Skip to main content

Nursing Sciences Study Guide Questions - 265 Verified Questions

Page 1


Nursing Sciences Study

Guide Questions

Course Introduction

Nursing Sciences explores the foundational theories, principles, and evidence-based practices that underpin professional nursing care. The course examines the physical, biological, behavioral, and social sciences as they relate to patient assessment, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, ethical decision-making, and compassionate patient-centered care. Students are introduced to the roles and responsibilities of nurses within multidisciplinary healthcare teams, legal and ethical frameworks, and current issues and trends shaping the nursing profession.

Recommended Textbook

Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

23 Chapters

265 Verified Questions

265 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129

Page 2

Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166

Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old man who was on renal dialysis was admitted to the hospital for evaluation of nausea and vomiting. A gastric biopsy was performed. The gastric mucosa contained foci of amorphous, bluish (basophilic) material forming aggregates 10-20 mm in diameter. These aggregates were seen mostly in the stroma between the foveolar cells. No other abnormalities were seen, and the pathologist concluded that these changes represent evidence of

A) Helicobacter pylori infection

B) peptic ulcer formation

C) dystrophic calcification

D) metastatic calcification

E) apoptosis

Answer: D

Q2) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called

A) Autophagocytosis

B) heterophagocytosis

C) exocytosis

D) pinocytosis

E) involution

Answer: B

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3

Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22167

Sample Questions

Q1) Which growth factor is the most potent promotor of angiogenesis in the granulation tissue?

A) Angiotensin

B) Platelet-derived growth factor

C) Tumor growth factor ß

D) Vascular endothelial growth factor

E) Epidermal growth factor

Answer: D

Q2) Aspirin lowers the body temperature by inhibiting the synthesis of which regulator of the central thermostat in the hypothalamus?

A) Leukotriene B<sub>4</sub>

B) Lipoxin

C) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>

D) Prostacyclin

E) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>

Answer: E

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

4

Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168

Sample Questions

Q1) Most cases of septic shock are caused by endotoxin-producing bacteria, which are classified as

A) pyogenic

B) gram-positive

C) gram-negative

D) encapsulated

E) acid fast

Answer: C

Q2) A 63-year-old woman died 2 days after the onset of severe myocardial ischemia caused by coronary thrombosis. At autopsy, the lungs were heavy. Upon sectioning of the lungs, frothy fluid was seen oozing from the cut surface of the parenchyma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pulmonary embolism

B) Pulmonary infarction

C) Pulmonary edema

D) Atelectasis

E) Lobar pneumonia

Answer: C

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5

Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169

Sample Questions

Q1) Antibodies to centromere are found in patients who have

A) systemic sclerosis

B) CREST syndrome

C) Sjögren syndrome

D) polymyositis

E) dermatomyositis

Q2) Mutation of the gene encoding the enzyme that is essential for the maturation of pre-B cells to mature B lymphocytes is the cause of

A) common variable immunodeficiency

B) isolated IgA deficiency

C) DiGeorge syndrome

D) severe combined immunodeficiency

E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia

Q3) Deposition of AL amyloid in the kidneys of patients with multiple myeloma usually results in

A) acute renal failure

B) tubular necrosis

C) nephrotic syndrome

D) chronic pyelonephritis

E) nephrocalcinosis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6

Chapter 5: Neoplasia

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22170

Sample Questions

Q1) Helicobacter pylori infection predisposes to formation of gastric tumors, but the association between the bacterial infection and a gastric tumor is the strongest for A) adenocarcinoma of the stomach

B) gastrointestinal stromal tumors

C) marginal zone lymphomas

D) T-cell lymphoma

E) Burkitt lymphoma

Q2) Clubbing of the digits, periosteal new bone formation on the metatarsals, metacarpals, and proximal phalanges, and arthritis of adjacent joints is a paraneoplastic syndrome most often associated with carcinoma of the A) thyroid

B) larynx

C) bronchi

D) liver

E) stomach

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7

Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22171

Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following parameters portends a good prognosis in patients with neuroblastoma?

A) Young age (less than 1 year)

B) Near-diploid, rather than hyperdiploid or near-tetraploid, karyotype

C) Chromosome 1 deletion

D) Amplification of n-myc

E) Presence of double minutes or homogenously staining regions on chromosome 1

Q2) In which of the following Mendelian disorders is the age of onset delayed and the symptoms of the disease do not appear before adulthood?

