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Nursing Research Exam Practice Tests - 307 Verified Questions

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Nursing Research Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

Nursing Research is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and methodologies of scientific inquiry within the nursing profession. The course covers key concepts such as research design, data collection and analysis, literature review, and ethical considerations in nursing research. Students will explore both quantitative and qualitative research techniques and learn how to critically evaluate existing studies to inform evidence-based practice. By the end of the course, participants will develop the skills necessary to contribute to the advancement of nursing knowledge and improve patient outcomes through research application.

Recommended Textbook

Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery

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18 Chapters

307 Verified Questions

307 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3775

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Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75308

Sample Questions

Q1) What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?

A)The cell undergoes cytokinesis.

B)Activity stops and the cell "sleeps."

C)All DNA is completely replicated.

D)Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.

Answer: C

Q2) What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers,structures,and banding patterns are normal?

A)Pedigree

B)Phenotype

C)Karyotype

D)Autosome

Answer: C

Q3) In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?

A)Nucleus

B)Mitochondrion

C)Cytoplasm

D)Plasma membrane

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75307

Sample Questions

Q1) A strand of recently transcribed messenger RNA contains the following components:

1)exon

2)intron

3)intron

4)exon

5)intron

Which sequence represents the mature messenger RNA?

A)1,4

B)2,3,5

C)2,3,4

D)1,2,3,4,5

Answer: A

Q2) Which feature or characteristic is most critical for protein function or activity?

A)The number of amino acids

B)The sequence of amino acids

C)Deletion of all active exons

D)Transcription occurring after translation

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell

Differentiation, and Gametogenesis

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75306

Sample Questions

Q1) What would be the expected response to a skin injury if the involved tissue had lost the normal cell characteristic of contact inhibition?

A)Failure of the wound to close

B)Excessive growth of replacement tissue

C)Replacement with scar tissue rather than skin

D)Displacement of skin cells into other body tissues

Answer: B

Q2) During which phase of gametogenesis is the process of crossing over more likely to occur for either spermatocytes or oocytes?

A)Metaphase I

B)Interphase I

C)Anaphase I

D)Prophase I

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75305

Sample Questions

Q1) If there are 10 possible alleles for the single gene trait of nose shape,how many alleles can a person with euploid chromosomes inherit from his or her biological parents?

A)1

B)2

C)4

D)5

Q2) Which person is an obligate carrier of an autosomal recessive single gene trait or disorder without expressing the trait or disorder?

A)The son of a man with classic hemophilia

B)The daughter of a woman with Marfan syndrome

C)The son of a man who expresses a widow's peak hairline

D)The daughter of a woman who expresses attached earlobes

Q3) A man whose parents both have brown hair claims that his red beard was inherited from his maternal uncle.Why is this claim incorrect?

A)The Y chromosome has no role in scalp,facial,or body hair color.

B)Genetic traits are transmitted in only a direct vertical direction.

C)Females cannot transmit facial hair color to their sons.

D)Hair color is a polygenic trait,not a single gene trait.

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Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which reproductive consequence is possible for a man who has a 13;15 Robertsonian translocation when his wife has a normal karyotype?

A)He is unlikely to ever impregnate his wife.

B)Because his wife has normal karyotype,there are no reproductive consequences.

C)He has an increased risk for having a child born with either trisomy 13 or trisomy 15.

D)He has an increased risk for having a child born with either monosomy 13 or monosomy 15.

Q2) Which process can cause a person with an XY genotype to have a female phenotype?

A)Pregnancy resulting from artificial insemination in which the semen donor is homosexual

B)Mating of a man who has Klinefelter syndrome with a woman who has Turner syndrome

C)An epigenetic disorder in which the X chromosome inactivates the Y chromosome

D)Failure of gene expression resulting in a complete absence of androgen receptors

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the significance of a pedigree symbol consisting of a square with a diagonal slash mark through it?

A)Affected female

B)Affected male

C)Deceased female

D)Deceased male

Q2) Which observations in a pedigree indicate a probable autosomal dominant (AD)trait transmission?

A)Affected males and females appear in every generation.

B)The pedigree shows only one affected individual.

C)The trait appears to "skip" generations.

D)Only males are affected.

Q3) How are Punnett Squares and pedigrees different?

