Nursing Practice
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Nursing Practice is a foundational course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge, skills, and attitudes necessary for professional nursing. The course emphasizes the development of clinical competencies through theoretical instruction and hands-on experiences in various healthcare settings. Students will learn about patient-centered care, evidence-based practice, ethical and legal considerations, communication, critical thinking, and interprofessional collaboration. Through simulation exercises and supervised clinical placements, learners will apply the nursing process to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate care for diverse patient populations across the lifespan. Successful completion prepares students for safe, effective entry-level nursing roles and further specialized study.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition by Cooper
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763 Verified Questions
763 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
Answer: coronal
The coronal plane divides the body into ventral and dorsal (front and back)sections.
Q2) The nurse explains that pinocytosis is a process by which cells: A) divide.
B) take in extracellular fluid.
C) use a chemical pump.
D) convert mitochondria.
Answer: B
Q3) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which situation might surgery be delayed?
A) The patient has taken Dilantin today.
B) An illegible signature is on the consent form..
C) The patient is still taking anticoagulants.
D) The admission office is unable to confirm insurance coverage.
Answer: C
Q2) When the postoperative patient complains of sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea,cyanosis,and tachycardia,the nurse recognizes the signs of:
A) hypovolemic shock.
B) dehiscence.
C) atelectasis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the responsibility of the nurse as a witness to informed consent?
A) Explain the surgical options
B) Explain the operative risks
C) Verify/obtain the patient's signature
D) Verify the patient's understanding of the procedure
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan relative to the management of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Maintain a balance between rest and activity
B) Increase activity to promote mobility
C) Increase exposure to the sun to increase vitamin D absorption
D) Increase sodium consumption
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse has staged a pressure ulcer that has a shallow crater with a dry pink wound bed as a:
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Answer: B
Q3) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Answer: melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a cancerous neoplasm that invades the epidermis,dermis,and sometimes the subcutaneous tissue.
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Chapter 4: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient,age 68,has suffered an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip.Before surgery,to provide support and comfort,an immobilizing device of a ______ is applied.
A) Thomas splint
B) Bryant traction
C) Russell traction
D) Buck traction
Q2) What are the three vital functions muscles perform when they contract? (Select all that apply. )
A) Absorb uric acid
B) Maintenance of posture
C) Motion
D) Store minerals
E) Production of heat
F) To assist in return of venous blood to the left side of the heart
Q3) Which finding would delay a computed tomography (CT)scan?
A) Patient's allergy to shellfish
B) Patient in first trimester of a pregnancy
C) Patient's allergy to milk products
D) Patient's gluten intolerance
6
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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient with a peptic ulcer who has had a nasogastric tube inserted notes bright blood in the tube;the patient complains of pain and has become hypotensive.Which condition should the nurse recognize these as signs of?
A) Hiatal hernia
B) Gastritis
C) Perforation
D) Bowel obstruction
Q2) Dumping syndrome after a Billroth II procedure occurs when high-carbohydrate foods are ingested over a period of less than 20 minutes.What would the nurse suggest to reduce the risk of dumping syndrome?
A) Eating a high-carbohydrate diet
B) Drinking 10 oz of fluids with meals
C) Remaining upright for 2 hours after meals
D) Eating six small daily meals high in protein and fat
Q3) The nurse explains that ___________,the chief enzyme of gastric juice,is activated by hydrochloric acid to begin digestion of protein.
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
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Chapter 6: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that the liver synthesizes products essential to health.Which products are synthesized by the liver? (Select all that apply. )
A) Intrinsic factor
B) Protein
C) Vitamin K
D) Red blood cells
E) Albumin
Q2) The nurse is aware that an elevated serum amylase is diagnostic of pancreatitis at an early stage as an elevation can be assessed as early as _____ after the onset of pancreatic disease.
A) 2 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 36 hours
Q3) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue,frequently becoming an abscess.
Q4) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
Q5) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an adult,where are erythrocytes continuously produced?
A) Yellow bone marrow
B) Lymphatic system
C) Spleen
D) Red bone marrow
Q2) Outline the sequence of the process that stimulates the increase in the production of red blood cells.(Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A,B,C,D)
A) Kidneys release erythropoietic factor
B) Increase in red blood cell production
C) Enzyme stimulates red bone marrow
D) Oxygen delivery increased to the tissues
E) Oxygen delivery decreased to the tissues
F) Decrease in red blood cell production
Q3) Approximately how much blood is stored in the spleen that can be released in a hypovolemic emergency?
