Nursing Pathophysiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Nursing Pathophysiology explores the functional and physiological changes that occur in the human body as a result of disease processes. This course provides nursing students with a thorough understanding of the mechanisms underlying illness and injury, focusing on how these changes manifest through signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings. Emphasis is placed on the clinical relevance of pathophysiological concepts, linking them to nursing assessments, interventions, and patient care planning. By integrating foundational science with practical nursing applications, students develop the critical thinking skills necessary to recognize deviations from health and deliver evidence-based care to individuals across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn
L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) C.Q.was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection.His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F,skin rash,dysphagia,and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules.He complains of sore throat,malaise,and joint stiffness.A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus,and antibiotics have been prescribed.The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is A) a sore throat.
B) streptococcal infection.
C) genetic susceptibility.
D) pharyngitis.
Answer: B
Q2) Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
A) genetics.
B) environmental toxins.
C) overcrowding.
D) nutrition.
E) hygiene.
Answer: B,C,D,E
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3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) cardiovascular disease.
B) depression.
C) impaired cognitive function.
D) autoimmune disease.
E) overactive immune function.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except A) aldosterone.
B) cortisol.
C) norepinephrine.
D) epinephrine.
Answer: A
Q3) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form
A) CO and H O.
B) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.
C) 30 ATP.
D) oxygen.
Answer: B
Q2) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
Q3) Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of A) activation of the Na -K pump.
B) influx of calcium.
C) efflux of potassium.
D) influx of sodium.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q2) Bacteria cause injury to cells by (Select all that apply.)
A) producing exotoxins.
B) producing endotoxins.
C) producing destructive enzymes.
D) reproducing inside of host cells altering cellular function.
E) evoking an immune reaction.
Q3) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein synthesis involves (Select all that apply.)
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
Q2) Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code for proteins?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 80%
Q3) Characteristics of stem cells include that they (Select all that apply.)
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet.Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of
A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
Q2) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q3) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure.She wants to know what that means.The correct response is which of the following?
A) It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
B) It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
C) It is based on exploratory surgery.
D) It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
Q2) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q3) In general,a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immune function is likely to be most effective in a A) newborn.
B) 7-month-old infant.
C) 30-year-old.
D) 70-year-old.
Q2) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity.
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity.
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent.
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population.
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.
Q3) Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to
A) patient allergy to a drug.
B) mutation of the microbe.
C) enhance pathogenicity of the microbe.
D) using high doses of drugs.
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10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A) activation of C3.
B) inflammation.
C) first recognition of an antigen.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
Q2) Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.)
A) transfer of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
Q3) Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.)
A) antigen agglutination.
B) antigen precipitation.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.
E) complement activation.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
Q2) The effects of histamine release include
A) vasoconstriction.
B) bronchodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) decreased gut permeability.
Q3) Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions,because
A) massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.
B) toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function.
C) anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating.
D) hypoxia resulting from bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is A) Bence Jones proteins in the urine.
B) decreased platelet count.
C) increased IgM antibody titer.
D) elevated blood glucose levels.
Q2) The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called A) bcr-abl.
B) Rb.
C) p53.
D) ARA-c.
Q3) The major cause of death from leukemic disease is A) infection.
B) malnutrition.
C) hypovolemic shock.
D) kidney failure.
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?
A) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
B) The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore, AIDS is considered to be highly contagious.
C) AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle.
D) AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.
Q2) HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it
A) directly inhibits antibody production by B cells.
B) causes the destruction of T-helper cells.
C) causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells.
D) blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens.
Q3) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum
A) hemoglobin.
B) methemoglobin.
C) bilirubin.
D) erythropoietin.
Q2) Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ibuprofen
B) Narcotics
C) Penicillin
D) Cephalosporins
E) Tetracycline
Q3) Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
A) Increased total iron-binding capacity
B) Increased heart rate
C) Hypovolemia
D) Jaundice
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood
Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which involves bleeding associated with vascular or platelet defects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bleeding that occurs immediately after trauma
B) Bleeding that involves skin or mucous membranes
C) Bleeding that is brief in duration
D) Bleeding that is delayed
E) Bleeding into muscles or joints
Q2) A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count,and increased prothrombin time (PT)and INR,is indicative of
A) vitamin K deficiency.
B) hemophilia B.
C) hemophilia A.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Q3) Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (Select all that apply.)
A) Urinary retention
B) Renal failure
C) Cirrhosis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Ovarian cancer
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q2) The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of A) viscosity.
