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This course explores the foundational concepts of the nursing process as a systematic approach to patient care, emphasizing the integration of critical thinking skills in clinical decision-making. Students will learn to assess patient needs, develop and implement individualized care plans, and evaluate outcomes using evidence-based practices. Through case studies, simulations, and reflective exercises, the course fosters the development of analytical and problem-solving skills essential for effective communication, prioritization, and intervention in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook Concepts for Nursing Practice 2nd Edition by Giddens
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58 Chapters
459 Verified Questions
459 Flashcards
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2322
Q1) The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is used to assess for needs related to A) anticipatory guidance.
B) low-risk adolescents.
C) physical development.
D) sexual development.
Answer: A
Q2) The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and development would best describe growth as A) processes by which early cells specialize.
B) psychosocial and cognitive changes.
C) qualitative changes associated with aging.
D) quantitative changes in size or weight.
Answer: D
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2323
Sample Questions
Q1) Dresses self
A)for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
B)for basic activities of daily living (BADLs)
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's functional abilities and asks the patient, "How would you rate your ability to prepare a balanced meal?" "How would you rate your ability to balance a checkbook?" "How would you rate your ability to keep track of your appointments?" Which tool would be indicated for the best results of this patient's perception of their abilities?
A) Functional Activities Questionnaire (FAQ)
B) Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE)
C) 24hFAQ
D) Performance-based functional measurement
Answer: A
Q3) Balances the checkbook
A)for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
B)for basic activities of daily living (BADLs)
Answer: A
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4
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2324
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient would identify a need for additional interventions related to family dynamics when
A) extended family offers to help.
B) family members express concern.
C) the ill member demands attention.
D) memories are shared.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse planning to assess the structure of a family should ask which question?
A) "Who lives with you in this home?"
B) "Who does the grocery shopping?"
C) "Who provides support in your family?"
D) "How old are the members of your family?"
Answer: A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2325
Sample Questions
Q1) Women who are given the job of caretaker for aging relatives are subject to caregiver strain due to
A) feminine attributes.
B) unequal gender.
C) fixed gender roles.
D) female inequality.
Q2) Understanding cultural differences in health care is important because it will help the nurse to understand the manner in which people decide on obtaining treatments and medical care. In independent cultures an individual will
A) put himself first.
B) consult family members for advice.
C) ask for a second opinion.
D) travel great distances to receive the best care.
Q3) What interrelated constructs facilitate a nurse to become culturally competent?
A) Cultural diversity, self-awareness, cultural skill, and cultural knowledge
B) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural identity
C) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural diversity
D) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural skill
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that which life events can be spiritually life changing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Births
B) Weddings
C) Medical diagnoses
D) Career day to day job duties
E) Loss of independence
Q2) A patient uses rosary beads and attends mass once a week. This expression of spirituality is best described with which term?
A) Religiosity
B) Faith
C) Belief
D) Authenticity
Q3) When developing a plan of care, the nurse should consider which attribute of the Chapter of spirituality?
A) Spirituality is not a well-known universal concept
B) Chronic versus acute illnesses affect spirituality
C) Convincing patients to pray is a priority intervention
D) Referrals may be needed to spiritual counselors
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly diagnosed diabetic, and the patient's readiness to learn about glucose monitoring. Before planning teaching activities, which approach would be most effective?
A) Assist the patient with long-term goals and plan teaching according to these goals.
B) Provide the patient with all the latest research from the Internet on glucose monitoring.
C) Refer the patient to the diabetic specialist who can assist the patient with the glucometer.
D) Assist the patient in developing realistic short-term goals.
Q2) A 73-year-old male patient is seen in the home setting for a routine physical. The nurse notes which behavior as the most reassuring sign that the patient has been following the treatment plan for the diagnoses of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?
A) The patient has a list of glucose readings for the past 10 days.
B) The patient has a list of medications along with newly refilled meds.
C) The patient has a list of all foods and beverages for a 3-day period.
D) The patient verbalizes the side effects of all his medications.
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's readiness to be discharged and ability to manage care at home. What is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask to determine the patient's learning needs before planning teaching activities?
A) "What are your hobbies and occupation?"
B) "What do you need to know before you go home from the hospital?"
C) "Do you have any cultural or religious beliefs that you would like incorporated into your plan of care?"
D) "What were your grades and learning style when you were in school?"
Q2) The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which are the most appropriate teaching points to include that will assist in self-management of the disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Side effects of medications
B) Activity restrictions
C) Daily weights
D) Increased sodium intake
E) Blood pressure monitoring
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Q1) The nurse is admitting an older adult with decompensated congestive heart failure. The nursing assessment reveals adventitious lung sounds, dyspnea, and orthopnea. The nurse should question which doctor's order?
A) Intravenous (IV) 500 mL of 0.9% NaCl at 125 mL/hr
B) Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO now
C) Oxygen via face mask at 8 L/min
D) KCl 20 mEq PO two times per day
Q2) The patient with which diagnosis should have the highest priority for teaching regarding foods that are high in magnesium?