A) 100 mL
B) 300 mL
C) 500 mL
D) 1000 mL
9
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Chapter 8: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postsurgical patient has a painful and swollen right calf that appears to be larger than the calf of the left leg.What is the nurse assessing for when she flexes the patient's right leg and dorsiflexes the foot?
A) Pain,which would be a positive Homans sign
B) Muscular spasm,which would be a sign of hypocalcemia
C) Rigidity,which would be a sign of ankylosis
D) Crepitus,which would be a sign of a joint disorder
Q2) The patient has been hospitalized for hypertensive episodes three times in the last months.While preparing the discharge teaching plan,the nurse assesses that he does not comply with his medication regimen.The nurse's immediate course of action would be to:
A) reteach him about his medications.
B) have a serious talk with him and his family about compliance.
C) arrange for home visits after discharge.
D) collect more information to identify his reasons for noncompliance.
Q3) What do dark or "cold" spots on a thallium scan indicate?
A) Tissue with adequate blood supply
B) Dilated vessels
C) Areas of neoplastic growth
D) Tissue that has inadequate perfusion
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do leukotriene modifiers reduce the symptoms of asthma?
A) By drying up mucus
B) By causing bronchodilation and anti-inflammation effects
C) By suppressing cough
D) By liquefying mucus
Q2) How does pursed lip breathing assist patients with asthma during an attack?
A) It distracts the patient with breathing technique to reduce anxiety.
B) It gets rid of CO faster.
C) It opens bronchioles by backflow air pressure.
D) It increases PACO ..
Q3) How will the kidneys behave in respiratory acidosis?
A) Retain bicarbonate to increase the pH
B) Excrete more urine to reduce potassium
C) Concentrate the urine to conserve circulating fluid in the blood stream
D) Lower the pH by excretion of bicarbonate
Q4) What should the nurse do to keep the chest tubes from becoming occluded?
A) Irrigate tubes as needed
B) Prevent dependent loops
C) Loop the tube over the bed rail
D) "Milk" the tube frequently
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 56-year-old patient with cancer of the bladder is recovering from a cystectomy with an ileal conduit.What is an important aspect in nursing interventions of the patient with an ileal conduit?
A) Instructing the patient to void when the urge is felt.
B) Maintaining skin integrity.
C) Limiting oral intake to 1000 mL/day
D) Limiting acid-ash foods.
Q2) The nurse notes the amount and color of the urine the patient with urolithiasis has voided.While using Standard Precautions,what should be the nurse's next action?
A) Discard the urine
B) Add the urine to a 24-hour collector
C) Send the urine to the laboratory
D) Strain the urine
Q3) What should the nurse counsel the young man with chronic prostatitis to avoid?
A) Cessation of intercourse
B) Warm baths
C) Stool softeners
D) Continuing antibiotics when symptoms abate
Q4) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient with an Endocrine Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human insulin whose onset of action occurs within ____ minutes is lispro (Humalog).
A) 30
B) 60
C) 15
D) 45
Q2) The nurse discovers the type 1 diabetic (IDDM)patient drowsy and tremulous,the skin is cool and moist,and the respirations are 32 and shallow.These are signs of:
A) hypoglycemic reaction;give 6 oz of orange juice.
B) hyperglycemic reaction;give ordered regular insulin.
C) hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic reaction;squeeze glucagon gel in buccal cavity.
D) hypoglycemic reaction;give ordered insulin.
Q3) Which test will furnish immediate feedback for a newly diagnosed diabetic who is not yet under control?
A) Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
B) Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c)
C) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
D) Clinitest
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age should a male be taught testicular self-examination (TSE)?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) What is the recommended age range for a baseline mammogram?
A) 25 and 30 years
B) 31 and 34 years
C) 35 and 39 years
D) 40 and 45 years
Q3) _____________ are the most benign tumors of the uterus and arise from the uterine muscle tissue.
Q4) A patient,age 46,is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy.Postoperative nursing assessment findings include a urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours.What should the nurse do?