A) Tay-Sachs disease

B) Niemann-Pick disease

C) Huntington disease

D) Marfan syndrome

E) Turner syndrome

Q3) Most teratomas in infants are located in the

A) cranium

B) mediastinum

C) gonads

D) retroperitoneum

E) sacrococcygeal region

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8

Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22172

Sample Questions

Q1) Ingestion of aflatoxin, a toxin from Aspergillus flavus fungi, is accompanied by development of cancer in which organ?

A) Thyroid

B) Lung

C) Liver

D) Colon

E) Endometrium

Q2) Leptin is a hormone that acts on the hypothalamic centers for satiety and energy expenditure. Where is leptin synthesized?

A) Liver

B) Thyroid

C) Peripheral fat cells

D) Skeletal muscle cells

E) Nervous system

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9

Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22173

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a preventable cause of blindness in Africa?

A) Giardiasis

B) Onchocerciasis

C) Filariasis

D) Cryptosporidiosis

E) Schistosomiasis

Q2) During a mini-epidemic of Shigella, a 5-year-old child from India became infected and died 3 days after the onset of diarrhea. The most prominent changes seen at autopsy were

A) dilatation of the entire small intestine

B) ulceration of the proximal small intestine

C) ulcerations of the distal ileum

D) multiple ulcerations partially covered with pseudomembranes

E) perforation of the rectum

Q3) Which African disease is complicated by elephantiasis of the legs?

A) Giardiasis

B) Onchocerciasis

C) Filariasis

D) Cryptosporidiosis

E) Schistosomiasis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10

Chapter 9: Blood Vessels

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22174

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?

A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis

B) Takayasu arteritis

C) Kawasaki disease

D) Churg-Strauss syndrome

E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis

B) Takayasu arteritis

C) Kawasaki disease

D) Churg-Strauss syndrome

E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Q3) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin

B) elevation of angiotensin in blood

C) potassium retention in the kidneys

D) reduced sodium excretion in urine

E) increased diuresis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 11

Chapter 10: Heart

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175

Sample Questions

Q1) At what time interval after the onset of infarction will the occlusive coronary artery thrombus most likely be seen by angiography?

A) 4 hours

B) 8 hours

C) 12 hours

D) 24 hours

E) 48 hours

Q2) Which of the following is the most important and most common complication of prosthetic heart valve implantation?

A) Hemolysis

B) Infective endocarditis

C) Thromboembolic complications

D) Structural deterioration of prostheses

E) Coronary heart disease

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12

Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22176

Sample Questions

Q1) Severe hemophilia develops in patients who have factor VIII reduced below

A) 1%

B) 5%

C) 10%

D) 20%

E) 25%

Q2) A 15-year-old boy developed generalized lymphadenopathy, accompanied by fever and malaise. A lymph node biopsy specimen showed that the architecture of the lymph nodes was erased and the nodes were infiltrated with moderately large lymphoid cells. There were numerous mitoses and apoptotic bodies. Between the B lymphocytes, there were phagocytic macrophages, imparting a "starry-sky" appearance to the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Follicular lymphoma

B) Large B-cell lymphoma

C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma

D) Burkitt lymphoma

E) Multiple myeloma

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

13

Chapter 12: Lung

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177

Sample Questions

Q1) The inhalation of which substance is the most common cause of "humidifier" or "air-conditioner" lung?

A) Thermophilic bacteria

B) Cotton fibers

C) Animal proteins

D) Plant proteins

E) Talc

Q2) Hyaline membranes in the alveoli of lungs affected by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are composed of

A) surfactant

B) eosinophils

C) fibrin

D) fungi

E) collagen

Q3) Which is the most prevalent chronic occupational lung disease found worldwide?

A) Complicated coal workers' pneumoconiosis

B) Asbestosis

C) Berylliosis

D) Silicosis

E) Stannosis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14

Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22178

Sample Questions

Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?

A) Diabetes mellitus

B) Multiple myeloma

C) Membranous nephropathy

D) Amyloidosis

E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection

Q2) The normal glomerular basement membrane is composed of which type of collagen?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

E) Type V

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

15

Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22179

Sample Questions

Q1) Crohn disease is most often diagnosed in which age group?

A) 5-10 years

B) 15-25 years

C) 40-50 years

D) 60-70 years

E) Older than 80 years

Q2) Which intestinal malabsorption syndrome is accompanied by a complete absence of chylomicrons, very-low-density lipoproteins, and low-density lipoproteins in plasma?

A) Crohn disease

B) Celiac sprue

C) Tropical sprue

D) Lactase deficiency

E) Abetalipoproteinemia

Q3) Esophageal diverticulum located above the upper esophageal sphincter is called

A) congenital diverticulum

B) postinflammatory diverticulum

C) traction diverticulum

D) epiphrenic diverticulum

E) Zenker diverticulum

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 16

Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22180

Sample Questions

Q1) Which genetic liver disease results from the mutation of multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) and is characterized by massive accumulation of pigmentary granules in hepatocytes and dark discoloration of the liver?