A) Severe hemorrhage
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Oliguric renal disease
D) Adrenal insufficiency
Q3) The nurse assessed four patients at the beginning of the shift. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the physician?
A) Swollen ankles in patient with compensated heart failure
B) Positive Chvostek's sign in patient with acute pancreatitis
C) Dry mucous membranes in patient taking a new diuretic
D) Constipation in patient who has advanced breast cancer
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7 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2330
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient had diarrhea for 5 days and developed an acid-base imbalance. Which statement would indicate that the nurse's teaching about the acid-base imbalance has been effective?
A) "To prevent another problem, I should eat less sodium during diarrhea."
B) "My blood became too acid because I lost some base in the diarrhea fluid."
C) "Diarrhea removes fluid from the body, so I should drink more ice water."
D) "I should try to slow my breathing so my acids and bases will be balanced."
Q2) The nurse has telephone messages from four patients who requested information and assistance. Which one should the nurse refer to a social worker or community agency first?
A) "Is there a place that I can dispose of my unused morphine pills?"
B) "I want to lose at least 20 pounds without getting sick this time."
C) "I think I have asthma because I cough when dogs are near."
D) "I ran out of money and am cutting my insulin dose in half."
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11
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Sample Questions
Q1) A volunteer at the senior center asks the visiting nurse why the senior citizens always seem to be complaining about the temperature. What is the nurse's best response?
A) Older people have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature because of active sweat glands.
B) Older people have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature because of increased circulation.
C) Older people have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature because of peripheral vasoconstriction.
D) Older people have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature because of slower metabolic rates.
Q2) The nursery nurse should identify which newborn at significant risk for hypothermic alteration in thermoregulation?
A) Large for gestational age
B) Low birth weight
C) Born at term
D) Well nourished
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Q1) The nurse must awaken a patient from Stage 4 non-rapid eye movement sleep in order to prepare the patient for a procedure. The patient is disoriented. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Notify the healthcare provider
B) Re-assess the patient's orientation
C) Administer an anti-anxiety medication
D) Cancel the patient's procedure
Q2) A mother tells the nurse she is concerned because her 8 month old infant sleeps all day and night and is only awake about 2-3 hours per day. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This sleep pattern is very normal for an infant at this age."
B) "Adding an additional feeding will keep the child awake more."
C) "I recommend that you notify the child's pediatrician."
D) "Be sure you are laying the child on his back to sleep at night."
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with tonsillar enlargement. What is the nurse's priority concern?
A) Low oxygen saturation
B) Daytime fatigue
C) Increased temperature
D) Antibiotic administration
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2333
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer?
A) Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older
B) Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach
C) Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up
D) Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over
Q2) A female patient complains of a "scab that just won't heal" under her left breast. During your conversation, she also mentions chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and slight cough, attributed to allergies. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns.
B) End the appointment and tell the patient to use skin protection during sun exposure.
C) Suggest further testing with a cancer specialist and provide the appropriate literature.
D) Tell her to put a bandage on the scab and set a follow-up appointment in one week.
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Q1) Which assessment finding would be the earliest and most sensitive indicator that there is an alteration in intracranial regulation?
A) Change in level of consciousness
B) Inability to focus visually
C) Loss of primitive reflexes
D) Unequal pupil size
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe?
A) Aligning the neck with the body
B) Clustering many nursing activities
C) Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees
D) Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered
Q3) Components of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) the nurse would use to assess a patient after a head injury include which assessment?
A) Blood pressure
B) Cranial nerve function
C) Head circumference
D) Verbal responsiveness
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which patient complaint is highest priority requiring further evaluation?
A) Pain at surgical site
B) Thirst
C) Hoarseness
D) Nausea
Q2) Which important teaching point should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with Cushing's disease?
A) Daily weight using same scale
B) Wash hands frequently
C) Use exfoliating soaps when bathing
D) Avoid yearly influenza vaccine
Q3) Following a parathyroidectomy, which electrolyte should the nurse most closely monitor?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse associates which assessment finding in the diabetic patient with decreasing renal function?
A) Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis
B) Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia
C) Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis
D) White blood cells in the urine during a random urinalysis
Q2) The nurse recognizes which patient as having the greatest risk for undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?
A) Young white man
B) Middle-aged African-American man
C) Young African-American woman
D) Middle-aged Native American woman
Q3) A diabetic patient is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The arterial pH is 7.28. Besides the blood pH, which clinical manifestation is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis?
A) Decreased hunger sensation
B) Report of no urine output
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Decreased thirst
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a patient with hypertension. What foods would be recommended for this patient?
A) Regular diet
B) Low sodium diet
C) Pureed diet
D) Low sugar diet
Q2) The home care nurse is assessing an older patient diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) in the home setting. Which information is of concern?