B) the vessel length.
C) the vessel radius.
D) resistance.
Q3) Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?
A) Pain
B) Purpura
C) Pallor
D) Pulselessness
Q4) Velocity of blood flow is measured in
A) centimeters per second.
B) millimeters per minute.
C) yards per hour.
D) kilometers per minute.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for (Select all that apply.)
A) stroke.
B) cognitive impairment.
C) death.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) urinary retention.
Q2) Hypertension with a specific,identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q3) Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for (Select all that apply.)
A) ischemic stroke.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) retinal injury.
D) renal impairment.
E) liver disease.
Q4) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic pacemaker cells spontaneously depolarize,because
A) leak channels (If) allow calcium and sodium ions into the cell.
B) they lack efficient sodium/potassium pumps.
C) voltage-sensitive sodium channels open spontaneously.
D) chloride leaks into the cell during rest.
Q2) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to
A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q3) Which is a true statement about the affect of the Frank-Starling law on the heart?
A) Increased diastolic stretching of myocardial fibers produces increased stroke volume.
B) Sympathetic activation leads to increased myocardial contractility and heart rate.
C) An increase in heart chamber diameter increases myocardial wall tension.
D) An increase in coronary artery diameter results in less rapid coronary blood flow.
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19
Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to A) dislodgement.
B) binding.
C) rupture.
D) attachment.
Q2) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpesvirus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Mitral stenosis is associated with A) a prominent S heart sound.
B) a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.
C) left ventricular hypertrophy.
D) a muffled second heart sound (S ).
Q4) A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience A) syncope.
B) hypertension.
C) increased pulse pressure.
D) peripheral edema.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they
A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
Q2) Dysrhythmias are significant since they (Select all that apply.)
A) are an indicator of life span.
B) can indicate an underlying disorder.
C) can impair venous return.
D) increase the severity of heart murmurs.
E) can impair cardiac output.
Q3) The most common causes of heart failure are (Select all that apply.)
A) myocardial ischemia.
B) hypertension.
C) dilated cardiomyopathy.
D) high-fat diet.
E) urinary retention.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in atrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient experiences anaphylactic shock.The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stupor
B) Hypotension
C) Urticaria
D) Angioedema
E) Wheezing
Q2) A patient with cold and edematous extremities,low cardiac output,and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) hypovolemic
C) obstructive
D) septic
Q3) The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with
A) perfumes.
B) incompatible blood products.
C) animal proteins or dander.
D) antibiotics.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which is true about lung compliance? (Select all that apply.)
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q2) Secondary pulmonary hypertension is most often caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) increased left atrial pressure.
D) decreased alveolar compliance.
Q3) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by A) resistance to airflow.
B) hyperresponsiveness.
C) decreased residual volumes.
D) decreased lung compliance.
Q2) To best prevent emphysema,a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
A) impairs a -antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.
B) paralyzes the cilia, causing impaired mucociliary clearance.
C) predisposes to respiratory infections.
D) introduces carcinogens into the lungs.
Q3) Asthma is categorized as a(n)
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B) infective pulmonary disorder.
C) obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D) type of acute tracheobronchial obstruction.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called A) an abscess.
B) pleurisy.
C) flail chest.
D) pleural effusion.
Q2) A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of
A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) viral pneumonia.
C) tuberculosis.
D) acute respiratory distress syndrome.
Q3) A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)disease is
A) contaminated water.
B) immunosuppression.
C) being a male.
D) overuse of antibiotics.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
A) Too much sodium in the feedings
B) Excess of feedings
C) Inadequate water intake
D) Kidney failure
Q2) The imbalance that occurs with oliguric renal failure is
A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypophosphatemia.
Q3) The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.
A) sodium
B) phosphate
C) magnesium
D) potassium
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include A) coma.
B) headache.
C) muscle cramps.
D) short and shallow respirations.
Q2) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by
A) pH 7.36, PaCO 55, HCO - 36.
B) pH 7.45, PaCO 40, HCO - 28.
C) pH 7.26, PaCO 60, HCO - 26.
D) pH 7.40, PaCO 40, HCO - 24.
Q3) A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse.Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
A) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
B) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO high, bicarbonate high
C) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO low, bicarbonate low
D) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Hormones that increase sodium reabsorption from the tubular fluid include (Select all that apply.)
A) aldosterone.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) urodilatin.
E) angiotensin II.
Q2) Which finding on urinalysis should prompt further evaluation?