A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I

B) Gilbert disease

C) Dubin-Johnson disease

D) Rotor syndrome

E) Galactosemia

Q2) Peliosis hepatis is a form of primary hepatic sinusoidal dilatation and intrasinusoidal blood stagnation most often caused by

A) tetracycline

B) anabolic steroids

C) acetaminophen

D) methotrexate

E) Escherichia coli infection

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 16: Pancreas

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

4 Verified Questions

4 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22181

Sample Questions

Q1) A 65-year-old man complains of vague upper abdominal pain, weight loss, and loose fatty stools. Radiographs show visible calcifications within the pancreas. These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?

A) Ductal carcinoma of the pancreas

B) Acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas

C) Islet cell carcinoma

D) Chronic pancreatitis

E) Pancreatic pseudocyst

Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A) Alcohol

B) Thiazide diuretics

C) Viruses

D) Trauma

E) Vascular thrombosis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

18

Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22182

Sample Questions

Q1) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?

A) Alpha-fetoprotein

B) External iliac lymph nodes

C) Androstenedione

D) Estriol

E) Inhibin

Q2) Nephrotic syndrome related to minimal change disease, combined with acute renal failure related to acute interstitial nephritis, is a well-documented adverse reaction to which of the following drugs?

A) Methicillin

B) Ampicillin

C) Rifampin

D) Ibuprofen

E) Hydrochlorothiazide

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 19

Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22183

Sample Questions

Q1) Elevated 17-ketosteroid excretion, masculinization, and hirsutism are found in a woman who has a tumor of the ovary. The tumor is composed of polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and occasional Reinke crystals. Which of the following is the most likely classification of this tumor?

A) Thecoma

B) Granulosa cell tumor

C) Hilar tumor of the ovary

D) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

E) Brenner tumor

Q2) Which of the following genital lesions is associated with a greater than expected risk of carcinoma of the vulva?

A) Condyloma acuminatum

B) Condyloma latum

C) Lichen simplex chronicus

D) Lichen sclerosus

E) Papillary hydradenoma

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 19: Endocrine System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22184

Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?

A) Glucagon

B) Somatostatin

C) Insulin growth factor I

D) Cholecystokinin

E) Secretin

Q2) Calcifications of the basal ganglia are complications associated with parkinsonian-like movement disorders and calcification of the lens with cataract formation. These complications are most often associated with which of the following conditions?

A) Parathyroid adenoma

B) Secondary parathyroid hyperplasia

C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

D) Parathyroid carcinoma

E) Hypoparathyroidism

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22185

Sample Questions

Q1) Osteoid osteoma is a small benign bone tumor associated with pain that is disproportionate to the size of the lesion. This pain is caused by an excess of which of the following substances?

A) Interleukin (IL)-1 and IL-6

B) Leukotrienes

C) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>

D) Complement C<sub>3</sub>

E) Bradykinin

Q2) Loss of heterozygosity, structural rearrangements, or point mutations of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene (RB) are found in 60%-70% of all sporadic bone tumors. Which of the following is the best classification for this tumor?

A) Osteosarcoma

B) Osteoblastoma

C) Osteoid osteoma

D) Chondrosarcoma

E) Ewing sarcoma

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

1 Verified Questions

1 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22186

Sample Questions

Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction

B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction

C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction

D) T cell-mediated reaction

E) Graft-versus-host reaction

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 22: Central Nervous System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

4 Verified Questions

4 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22187

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the dominant protein component of neuritic plaques in the brain in Alzheimer disease?

A) Apoprotein

B) Tau protein

C) Neurofibrillin

D) Microtubules-associated protein 2 (MAP2)

E) A derived from amyloid precursor protein (APP)

Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?

A) Leg veins

B) Pulmonary veins

C) Heart

D) Aorta

E) Carotid arteries

Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?

A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid

B) Obstruction of the aqueduct

C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka

D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie

E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24

Chapter 23: Skin

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

4 Verified Questions

4 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22188

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?

A) Vitiligo

B) Lentigo

C) Ephelis

D) Congenital melanocytic nevus

E) Dysplastic nevus

Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?

A) Epidermal growth factor

B) G-protein signal transduction system

C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment

D) Ultraviolet light

E) Cosmic radiation

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

25

Turn static files into dynamic content formats.

Create a flipbook