A) The patient's son uses a marked pillbox to set up the patient's medications weekly.
B) The patient has lost 10 pounds (4.5 kg) during the last month.
C) The patient is cared for by a daughter during the day and stays with a son at night.
D) The patient tells the nurse that a close friend recently died.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury and is concerned about the patient's elimination status. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Speak with the patient's family about food choices.
B) Establish a bowel and bladder program for the patient.
C) Speak with the patient about past elimination habits.
D) Establish a bedtime ritual for the patient.
Q2) During an assessment, the patient states that his bowel movements cause discomfort because the stool is hard and difficult to pass. As the nurse, you make which of the following suggestions to assist the patient with improving the quality of his bowel movement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase fiber intake.
B) Increase water consumption.
C) Decrease physical exercise.
D) Refrain from alcohol.
E) Refrain from smoking.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse how this disease could have happened to them. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Hypertension happens to everyone sooner or later. Don't be concerned about it."
B) "Hypertension can happen from eating a poor diet, so change what you are eating."
C) "Hypertension can happen from arterial changes that block the blood flow."
D) "Hypertension happens when people do not exercise, so you should walk every day."
Q2) A nurse is explaining to a student nurse about perfusion. The nurse knows the student understands the Chapter of perfusion when the student makes which statement?
A) "Perfusion is a normal function of the body, and I don't have to be concerned about it."
B) "Perfusion is monitored by the physician."
C) "Perfusion is monitored by vital signs and capillary refill."
D) "Perfusion varies as a person ages, so I would expect changes in the body."
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Q1) The acid-base status of a patient is dependent on normal gas exchange. Which patient would the nurse identify as having an increased risk for the development of respiratory acidosis?
A) Chronic lung disease with increased carbon dioxide retention
B) Acute anxiety, hyperventilation, and decreased carbon dioxide retention
C) Decreased cardiac output with increased serum lactic acid production
D) Gastric drainage with increased removal of gastric acid
Q2) Which clinical management prevention Chapter would the nurse identify as representative of secondary prevention?
A) Decreasing venous stasis and risk for pulmonary emboli
B) Implementation of strict hand washing routines
C) Maintaining current vaccination schedules
D) Prevention of pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease
Q3) The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient finding would the nurse identify as a factor leading to increased risk for impaired gas exchange?
A) Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
B) Anticoagulant therapy for 10 days
C) Hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL
D) Heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would anticipate that which of the following patient conditions will be treated with the collaborative treatment of regular phlebotomies?
A) Hemophilia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Eosinophilia
D) Polycythemia
Q2) A patient on a medical surgical unit has a platelet count of 90,000 per mm³. The nurse knows to include which of the following precautions in discharge instructions?
A) Use a standard safety razor for shaving.
B) Use a soft bristle toothbrush.
C) Have aggressive dental care immediately to prevent dental caries.
D) Do not eat fresh fruit.
Q3) Which nursing observation would indicate that the nurse hold the medication warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) An INR (international normalize ratio) of 1.8
B) An INR of 4.8
C) A partial thromboplastin time (APTT) level of 25 seconds
D) An APTT level of 35 seconds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency department nursing assessment of a pregnant female at 35 weeks gestation reveals back pain, blood pressure 150/92, and leaking of clear fluid from the vagina. Which complication of pregnancy does the nurse suspect?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Spontaneous abortion
C) Premature rupture of membranes
D) Supine hypotension
Q2) The nurse at the family planning clinic conducts a male history for infertility evaluation. Which finding has the greatest implication for this patient's care?
A) Practice of nightly masturbation
B) Primary anovulation
C) High testosterone levels
D) Impotence due to alcohol ingestion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to fully assess the patient and plan appropriate care including health teaching regarding sexuality the nurse should realize that which patient is most at risk for sexual abuse?
A) A recently divorced 50-year-old woman
B) A Hispanic teenage girl
C) A 30-year-old African-American male
D) An individual with intellectual or developmental disabilities
Q2) When assessing high-risk behaviors, which question specifically identifies a blood-related risk for a sexually transmitted infection?
A) "Have you ever received donor semen, eggs, or transplanted tissue?"
B) "Have you ever exchanged sex for drugs, money, or shelter?"
C) "How do you protect yourself from HIV and sexually transmitted infections?"
D) "Have you ever injected drugs using shared equipment?"
Q3) A 37-year-old heterosexual African-American man has come for his annual health screening. Which test must the nurse ensure is ordered for this patient?
A) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
B) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
C) HIV
D) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who was started on intravenous antibiotic therapy earlier in the shift. As the second dose is being infused, the patient reports feeling dizzy and having difficulty breathing and talking. The nurse notes that the patient's respirations are 26 breaths/min with a weak pulse of 112 beats/min. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Suppressed immune response
B) Hyperimmune response
C) Allergic reaction
D) Anaphylactic reaction
Q2) The parents of a newborn question the nurse about the need for vaccinations: "Why does our baby need all those shots? He's so small, and they have to cause him pain." The nurse can explain to the parents that which of the following are true about vaccinations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Are only required for infants
B) Are part of primary prevention for system disorders
C) Prevent the child from getting childhood diseases
D) Help protect individuals and communities
E) Are risk free
F) Are recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses the patient and notes all of the following. Select all of the findings that indicate the systemic manifestations of inflammation.