A) pH 4.5
B) Red blood cells 2 per high-power field
C) Specific gravity of 1.015
D) White blood cells 20 per high-power field
Q3) Renin is released from
A) the posterior pituitary gland.
B) the liver.
C) juxtaglomerular cells.
D) macula densa cells.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is
A) acute glomerulonephritis.
B) polycystic kidney disease.
C) cystitis.
D) renal insufficiency.
Q2) The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the
A) woman who is paraplegic.
B) woman who is pregnant.
C) man who has glomerulonephritis.
D) man who has chronic urinary tract infections.
Q3) Glomerular disorders include
A) pyelonephritis.
B) obstructive uropathy.
C) interstitial cystitis.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate,because
A) the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable.
B) filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity.
C) excessive solute and water are lost in the urine.
D) GFR declines.
Q2) Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes
A) potassium supplementation.
B) a high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) a high-phosphate diet.
Q3) Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes A) fluid administration.
B) potassium supplementation.
C) fluid restriction.
D) protein restriction.
Q4) Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
Q2) A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine,but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly.The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is A) overflow.
B) stress.
C) urge.
D) mixed.
Q3) The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is A) neurogenic bladder.
B) detrusor inactivity.
C) bladder prolapse.
D) cystitis.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The primary function of the epididymis is to
A) house developing sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid.
C) produce sperm.
D) secrete male hormones.
Q2) The male penis is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) sacral
C) pudendal
D) caudal
Q3) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q4) In males,pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream,dribbling of urine,and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of A) prostatitis.
B) urinary calculi.
C) bladder carcinoma.
D) prostatic enlargement.
Q3) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q2) Pregnancy is associated with
A) decreased oxygen consumption and ventilation.
B) decreased basal metabolic rate.
C) decreased absorption of sodium and water.
D) increased cardiac output and blood volume.
Q3) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes,tachycardia,palpitations,and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to
A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive vomiting
B) Proteinuria
C) Peripheral edema
D) Increased arterial pressure
E) Hemorrhage
Q2) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
Q3) Cervical cancer can be detected in the early,curable stage by the ________ test.
A) Papanicolaou
B) human papillomavirus
C) gonorrhoeae
D) vaginal pH
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q2) The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Pseudomonas.
Q3) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) Which are major pairs of salivary glands? (Select all that apply.)
A) Parotid
B) Parietal
C) Submandibular
D) Sublingual
E) Pituitary
Q2) The primary stimulus for pancreatic secretion is
A) gastrin.
B) histamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) secretin.
Q3) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.
A) appendectomy
B) intestinal biopsy
C) colonoscopy
D) gastric bypass
Q2) A disorder of the esophageal smooth muscle function where dysphagia is a symptom is (Select all that apply.)
A) esophageal stricture.
B) achalasia.
C) esophageal tumors.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
E) hiatal hernia.
Q3) Crohn disease is associated with what complications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Perianal fissures
B) Fistulae
C) Green stool
D) Abscesses
E) Rectal pain
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that gallstones are
A) a minimal risk for Native Americans.
B) more common in women.
C) more common in men.
D) at highest risk among Asians.
Q2) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to
A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.
D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
Q3) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol.
C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Q1) A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.
A) recovered from B) immunity to C) chronic active
D) acute
Q2) A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n)________ diet.
A) low-protein and high-fiber
B) high-protein and high-carbohydrate
C) high-sodium
D) unrestricted
Q3) Pathophysiologically,esophageal varices can be attributed to A) elevated bilirubin.
B) diminished protein metabolism.
C) fluid accumulation.
D) portal hypertension.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Q1) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
Q2) The tightness of the hormone-receptor bond is known as A) specificity.
B) affinity.
C) half-life.
D) set-point.
Q3) The endocrine system closely resembles the ________ system because many of their actions are coordinated at the level of the hypothalamus.
A) nervous
B) immune
C) integumentary
D) lymphatic
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) It is true that growth hormone excess in adults
A) results in the condition of acromegaly.
B) leads to abnormally tall stature.
C) is associated with hypoglycemia.
D) is usually asymptomatic.
Q2) A patient reporting vision changes,photophobia,and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
Q3) It is true that Graves disease is
A) a secondary endocrine disorder.
B) associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.
C) characterized by high serum TSH levels.
D) untreatable.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is A) acetone breath.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) tremors.
D) hyperventilation.
Q2) A type of insulin that would be most appropriate for acute management of hyperglycemia is
A) NPH.
