Network Security Final Exam
Course Introduction
Network Security is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, protocols, and practices essential for securing computer networks. Students will learn about common threats and vulnerabilities, including malware, social engineering, denial of service, and advanced persistent threats. The course covers cryptography fundamentals, secure network design, authentication mechanisms, firewalls, intrusion detection/prevention systems, and wireless security. Through hands-on labs and real-world case studies, learners develop practical skills in identifying threats, implementing defense strategies, and managing security policies, preparing them to protect network infrastructures in diverse organizational environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) T F 4.Availability assures that systems works promptly and service is not denied to authorized users.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The assets of a computer system can be categorized as hardware,software,communication lines and networks,and _________.
Answer: data
Q3) In the context of security our concern is with the vulnerabilities of system resources.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A __________ is any action that compromises the security of information owned by an organization.
A)security mechanism
B)security policy
C)security attack
D)security service
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) Digital signatures and key management are the two most important applications of __________ encryption.
A)private-key
B)public-key
C)preimage resistant
D)advanced
Answer: B
Q2) An important element in many computer security services and applications is the use of cryptographic algorithms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Public-key algorithms are based on simple operations on bit patterns.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Public-key cryptography is asymmetric.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) An individual's signature is not unique enough to use in biometric applications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) With the __________ policy a user is allowed to select their own password,but the system checks to see if the password is allowable.
Answer: complex password
Q3) The most common means of human-to-human identification are __________.
A)facial characteristics
B)retinal patterns
C)signatures
D)fingerprints
Answer: A
Q4) Authentication protocols used with smart tokens can be classified into three categories: static,dynamic password generator,and ___________.
Answer: challenge-response
Q5) A __________ is an individual to whom a debit card is issued. Answer: cardholder
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) The final permission bit is the _________ bit.
A)superuser
B)kernel
C)set user
D)sticky
Q2) __________ controls access based on comparing security labels with security clearances.
A)MAC
B)DAC
C)RBAC
D)MBAC
Q3) A __________ access control scheme is one in which an entity may be granted access rights that permit the entity,by its own volition,to enable another entity to access some resource.
Q4) A __________ dictates that a user can only be assigned to a particular role if it is already assigned to some other specified role and can be used to structure the implementation of the least privilege concept.
Q5) X.800 defines __________ as the prevention of unauthorized use of a resource, including the prevention of use of a resource in an unauthorized manner.
Page 6
Q6) The basic elements of access control are: subject,__________,and access right.
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Q1) A(n)__________ is a user who has administrative responsibility for part or all of the database.
A)administrator
B)database relations manager
C)application owner
D)end user other than application owner
Q2) Fixed server roles operate at the level of an individual database.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The CSP can provide backup at multiple locations,with reliable failover and disaster recovery facilities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A view cannot provide restricted access to a relational database so it cannot be used for security purposes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is a standardized language that can be used to define schema,manipulate,and query data in a relational database.
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Q6) The __________ cloud infrastructure is operated solely for an organization.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) The term "computer virus" is attributed to __________.
A)Herman Hollerith
B)Fred Cohen
C)Charles Babbage
D)Albert Einstein
Q2) Unsolicited bulk e-mail is referred to as __________.
A)spam
B)propagating
C)phishing
D)crimeware
Q3) A __________ is code inserted into malware that lies dormant until a predefined condition,which triggers an unauthorized act,is met.
A)logic bomb
B)trapdoor
C)worm
D)Trojan horse
Q4) A __________ is when a user views a Web
Q5) The four phases of a typical virus are: dormant phase,triggering phase,execution phase and __________ phase.
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) Flooding attacks take a variety of forms based on which network protocol is being used to implement the attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ attacks flood the network link to the server with a torrent of malicious packets competing with valid traffic flowing to the server.
Q3) If an organization is dependent on network services it should consider mirroring and ________ these servers over multiple sites with multiple network connections.
Q4) A characteristic of reflection attacks is the lack of _______ traffic.
A)backscatter
B)network
C)three-way
D)botnet
Q5) A ______ is a graphical puzzle used to attempt to identify legitimate human initiated interactions.