A) Oral temperature 38.6° C/101.5° F
B) Thick, green nasal discharge
C) Patient complaint of pain at 6 on a 0 to 10 scale on palpation of frontal and maxillary sinuses
D) WBC 20 cells/McL \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) Patient reports, "I'm tired all the time. I haven't felt like myself in days."
Q2) On admission to the clinic, the nurse notes a moderate amount of serous exudate leaking from the patient's wound. The nurse realizes what information about this fluid?
A) Contains the materials used by the body in the initial inflammatory response.
B) Indicates that the patient has an infection at the site of the wound.
C) Is destroying healthy tissue.
D) Results from ineffective cleansing of the wound area.
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of business people about disease transmission. He knows that he needs to reeducate when one of the participants states which of the following?
A) "When traveling outside of the country, I need to be sure that I receive appropriate vaccinations."
B) "Food and water supplies in foreign countries can contain microorganisms to which my body is not accustomed and has no resistance."
C) "If I don't feel sick, then I don't have to worry about transmitted diseases."
D) "I need to be sure to have good hygiene practices when traveling in crowded planes and trains."
Q2) While reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient on her unit, the nurse notes elevated basophil and eosinophil readings. The nurse realizes that this is most indicative of which type of infection?
A) Bacterial
B) Fungal
C) Parasitic
D) Viral
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Q1) The nurse is talking to the unlicensed assistive personnel about moving a patient in bed. The nurse knows the unlicensed assistive personnel understands the Chapter of mobility and proper moving techniques when making which statement?
A) "Patients must have a trapeze over the bed to move properly."
B) "Patients should move themselves in bed to prevent immobility."
C) "Patients should always have a two-person assist to move in bed."
D) "Patients must be moved correctly in bed to prevent shearing."
Q2) Mobility for the patient changes throughout the life span. What is the term that best describes this process?
A) Aging and illness
B) Illness and disease
C) Health and wellness
D) Growth and development
Q3) The lack of weight bearing leads to what effects on the skeletal system?
A) Demineralization, calcium loss
B) Thickened bones
C) Increased range of motion
D) Increased calcium deposition in the bones
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Q1) To help decrease the threat of a melanoma in a blonde-haired, fair-skinned patient at risk, the nurse would advise the patient to do which of the following?
A) Apply sunscreen 1 hour prior to exposure.
B) Drink plenty of water to prevent hot skin.
C) Use vitamins to help prevent sunburn by replacing lost nutrients.
D) Apply sunscreen 30 minutes prior to exposure.
Q2) An older patient has developed age spots and is concerned about skin cancer. How would the nurse instruct the patient to perform skin checks to assess for signs of skin cancer?
A) "Limit the time you spend in the sun."
B) "Monitor for signs of infection."
C) "Monitor spots for color change."
D) "Use skin creams to prevent drying."
Q3) A patient is to receive phototherapy for the treatment of psoriasis. What is the nursing priority for this patient?
A) Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC)
B) Protection from excessive heat
C) Protection from excessive ultraviolet (UV) exposure
D) Instructing the patient to take their multivitamin prior to treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is examining the eyes of a newborn infant. If the nurse notes the absence of the red reflex, what is the next best action?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Document the finding in the records.
C) Recheck the reflex after several hours.
D) Monitor the eye movements and pupil reactions closely.
Q2) During the examination of the ear, a dark yellow substance is noted in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is not visible. The patient's wife complains that he never hears what she says lately. These findings would suggest that the nurse prepare the patient for which procedure?
A) Tympanoplasty
B) Irrigation of the ear
C) Pure tone test
D) Otoscopic exam by a specialist
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Q1) A 30-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. He is in acute pain described as a 10/10, which is localized to the abdomen, periumbilical area, and some radiation to his back. The abdomen is grossly distended so it is difficult to assess. He is restless and agitated, with elevated pulse and blood pressure. An appropriate pain management plan of care may include which medication(s)?
A) IV Dilaudid q 4 hours prn, hydrocodone 5/500 PO q 6 hours prn, and acetaminophen
B) Norco 5/500 q 4 hours PO and Benadryl 25 mg PO q 6 hours
C) Phenergan 25 mg IM q 6 hours
D) Tylenol 325 mg q 6 hours
Q2) An 80-year-old male patient is in the intensive care unit has suffered a fractured femur. You are making rounds and notice he is somnolent, with no response to verbal or physical stimulation. He has been on round the clock opioid doses q 4 hours. What is the nurse's first action?
A) Call the rapid response team to care for the patient immediately.