A)Pedigrees represent genotypes and Punnett Squares represent phenotypes.

B)Punnett Squares represent genotypes and pedigrees represent phenotypes.

C)Pedigrees can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas Punnett Squares only suggest carrier status.

D)Punnett Squares can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas pedigrees only suggest carrier status.

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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which characteristic or feature distinguishes a major anomaly from a minor anomaly?

A)Major anomalies affect tissue structure,and minor anomalies affect tissue function.

B)Minor anomalies affect tissue structure,and major anomalies affect tissue function.

C)Minor anomalies occur in external tissues,and major anomalies occur in internal tissues.

D)Major anomalies require medical attention,whereas minor anomalies are considered a variation in structure.

Q2) What is the best description of a drug prescribed to control acne that also causes severe birth defects when it is taken during pregnancy?

A)Pleiotropic

B)Teratogenic

C)Carcinogenic

D)Geneticomimetic

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9

Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of Gaucher disease?

A)Ashkenazi Jews

B)Asian Americans

C)American Indians

D)Individuals of Mediterranean descent

Q2) What is the most common cause of death among individuals with vascular Ehlers-Danlos (Ehlers-Danlos type IV)?

A)Respiratory impairment from kyphosis

B)Skin cancer (melanoma)

C)Intestinal rupture

D)Liver failure

Q3) Which substance fails to form normally in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

A)Elastin

B)Glycogen

C)Collagen

D)Fibrillin

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Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the explanation for creatine kinase (CK)levels in a 14-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy being much lower now than they were 5 years ago?

A)His disease is improving.

B)He now performs passive rather than active exercise.

C)Most of the muscle tissue has already been destroyed.

D)The disease is probably Becker muscular dystrophy rather than Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Q2) A 21-year-old woman who has two brothers with Duchenne muscular dystrophy asks whether carrier status testing is appropriate for her.What is the best response?

A)"Testing could be beneficial because your risk for being a carrier is nearly 100%."

B)"Testing could be beneficial because your risk for being a carrier is approximately 50%.

C)"Testing is not necessary because you would have expressed some symptoms of the disease by this time if you were a carrier."

D)"Testing is not necessary because the spontaneous mutation rate for this genetic problem is high and likely to be why your brothers have the disease."

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11

Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is predictive testing for Huntington disease avoided for a 4-year-old child who has one grandparent with the disorder?

A)Unless one of the parents is positive for the gene mutation,a negative finding would be noninformative.

B)The Huntington disease mutation is poorly penetrant and may never be expressed even when inherited.

C)A 4-year-old child cannot understand or participate in the genetic counseling process.

D)There are no effective primary or secondary prevention strategies for this disorder.

Q2) Why are women usually older than men before symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis manifest?

A)Women have a counterbalancing normal gene on their second X chromosome.

B)Women lose some iron with normal menstruation during childbearing years.

C)Men have a larger muscle mass and more iron-storing capability than women.

D)Men have greater expression of the gene for hemoglobin than do women.

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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75298

Sample Questions

Q1) Which physical finding on a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?

A)Lipomas

B)Xanthomas

C)Osteoarthritis

D)Hemangiomas

Q2) What term is used to describe the gene-to-gene interaction in which the action of one gene modifies the expression of a different gene?

A)Epistasis

B)Heterogeneity

C)Genomic imprinting

D)Epigenetic penetrance

Q3) Why is determining the genetic contribution to the onset of stroke difficult?

A)Stroke classification and phenotype remain heterogeneous.

B)Comorbidities mask the symptoms and delay the diagnosis.

C)Environmental risk factors have equal contribution to the problem.

D)Often the person with a stroke cannot provide accurate family information.

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13

Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding general cancer development is true?

A)The risk for cancer development increases with age.

B)Cancers usually develop in tissues that are missing a nucleus.

C)Children of older mothers have a greater risk for cancer development.

D)Most mutations leading to cancer development occur in structural genes.

Q2) What percentage of common cancers appears to be hereditary?

A)1% to 3%

B)5% to 15%

C)20% to 25%

D)About 35%

Q3) Which type of body tissue has the highest risk for cancer development?

A)Bone tissue because its absorption of radiation is cumulative

B)Connective tissue that remains functional throughout life

C)Brain tissue because it does not respond well to injury

D)Any tissue that retains the ability to divide

Q4) What is thought to be the usual function of a normal BRCA1 gene?

