fortification.
D)vitamin equivalency.
Q4) Beta-carotene prevents _____ from damaging cells.
A)free radicals
B)antioxidants
C)blood clots
D)vitamin E
Q5) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
Q6) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetes-like condition may develop when _____ is lacking in the diet.
A)iron
B)zinc
C)chromium
D)molybdenum
Q2) Supplement users are more likely to have excessive intakes of:
A)the B vitamins.
B)iron, zinc, vitamin A, and niacin.
C)vitamins A, D, E, and K.
D)calcium, iron, vitamin C, and thiamin.
Q3) Electrolytes in the body function to:
A)maintain fluid balance.
B)stimulate enzyme action.
C)synthesize protein.
D)maintain the health of cell membranes.
Q4) Amino acids containing the mineral _____ help to form the shape of proteins.
A)sulfur
B)sodium
C)phosphorous
D)selenium

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95 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-carbohydrate diets during pregnancy:
A)help to prevent excess weight gain for the mother.
B)may impair brain development in the fetus.
C)may lead to pre-term labor.
D)aid in preventing gestational diabetes.
Q2) Practices that should be avoided during pregnancy include:
A)cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption.
B)cigarette smoking and consumption of either alcohol or caffeine
C)alcohol consumption; cigarette smoking is not harmful
D)cigarette smoking, exercise, and consumption of alcohol and fat
Q3) Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing _____ later in life.
A)heart disease
B)type 2 diabetes
C)gastrointestinal problems
D)osteoporosis
Q4) Breast milk or infant formula normally provides enough water to replace fluid losses in healthy infants.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adolescents eat about _____ of their meals away from home, which can enhance or hinder their nutritional well being.
A)<sup>1</sup>/<sub>4</sub>
B)<sup>1</sup>/<sub>3</sub>
C)<sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub>
D)<sup>2</sup>/<sub>3</sub>
Q2) To prevent a child's exposure to lead, you would do all of the following except:
A)prevent the child from putting old painted objects in the mouth.
B)allow the child to play with crayons made in other countries.
C)make sure the child consumes nutritious meals consistently.
D)make infant formula with lead-free water.
Q3) The most significant effects of long-term hunger on children include:
A)behavioral problems.
B)poor performance in school.
C)apathetic attitude.
D)impaired growth.
Q4) A child's brain is not affected by iron deficiency until a blood deficit of this mineral develops.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest federal food assistance program is:
A)WIC.
B)SNAP.
C)WHO.
D)USDA.
Q2) Sarcopenia refers to:
A)loss of muscle mass.
B)a vitamin deficiency.
C)bone loss.
D)malnutrition associated with aging.
Q3) Older adults at risk nutritionally, such as Mrs.Wylie, should have their diets assessed at medical appointments for:
A)total energy and protein.
B)calcium, iron, and zinc.
C)vitamin B<sub>6</sub>, vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, folate, and vitamin D.
D)all of the above
Q4) Why are some elderly people at risk of developing vitamin D deficiency?
Q5) Discuss ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
Q6) Discuss the possible roles of nutrition in the prevention of Alzheimer's disease.
Page 14
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly male is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of malnutrition three months after his wife died.The nurse recognizes that this is most likely due to which criteria for identifying malnutrition risk?
A)depression or social isolation
B)recent unintentional weight change
C)history of chronic illness
D)age
Q2) The study of the effects of diet on gene expression is called: A)gene expression.
B)nutritional genomics.
C)nutritional science.
D)gene therapy.
Q3) Serum protein values can be affected by fluid imbalances, pregnancy, infections, and some medications.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the major biochemical tests of protein status and briefly discuss their major advantages and disadvantages.
Q5) Describe the types of information collected in a nutrition screening.
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89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospitalized patient's diet prescription was for a clear liquid diet.The nurse knew this patient's diet was not correctly delivered when she saw these items on the patient's tray:
A)cherry gelatin, ginger ale, and coffee.
B)cranberry juice, strawberry fruit ice, and soft drink.
C)bouillon, apple juice, tea, and sugar.
D)strained orange juice, popsicle, and tomato juice.
Q2) Grapefruit juice affects drug absorption by:
A)increasing blood concentration of some drugs.
B)decreasing blood concentration of some drugs.
C)inactivating certain drugs.
D)altering the action of certain drugs.
Q3) Which of the following is not characteristic of a clear liquid diet?
A)requires minimal digestion
B)leaves little residue in the colon
C)liquid at body temperature
D)high in nutrient density
Q4) What strategies would you use to implement a successful long-term nutrition intervention for a patient?
Page 16
Q5) Explain the concept of diet progression.
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70833
Sample Questions
Q1) A "12 French" feeding tube has a diameter of:
A)2 mm.
B)4 mm.
C)6 mm.
D)8 mm.
Q2) The amino acids in a parenteral solution provide _____ kcal per gram.
A)2
B)3.4
C)4
D)4.4
Q3) To prevent refeeding syndrome in a severely stressed individual you would:
A)start feedings at a slow rate.
B)introduce nutrients by vein.
C)provide vitamin supplements.
D)delay enteral feedings.
Q4) Types of formulas that contain complete proteins are called:
A)disease-specific formulas.
B)hydrolyzed formulas.
C)standard formulas.
D)modular formulas.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Overfeeding an acutely stressed patient improves nitrogen balance and decreases lean tissue losses.