B) Discontinue the opioids on the medication administration record.
C) Assess the patient's blood pressure and pain level.
D) Start a second intravenous line with a large bore catheter.
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Q1) The nurse palpates swollen nodes in a patient's neck who presented to the clinic with complaints of fatigue lasting at least 2 weeks. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Advise patient this finding is normal.
B) Review patient's thyroid labwork.
C) Perform deep tendon reflexes.
D) Notify the healthcare provider.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for risk factors of chronic fatigue syndrome. Which factors should the nurse identify as placing the patient at risk for chronic fatigue syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Feeling tired upon awakening
B) Chronic migraines
C) Tenderness under the jaw
D) 5 episodes tonsillitis/past year
E) Swollen, painful knees
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Q1) The nurse is working with a patient who recently lost her spouse after a lengthy illness. The patient shares that she would like to sell her home and move to another state now that her spouse has passed away. Which of the following interventions would be considered a priority for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Notify the provider to evaluate for antidepressant therapy.
B) Suggest that the patient consider a support group for widows.
C) Suggest that the patient learn stress reduction breathing exercises.
D) Suggest that the patient take prescribed antianxiety medications.
E) Assist the patient in identifying support systems.
F) Notify the provider to evaluate the need for antianxiety medications.
Q2) A patient who was recently diagnosed with diabetes is having trouble concentrating. This patient is usually very organized and laid back. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Ask the health care provider for a psychiatric referral.
B) Administer the PRN sedative medication every 4 hours.
C) Suggest the use of a home caregiver to the patient's family.
D) Plan to reinforce and repeat teaching about diabetes management.
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Q1) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with ineffective coping skills. Which intervention would be an example of a problem-focused coping strategy?
A) Scheduling a regular exercise program
B) Attending a seminar on treatment options
C) Identifying a confidant to share feelings
D) Attending a support group for families
Q2) A patient is the primary caregiver for a disabled family member at home, and has now been unexpectedly hospitalized for surgery. What action can the nurse take to enhance the coping ability of the patient?
A) Ask if there is another family member who can help at home while the patient is in the hospital.
B) Plan to transfer the patient to a rehabilitation unit after surgery to allow uninterrupted time to recover.
C) Coordinate an ambulance transfer of the family member to an alternate family member's home.
D) Ask social services to assess what the patient's needs will be after discharge to home.
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Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with depression is scheduled for cognitive therapy in addition to receiving prescribed antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the goal of cognitive therapy will be met when what is reported by the patient?
A) "I will tell myself that I am a good person when things don't go well at work."
B) "My medications will make my problems go away."
C) "My family will help take care of my children while I am in the hospital."
D) "This therapy will improve my response to neurotransmitter impulses."
Q2) A nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which nursing diagnoses address priority needs for the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for caregiver strain
B) Impaired verbal communication
C) Risk for injury
D) Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements
E) Ineffective coping
F) Sleep deprivation
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Q1) A patient is newly diagnosed with anxiety and placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). The nurse is developing the plan of care for this patient. How long will it take for this medication to become effective?
A) The medication will become effective immediately.
B) The medication may take up to 12 weeks to become effective.
C) The medication may take up to 6 weeks to become effective.
D) The medication may take up to 4 weeks to become effective.
Q2) A patient reports that he is overwhelmed with anxiety. Which question would be most important to use in assessing the patient during your first meeting?
A) "What kinds of things do you do to reduce or cope with your stress?"
B) "Tell me about your family history-do any relatives have problems with stress?"
C) "Tell me about exercise-how far do you typically run when you go jogging?"
D) "Stress can interfere with sleep. How much did you sleep last night?"
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Q1) An 82-year-old patient who is in the hospital awakens from sleep and is disoriented to where she is at the present time. The nurse reorients the patient to her surroundings and helps the patient return to sleep. What data does the nurse consider as a probable cause of the patient's confusion?
A) Pain medication received earlier in the night
B) The death of the patient's spouse 2 years ago
C) The patient's history of diabetes
D) The age of the patient
Q2) The nurse is teaching primary prevention of cognitive impairment at a community health fair. Which topics would be included in the presentation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Do not use substances such as cannabis and alcohol.
B) Wear helmets when riding bicycles and motorcycles.
C) Complete a Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) yearly.
D) Correct acid-base imbalances related to underlying disease processes.
E) Wear a seat belt whenever riding in a motorized vehicle.
F) Complete a Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) scale yearly.
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Q1) A client with schizophrenia has relapsed and has been identified as being in stage four of relapse. The nurse expects to observe which behavior that most consistent with this stage of relapse?