A)Enhances overall cell growth during puberty

B)Directs the development of normal breast tissue

C)Increases the expression of cytochrome P450 enzymes

D)Suppresses the growth potential of a variety of oncogenes

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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75296

Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition or behavior suggests attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A)A 5-year-old who does not want to go to bed at 8:00 p.m.and begs to be allowed to stay up later.

B)An 8-year-old who can hop on one foot but cannot ride a bicycle without training wheels.

C)A 9-year-old who does not focus on a favorite story or game for longer than 3 minutes.

D)A 10-year-old who prefers to play basketball rather than chess.

Q2) What is meant by the phrase "behavioral genetics"?

A)Identification of the single gene that corresponds to a specific undesired behavior

B)An area of research aimed at controlling behavior by genetic manipulation

C)The study of the behavior of genes in diverse settings

D)The examination of gene variants that influence behaviors

Q3) What is the heritability estimate for schizophrenia in the general population?

A)40%

B)60%

C)80%

D)100%

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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75295

Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?

A)Immunohistochemistry

B)Direct DNA sequencing

C)Banded chromosomal analysis

D)Fluorescence in situ hybridization

Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)method of genetic testing?

A)Single nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.

B)Depending on the skill of the technician,the rate of false positives is high.

C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.

D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.

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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75294

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is identified as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6.What effect will this have on the patient's ability to benefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?

A)Intended responses increase while side effects decrease.

B)Intended responses decrease while side effects increase.

C)Both intended responses and side effects increase.

D)Both intended responses and side effects decrease.

Q2) What would be the patient's response to a normal drug dose that because of a genetic variation in an enzyme that prepares the drug for elimination results in a blood drug level that is below the minimum effective concentration (MEC)?

A)Drug entry exceeds drug elimination.

B)The risk for toxic side effects is increased.

C)The intended response fails to be produced.

D)The drug's duration of action is longer than expected.

Q3) Which organ has the greatest concentration of cytochrome P (CYP)450 enzymes?

A)Stomach

B)Kidney

C)Brain

D)Liver

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75293

Sample Questions

Q1) Julia (aged 32)is BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive,which is known to greatly increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer.She was tested because her mother,who had ovarian cancer,was BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive.Julia has decided to have both of her ovaries removed because she believes that,in her family,being BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive increases the risk for ovarian cancer only.How should a genetic counselor respond to Julia's statement?

A)Encourage her to consider a bilateral mastectomy.

B)Accept Julia's explanation as a manifestation of her autonomy and remain nondirective in the interactions with her.

C)Clarify that a BRCA<sub>1</sub> mutation does not preferentially express ovarian cancer over breast cancer in any given family.

D)Discuss Julia's responsibility to inform all the other female members of her family about her BRCA<sub>1</sub> status and cancer risk.

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18

Chapter

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient whose mother has Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing but is not sure whether she really wants to know if she has the mutation.She asks you what you would do if your mother had the disease.What is your best response?

A)"I would have the test so I could decide whether to have children or to use adoption."

B)"I can only tell you the benefits and the risks of testing,you must make this decision yourself."

C)"Because there is no cure for this disease and testing would not be beneficial,I would not have the test."

D)"You need to check with your brothers and sisters to determine whether testing for this disease would be appropriate for you."

Q2) What group(s)of people is/are specifically protected by the Genetic Information and Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?

A)Veterans and those in the active military

B)Employers trying to use genetic information to make hiring decisions

C)People receiving their health care through federally financed health services

D)People applying for health insurance who have had predictive genetic testing

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75291

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding genetic diversity is most accurate?

A)Larger genes are more likely to display diversity than small genes.

B)Genetic diversity is significant only when a population is isolated.

C)Genetic disorders are more common in populations that have greater genetic diversity.

D)Population bottlenecks result in loss of alleles that provide minimal selection advantage.

Q2) Which term refers to a random change in allele frequencies,not based on natural selection?

A)Population bottleneck

B)Genetic drift

C)Founder effect

D)Migration effect

Q3) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?

A)Mitochondrial DNA

B)Nuclear DNA

C)Ribosomal DNA

D)Histone proteins

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