A)True B)False
Q2) Nutrition care for patients in acute respiratory failure is aimed at providing a low-fat, high-carbohydrate diet.
A)True B)False
Q3) The first organ to fail in MODS is normally the: A)lungs. B)liver.
C)kidneys.
D)heart.
Q4) Describe the diet-drug interactions that may be experienced by a patient using bronchodilators.
Q5) Recovery from an injury or illness can be hastened by hypermetabolism and positive nitrogen balance.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the day following surgery, Ms.Wilson will be allowed to consume all of the following except:
A)sugar-free iced tea.
B)low-fat broth.
C)water.
D)skim milk.
Q2) Which of the following foods should Ms.Wilson be advised to avoid to prevent possible obstruction of the gastric outlet?
A)bananas
B)celery
C)fish
D)mashed potatoes
Q3) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q4) List the symptoms of dumping syndrome and explain the sequence of events that results in these symptoms.
Q5) In the dietary treatment of gastritis, it is important to eliminate irritating foods and beverages.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client with a colostomy or ileostomy is usually concerned about foods that cause:
A)gas and odor.
B)weight gain.
C)fluid retention.
D)anemia.
Q2) Acute diarrhea that occurs abruptly in a healthy person frequently results from:
A)viral or bacterial infection.
B)lactose intolerance.
C)irritable bowel syndrome.
D)swallowed air.
Q3) Kati should be instructed to avoid _____ until her intestine has recovered.
A)sodium
B)fat
C)lactose
D)fructose
Q4) Differentiate between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis and the appropriate dietary treatment for each.
Q5) Discuss the benefits of pre- and probiotics and their mechanisms of action.
Q6) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collaterals are:
A)small blood vessels in the intestines.
B)blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternate path for blood flow.
C)induced by fatty liver disease.
D)hemorrhages in the esophagus.
Q2) When triglycerides accumulate in the liver, the liver:
A)becomes smaller.
B)turns into scar tissue.
C)ceases to function.
D)enlarges.
Q3) The doctor states that when Brian returns in six months, he will order a panel of blood work called liver enzymes, explaining that he expects them to be normal if Brian complies with the instruction to drink alcohol only in moderation.He explains:
A)liver enzymes levels decline if a person has fatty liver.
B)ALT is a liver enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism.
C)AST is a liver enzyme released in response to stress.
D)elevated ALT and AST levels would be undesirable.
Q4) Describe ways to help a client with cirrhosis eat enough food.
Q5) Describe appropriate nutrition intervention before and after liver transplants.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that a diabetes patient on a 1500-kilocalorie diet should limit her carbohydrate intake to approximately _____ grams per day.
A)150
B)375
C)190
D)240
Q2) The frutosamine test is used to determine:
A)average blood glucose over the preceding 120 days.
B)glycemic control for the preceding two weeks.
C)the level of fructose in the blood.
D)the presence of ketones in the blood.
Q3) The CDE teaches Mr.Hummel how to reduce his kcalories by increasing high-fiber foods in place of foods such as bagged snack chips.A higher intake of fiber could also:
A)increase his glycemic control.
B)increase the glycemic index of his diet.
C)increase his glycosylated hemoglobin.
D)increase his blood glucose.
Q4) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for a woman with gestational diabetes.
Q5) What is the "honeymoon period" associated with diabetes treatment?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carmen's daily sodium intake should not exceed _____ milligrams, as the DASH Eating Plan is even more effective when accompanied by a low sodium intake.
A)1000
B)1500
C)2,828
D)3,400
Q2) Which of the following statements about trans fats is false?
A)They raise LDL levels.
B)They are found in foods made with partially hydrogenated oils.
C)Their intake should be kept as low as possible.
D)They raise HDL levels.
Q3) You would tell clients who are prescribed the DASH Eating Plan to:
A)choose fruit and unsalted pretzels as snacks.
B)flavor foods with barbecue or soy sauce.
C)avoid nuts and seeds.
D)reduce the amount of fiber consumed.
Q4) What information do you need in order to evaluate a client's risk for heart disease?
Q5) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q6) Explain the medical nutrition therapy for hypertriglyceridemia.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old male patient recently required surgery for the removal of a large calcium oxalate stone.To prevent further stone formation, the nurse instructs him to consume plenty of fluids, but advises against drinking: A)apple juice.
B)coffee.
C)tea.
D)draft beer.
Q2) One potential complication of hemodialysis is: A)infections.
B)insomnia.
C)edema.
D)hemochromatosis.
Q3) The primary goal(s) of medical nutrition therapy for Mr.Wilson at this time should be: A)lowering his blood cholesterol level.
B)preventing PEM and weight loss.
C)treating him for iron-deficiency anemia.
D)preventing osteoporosis.
Q4) Discuss techniques to use in increasing clients' compliance with renal diets.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs.Watson is a 55-year-old female with a family history of breast cancer.To reduce Mrs.Watson's risk of breast cancer, the nurse advises her to:
A)avoid alcohol and maintain a healthy weight.
B)take a calcium supplement daily.
C)eat less red meat.
D)drink a glass of red wine with dinner.
Q2) Bobby is a 25-year-old client with HIV infection who is experiencing weight loss and a loss of lean body mass.He currently weighs 160 pounds.The nurse suggests that his diet include at least _____ grams of protein per day.
A)37
B)58
C)87
D)165
Q3) What suggestions would you give a cancer patient concerning ways to control nausea and vomiting?
Q4) Cancer cachexia affects almost all cancer patients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
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