A) Expressing feelings of anxiety
B) Expressing feelings of being overwhelmed
C) Bizarre behaviors and speech
D) Presence of hallucinations
Q2) In discussing disease prevention with a 15-year-old boy and his mother, the nurse identifies which of the following as risk factors for psychosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Father diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia
B) Rural residence
C) Recent immigration from Ecuador
D) Occasional cannabis use
E) January birth date
F) Physical abuse by the father
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Q1) A patient who was admitted 24 hours ago has become increasingly irritable and now says there are bugs on his bed. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Alcohol-induced psychosis
B) Delirium tremens (DTs)
C) Neurologic injury related to a fall
D) Posttraumatic stress reaction
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. What is the highest priority for this patient?
A) Describe how the alcohol is causing the withdrawal effects.
B) Leave the patient by him/herself so as not to cause agitation.
C) Promote a safe, calm, and comfortable environment.
D) Refer the patient to an alcohol-abuse counselor.
Q3) To prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy from heavy alcohol use, the nurse anticipates an order for which medications?
A) Benzodiazepine
B) Thiamine and B complex
C) Vitamins C and D<sub>3</sub>
D) Klonopin
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department who has been a victim of intimate partner violence. What is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A) Medication to calm the perpetrator of the violence
B) A list of community resources
C) A referral for self-defense training
D) A referral to the victim's religious advisor
Q2) The nurse is admitting a child with a history of abuse. The nurse understands that the child may exhibit what behaviors that are consequences of being in an abusive environment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reliving abuse incidents
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Overeating
D) Acting out behaviors
E) Intermittent fever
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Q1) A new registered nurse asks the registered nurse (RN) preceptor what could be done to become more professional. What is the preceptor's best response?
A) "Attend nursing educational meetings."
B) "Listen to other nurses."
C) "Read the agency newsletter."
D) "Pass the licensing exam."
Q2) The qualities of leadership, clinical expertise and judgment, mentorship, and lifelong learning would best describe which type of nurse?
A) Administrator
B) Certified nurse specialist
C) Practitioner
D) Professional
Q3) The American Nurses' Association (ANA) outlines expectations of the nursing profession in which type of documentation?
A) Gallup poll
B) Goldman report
C) Social Policy Statement
D) Social identity theory
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Q1) A nurse has committed a serious medication error and has reported the error to the hospital's adverse medication error hotline as well as to the unit manager. The manager is a firm believer in developing critical thinking skills. From this standpoint, what action by the manager would best nurture this ability in the nurse who made the error?
A) Have the nurse present an in-service related to the cause of the error.
B) Instruct the nurse to write a paper on how to avoid this type of error.
C) Let the nurse work with more experienced nurses when giving medications.
D) Send the nurse to refresher courses on medication administration.
Q2) A home care nurse receives a physician order for a medication that the patient does not want to take because the patient has a history of side effects from this medication. The nurse carefully listens to the patient, considers it in light of the patient's condition, questions its appropriateness, and examines alternative treatments. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Call the physician, explain rationale, and suggest a different medication.
B) Consult an experienced nurse on whether there are other similar treatments.
C) Hold the drug until the physician returns to the unit and can be questioned.
D) Question other staff as to the physician's acceptance of nursing input.
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Q1) The hospital must reduce the number of readmissions from 11% to 8% in the next year. Which of the following best represents the transformational leadership style in accomplishing this goal?
A) The director communicates the goal of reducing readmissions to the hospital operations team and tells them to submit their action plan by the end of the week.
B) The organization charters three work teams to identify solutions for the top three causes for readmissions. These teams are given full authority to implement their solution.
C) The director of quality develops a vision statement and action plan to achieve the goal. The director works directly with the involved departments to implement the action plan.
D) The CEO communicates the goal to the organizational directors and managers and states that they are entrusted to solve the problem.
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Q1) The nurse is faced with an ethical issue. When assessing the ethical issue, which action should the nurse perform first?
A) Ask, "What is the issue?"
B) Identify all possible alternatives.
C) Select the best option from a list of alternatives.
D) Justify the choice of action or inaction.
Q2) A drug-addicted nurse switches a patient's morphine injection with normal saline so that the nurse can use the morphine. The nurse is violating which principles of ethics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Autonomy
B) Utilitarianism
C) Beneficence
D) Dilemmas
E) Veracity
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Q1) Barriers to patient education the nurse considers in implementing a teaching plan include which factor?
A) Family resources
B) High school education
C) Hunger and pain
D) Need perceived by patient
Q2) The nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching when the student lists which example as a type of learning?
A) Affective
B) Cognitive
C) Psychomotor
D) Self-directed
Q3) What is the most appropriate resource to include when planning to provide patient education related to a goal in the psychomotor domain?
A) Diagnosis-related support groups
B) Internet resources
C) Manikin practice sessions
D) Self-directed learning modules
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Q1) At the well-child clinic, how does the nurse correctly teach a mother about health promotion activities and describe immunizations?
A) Unique for children
B) Primary prevention
C) Secondary prevention
D) Tertiary prevention
Q2) When teaching a patient with a family history of hypertension about health promotion, the nurse describes blood pressure screening as which type of prevention?
A) Illness
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Tertiary
Q3) Which tertiary prevention measure should be included in the health promotion plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes?