B) Semilente.
C) regular.
D) Ultralente.
Q3) Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) seventh
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
Q2) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6°F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q3) During times of fasting,the body uses ________ as a source of energy.
A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrates
D) glucagon
Q4) A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be
A) morbidly obese.
B) normal.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
44
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) Activation of touch receptors on the left side of the body is transmitted primarily to the ________ cortex.
A) right somatosensory
B) occipital
C) left temporal
D) right motor
Q2) Pupil constriction is controlled by cranial nerve
A) II.
B) III.
C) VIII.
D) IX.
Q3) Memories are stored in the nervous system by A) specific neurons in the cortex.
B) rearrangement of synaptic contacts.
C) selective apoptosis of neurons.
D) changes in synaptic efficiency.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Q1) Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?
A) Spontaneous eye opening, movement to command, oriented to self only
B) Eyes open to light touch on shoulder, pupils briskly reactive to light bilaterally
C) Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response
D) No eye opening, responds to painful stimulus by withdrawing
Q2) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually because of venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q3) Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports
A) ringing in the ears.
B) transient episodes of numbness.
C) transient episodes of vertigo.
D) sudden, severe headache.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are common causes of acquired parkinsonism? (Select all that apply.)
A) Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
B) History of infection
C) History of intoxication
D) History of trauma
E) Seizure disorder
Q2) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
Q3) Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson disease
C) Alzheimer disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Q1) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q2) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q3) A sudden onset of eye pain and impaired vision associated with pupil dilation is characteristic of
A) narrow-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) cataract.
D) retinal detachment.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presenting with a severe,pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
Q2) Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
A) Narcotic analgesics
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Nonnarcotic analgesics
Q3) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) Researchers suggest a mediating role between the later development of schizophrenia and A) prenatal radiation exposure.
B) prenatal influenza exposure.
C) childhood vaccinations.
D) childhood chickenpox.
Q2) Mania and depression are both characterized by A) high energy and hyperactivity.
B) poor appetite.
C) hopelessness.
D) altered decision making ability.
Q3) Childlike silliness in a patient with schizophrenia is known as A) delusions.
B) disorganized thinking.
C) grossly disorganized behavior.
D) asociality.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) Children with social or communication deficits,fixated interests,and repetitive behaviors are likely exhibiting symptoms of
A) attention deficient hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
B) a learning disorder.
C) inattention.
D) autism spectrum disorder.
Q2) Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder
A) are not aware that obsessive thoughts are from their own brains.
B) may become highly anxious if prevented from performing rituals.
C) have disordered thinking and poor reality orientation.
D) have a severe, unmanageable psychotic illness.
Q3) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as
A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Moderate stretching of a muscle at rest results in a(n)
A) more forceful contraction when stimulated.
B) inefficient use of ATP.
C) more rapid onset of muscle fatigue.
D) reduced force of contraction.
Q2) Troponin is a muscle protein that
A) binds the myosin protein to form cross-bridges.
B) forms the noncontractile Z lines.
C) binds calcium and regulates tropomyosin.
D) hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for contraction.
Q3) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity,the body breaks down glucose,which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include (Select all that apply.)
A) generalized pain.
B) sensitivity to heat.
C) headaches.
D) fatigue.
E) sleep disturbance.
Q2) The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age
A) 68.
B) 44.
C) 8.
D) 23.
Q3) Paget's disease is characterized by
A) overactivity of osteoblasts leading to multiple bone tumors.
B) excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.
C) inflammatory disorder resulting in fusion of spine joints.
D) failure of resorption by osteoclasts resulting in hard bones.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream.This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be A) caused by bacterial infection.
B) an autoimmune process.
C) an infective process.
D) because of an enzymatic defect.
Q2) Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations,the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)includes
A) lesions affecting the palms of hands and the soles of feet.
B) dry, scaly patches in the antecubital area and behind the knees.
C) cracked, scaly areas in the webs of fingers.
D) a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.
Q3) In contrast to osteoarthritis,rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with A) debilitating joint pain and stiffness.
B) improvement in symptoms with aspirin therapy.
C) changes in activities of daily living.
D) systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Q1) Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation of a nevus mole?
A) The presence of light pigmentation
B) Variations in color within the nevus
C) Very dark coloration of the mole
D) Diameter less than 2 mm
Q2) Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions?
A) Pemphigus
B) Psoriasis
C) Pityriasis rosea
D) Lichen planus
Q3) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes
A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) rubella.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
Q2) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
Q3) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
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