A) Force fluids
B) Report urinary retention to the charge nurse
C) "Milk" the urinary catheter
D) Turn the patient onto her right side
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Q5) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Chapter 13: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse include in the plan of care following a tympanoplasty?
A) Elevating head of bed with operative side facing upward
B) Enforcing bed rest for 72 hours
C) Frequent turning,coughing,and deep breathing
D) Continuous irrigation of the ear canal with antibiotic solutions
Q2) Why would the nurse encourage a group of teenagers to protect their eyes with dark sunglasses while using a UV lamp?
A) The lamp can cause cataracts.
B) The lamp can cause presbycusis.
C) The lamp can cause keratitis.
D) The lamp can cause ectropion.
Q3) The 62-year-old home health patient who is recovering from eye surgery complains of a feeling of "grittiness" in the eye and is having blurred vision.The eyes are reddened and have stringy mucus.What do these complaints indicate?
A) Sjögren syndrome
B) Early cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinal detachment
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n)___________.
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Chapter 14: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frantic family member is distressed about the flaccid paralysis of her son following a spinal cord injury several hours ago.What does the nurse know about this condition?
A) It is an ominous indicator of permanent paralysis.
B) It is possibly a temporary condition and will clear.
C) It degenerates into a spastic paralysis.
D) It will progress up the cord to cause seizures.
Q2) Why are the drugs neostigmine (Prostigmin)and pyridostigmine (Mestinon)helpful to the person with myasthenia gravis?
A) Improves speech
B) Improves visual disturbances
C) Reduces pain
D) Promotes nerve impulse transmission
Q3) A patient,age 45,is to have a myelogram to confirm the presence of a herniated intervertebral disk.Which nursing action should be planned with respect to this diagnostic test?
A) Obtain an allergy history before the test.
B) Ambulate the patient when returned to the room after the test.
C) Use heated blanket to keep patient warm after procedure.
D) Keep NPO for 6 to 8 hours after the test.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Care of the Patient with an Immune Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of immunocompetence?
A) A child that is immune to measles because of an inoculation
B) A person who has seasonal allergies every fall
C) When the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day
D) A neonate having a natural immunity from maternal antibodies
Q2) If a nurse is sensitive to latex gloves,what potential food sensitivities might the nurse develop? (Select all that apply. )
A) Peanuts
B) Avocados
C) Milk
D) Bananas
E) Tomatoes
F) Potatoes
Q3) What is humoral immunity based on? (Select all that apply. )
A) Production of antibodies by B cells
B) T cells are activated by an antigen
C) The body's response to an antigen
D) Sensitized T cells destroy the antigen
E) Helper T cells activate phagocytosis
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 16: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HIV-infected patient who has just seroconverted says he just cannot take all those confusing,expensive antiretroviral (ART)medications.He says he still feels fine,anyway.What should the nurse keep in mind when counseling this patient?
A) Resumption of the ART later in the disease is just as effective
B) Adherence to the ART protocol is essential to the success of the treatment
C) Cessation of the ART may prevent the emergence of a resistant strain of HIV
D) Once ART is initiated it cannot be restarted in the same patient
Q2) A patient states that he feels terrific,but a blood test shows that he is HIV-positive.It is important for the nurse to discuss with him that HIV may remain dormant for several years.What is true of the patient during this time?
A) He is not dangerous to anyone.
B) He experiences minor symptoms only.
C) He experiences decreased immunity.
D) He is contagious.
Q3) An organism that can cross from an animal species to humans is a(n)____________organism.
Q4) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who is being treated for cancer of the cervix by a radioactive implant discovers that the applicator with the radioactive material has become dislodged and is lying in the bed between the patient's legs.What should the nurse do?
A) Using long-handled forceps grasp the applicator and wrap it in a towel
B) Help the patient to a chair and cover the applicator with a rubber sheet
C) Reassure the patient by staying at the bedside and call for help
D) Notify the charge nurse
Q2) A patient,age 56,has been advised that his prostate-specific antigen (PSA)level is elevated.The physician then performed a digital rectal examination (DRE).What should the next definitive diagnostic test be?
A) CA-125 test
B) Transrectal ultrasound
C) Needle biopsy of the prostate
D) MRI
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the age of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
Q4) Men over age 50 should consider an annual _________ test and rectal examination.
Q5) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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