A) Avoiding carcinogens
B) Foot screening techniques
C) Glaucoma screening
D) Seat belt use
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Q1) A patient states, "I had a bad nightmare. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response by the nurse would be an example of interpersonal therapeutic communication?
A) "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream."
B) "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too."
C) "So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor night's sleep?"
D) "Can you give me an example of what you mean by a 'bad nightmare'?"
Q2) A nurse is conducting a therapeutic session with a patient in the inpatient psychiatric facility. Which remark by the nurse would be an appropriate way to begin an interview session?
A) "How shall we start today?"
B) "Shall we talk about losing your privileges yesterday?"
C) "Let's get started discussing your marital relationship."
D) "What happened when your family visited yesterday?"
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a progressive, degenerative muscle illness. The patient states that she would like to remain in her home with her daughter as long as possible. What action should the nurse take?
A) Teach the patient muscle strengthening and stretching exercises.
B) Tell the patient to make plans to move to an assisted-living facility.
C) Discuss resources to help the patient and make appropriate referrals.
D) Ask the patient to come in for daily physical therapy.
Q2) The nurse is presenting an in-service on the importance of collaborative communication. The nurse includes which critical event identified by the Joint Commission as an outcome of poor communication among health care team members?
A) The occurrence of a patient event resulting in death or serious injury
B) Decreased ability to document expenses of care provided
C) Longer time to begin surgical cases
D) Increased time to discharge patients to outpatient care
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Q1) Aspects of safety culture that contribute to a culture of safety in a health care organization include which component?
A) Communication
B) Fear of punishment
C) Malpractice implications
D) Team nursing
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to a bee sting who has an order for diphenhydramine (BenaDRYL). The only medication in the patient's medication bin is labeled BenaZEPRIL. The nurse contacts the pharmacy for the correct medication to avoid what type of error?
A) Communication
B) Diagnostic
C) Preventive
D) Treatment
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Q1) The application of information processing that deals with the storage, retrieval sharing, and use of health care data, information, and knowledge for communication and decision making is the definition of which area?
A) Computer science
B) Health informatics
C) Health information technology
D) Nursing informatics
Q2) The nurse manager of a medical/surgical unit wants to increase the use of health care technology on the unit and is working with an ANA-certified informatics nurse to reduce which barriers to health information exchange?
A) Basic informatics knowledge and skills
B) Offering the best set of tools
C) Privacy and security policies
D) Unit-specific terminology
Q3) Which are exemplars of the health informatics Chapter?
A) Clinical research informatics
B) Hardware and software
C) Privacy and security
D) Standard terminology
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Q1) The nurse administrator is doing a study that entails gathering data about new employees over a 10-year period. Which research method would be the best one to use for this type of study?
A) Quantitative longitude cohort
B) Qualitative longitudinal
C) Qualitative interview
D) Qualitative case study
Q2) One of the first nurse researchers to document evidence-based practice for nursing was Florence Nightingale. What did Nightingale incorporate into her practice that made her practice different from her colleagues?
A) Nightingale gathered scientific data.
B) Nightingale calculated statistics to report her findings.
C) Nightingale communicated her findings to powerful others.
D) Nightingale based her nursing practice on her findings.
Q3) How does the Iowa model transcend mere nursing care? (Select all that apply.)
A) It includes formalized internal feedback loops.
B) Its triggers can have their origins practically anywhere.
C) It generates change in practice solely through research.
D) It implies a layer of policy development.
E) It addresses multiple disciplines' impacts on quality.
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Q1) A student nurse and clinical instructor are discussing quality in health care. The instructor knows the student understands when the student makes which statement?
A) "Quality is apparent in all health care."
B) "Quality is an outcome of health care."
C) "Quality is seen and unseen in health care."
D) "Quality is achieved by collaboration in health care."
Q2) The focus of quality health care should be on which of the following items? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excellent services
B) Comprehensive communication
C) Private hospital rooms
D) Health team collaboration
E) Culturally competent care
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the patient's perception of his or her care?
A) Patent perception is just as important as the outcome of care.
B) Patient perception is insignificant compared to the outcome of care.
C) Patient satisfaction has no relation to quality of care.
D) Patient satisfaction is insignificant compared to the outcome of care.
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Q1) Care coordination models should be adopted in health care facilities. If models are not put into practice, the shortcomings of the health care system may display which of the following items? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decrease in patients
B) Fragmented services
C) Low birth weight newborns
D) Cost inefficiencies
E) Poor health outcomes
F) Increased pharmacy costs
Q2) Medical models coordinate medical services and were traditionally designed fulfill which function?
A) Be patient specific.
B) Be nursing oriented.
C) Be diagnosis specific.
D) Be community oriented.
Q3) For children and teens, which model includes school-based services?
A) Social
B) Integrated
C) Medically-Oriented
D) Nurse-Oriented
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Q1) A mother is talking with the community-based nurse concerning her adult son. The son is mentally challenged and not able to live on his own. The mother is concerned about her son's welfare when she is no longer able to care for him. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Let's look into the community resources that are available to assist you."
B) "You have raised your son well, and he will be okay on his own."
C) "Contact your distant relatives to see if anyone would take your son."
D) "There are places for mentally challenged adults; let's place him there."
Q2) The community health nurse is assessing a family who has a chronically ill child. The child needs special care, and the nurse has to coordinate the care for the home setting. What behavior will the nurse assess for to know that the family can care for the child?
A) The family is willing to learn about the care and share the caregiving needs.
B) The mother is going to care for the child and the family herself.
C) The older siblings are going to care for the child while the parents are at work.
D) An outside agency will be coming to the home three times a week to give care.
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Q1) The student demonstrates a lack of understanding of palliative care when making which statement?
A) "Palliative care is designed to promote comfort."
B) "Palliative care is designed to reduce disease exacerbations."
C) "Palliative care is designed to decrease acute care hospital admissions."
D) "Palliative care is designed to promote a cure for chronic disease."
Q2) Which is one of the biggest challenges facing current nursing practice?
A) The number of aging Americans living with chronic disease.
B) The number of patients entering into hospice programs.
C) The number of cancer patients receiving supportive care.
D) Reduced length of stay in hospice care.
Q3) The interprofessional core team includes members from which disciplines?
A) Nursing, medicine, volunteers, and nutrition
B) Medicine, nursing, social work, and clergy
C) Medicine, nursing, physical therapists, and volunteers
D) Nursing, home health aides, volunteers, and clergy
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Q1) The nurse in the immunization clinic should place emphasis on educating and reaching which groups about the disease preventing effects of immunizations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caucasian
B) African American
C) Low income
D) Middle income
E) High income
Q2) Which is the best strategy the nurse manager should include when working to reduce health care disparities on a medical-surgical unit?
A) Less diverse workforce
B) Increase interpreter availability
C) Authoritarian leadership
D) Annual staff training
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Q1) A nurse is interviewing at an agency owned by a national religious organization that serves homeless and uninsured patients. A large poster display shows a proposed addition that would add 16 beds to the facility that will be funded from profits of the previous 3 years of operation. The nurse recognizes that the agency is most likely what type of agency?
A) For-profit
B) Not-for-profit
C) Publicly-owned
D) Investor-owned
Q2) A nurse manager recognizes that systems theory identifies that there is a social component within an organization that affects the overall functioning of the system. What indicator would demonstrate to the nurse manager that the social needs of an organization are being met?
A) Most employees from the organization attend an annual holiday celebration.
B) Separate eating areas for each discipline are set up in the cafeteria.
C) Nurse managers are planning to move to a centralized area away from the care units.
D) The summer softball teams are canceled due to lack of interest.
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Q1) A student nurse is discussing Medicare coverage with the clinical instructor. The instructor knows the student understands Medicare when the student makes this which statement(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medicare covers all patients while they are in the hospital.
B) Medicare is funded by the federal government.
C) Medicare is for persons 65 years old and older.
D) Medicare is partially funded by private third-party payers.
E) Medicare is for patients who are disabled and/or have end-stage renal disease.
Q2) What do the economics of health care include?
A) Medicare and Medicaid dollars
B) Patients' rights
C) Equal distribution of health care
D) Nurse salaries
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about health care in the US?
A) The US spends more money on health care than any other nation.
B) The US provides health care to every citizen.
C) The US relies on government funding to treat most citizens.
D) The US spends less money on pediatric care than other nations.
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Q1) Which of the following is the intent of HIPAA?
A) Release of patient information for purposes of insurance reimbursement.
B) Prevent health care providers from billing for procedures done for the insured person.
C) Protect patients from reviewing their own medical records.
D) Limit the ability of health care providers to sell patient information to outside sources.
Q2) Nurses can be health advocates in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)
A) Supporting their professional nursing organization when discussing upcoming legislation
B) Discussing the upcoming classes with a neighbor
C) Rallying for coverage for childhood immunizations
D) Arranging for a patient to meet with case management for home health care
E) Discussing a patient they are concerned about with a fellow student in the public cafeteria
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Q1) Which of the following is true about health care legislation?
A) The US Constitution addresses health care law specifically to give the federal government the ability to license professionals and institutions.
B) The power of the US Constitution does not have a direct relationship to health care and reserves most of the power to the states.
C) State laws are considered the highest source of health care law and trump the federal laws.
D) The federal government asserts its power over health care legislation through the US Constitution.
Q2) The admission personnel working to comply with the Patient Self Determination Act of 1991 would do which of the following?
A) Request identification from the patient to complete the registration process.
B) Ask the patient if they would like a private or semi-private room.
C) Inquire about the patient's reason for their visit.
D) Ask the patient or representative if the patient has an advanced directive and inform them of their right to participate in their medical decisions.
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