Q6) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
Q7) The standard protocol used for call setup in VoIP is the ________ Protocol.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) An intruder can also be referred to as a hacker or cracker.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _________ to an IDS enables a user to view output from the system or control the behavior of the system.
Q3) Intrusion detection is based on the assumption that the behavior of the intruder differs from that of a legitimate user in ways that can be quantified.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Activists are either individuals or members of an organized crime group with a goal of financial reward.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A (n)__________ is a hacker with minimal technical skill who primarily uses existing attack toolkits.
A)Master
B)Apprentice
C)Journeyman
D)Activist
Q6) An IDS comprises three logical components: analyzers,user interface and _____.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) A single device that integrates a variety of approaches to dealing with network-based attacks is referred to as a __________ system.
Q2) ________ control controls access to a service according to which user is attempting to access it.
A)User
B)Direction
C)Service
D)Behavior
Q3) A prime disadvantage of an application-level gateway is the additional processing overhead on each connection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Typical for SOHO applications,a __________ is a single router between internal and external networks with stateless or full packet filtering.
A)single bastion T
B)double bastion inline
C)screening router
D)host-resident firewall
Q5) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) A buffer _________ is a condition at an interface under which more input can be placed into a buffer or data holding area than the capacity allocated,overwriting other information.
A)overflow
B)overrun
C)overwrite
D)all of the above
Q2) Gaps,or __________ ,are flagged in the MMU as illegal addresses,and any attempt to access them results in the process being aborted.
Q3) __________ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
Q4) An essential component of many buffer overflow attacks is the transfer of execution to code supplied by the attacker and often saved in the buffer being overflowed.This code is known as _________ .
Q5) There are several generic restrictions on the content of shellcode.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The __________ project produces a free,multiplatform 4.4BSD-based UNIX-like operating system.
Q7) Data is simply an array of _________ .
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) The principle of ________ strongly suggests that programs should execute with the least amount of privileges needed to complete their function.
Q2) A _______ attack is where the input includes code that is then executed by the attacked system.
A)SQL injection
B)cross-site scripting
C)code injection
D)interpreter injection
Q3) A _________ attack occurs when the input is used in the construction of a command that is subsequently executed by the system with the privileges of the Web server.
A)command injection
B)SQL injection
C)code injection
D)PHP remote code injection
Q4) Program _______ refers to any source of data that originates outside the program and whose value is not explicitly known by the programmer when the code was written.
Q5) Program input data may be broadly classified as textual or ______.
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) It is possible for a system to be compromised during the installation process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first step in deploying new systems is _________.
A)security testing
B)installing patches
C)planning
D)secure critical content
Q3) Which of the following need to be taken into consideration during the system security planning process?
A)how users are authenticated
B)the categories of users of the system
C)what access the system has to information stored on other hosts
D)all of the above
Q4) Most large software systems do not have security weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ systems should validate all patches on test systems before deploying them to production systems.
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) __________ data are data that may be derived from corporate data but that cannot be used to discover the corporation's identity.
A)Reference
B)Trust
C)Sanitized
D)MAC
Q2) The BLP model effectively breaks down when (untrusted)low classified executable data are allowed to be executed by a high clearance (trusted) subject.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _______ access mode allows the subject both read and write access to the object.
A)read
B)append
C)write
D)execute
Q4) The _________ model is aimed at commercial rather than military applications and closely models real commercial operations.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) ________ specification indicates the impact on the organization should the particular threat in question actually eventuate.
A)Risk
B)Consequence
C)Threat
D)Likelihood
Q2) The advantages of the _________ approach are that it doesn't require the expenditure of additional resources in conducting a more formal risk assessment and that the same measures can be replicated over a range of systems.
A)combined
B)informal
C)baseline
D)detailed
Q3) A ________ is anything that might hinder or present an asset from providing appropriate levels of the key security services.
A)vulnerability
B)threat
C)risk
D)control
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) The three steps for IT security management controls and implementation are: prioritize risks,respond to risks,and __________ .
Q2) The _______ plan documents what needs to be done for each selected control,along with the personnel responsible,and the resources and time frame to be used.
Q3) The implementation process is typically monitored by the organizational ______.
A)security officer
B)general counsel
C)technology officer
D)human resources
Q4) Incident response is part of the ________ class of security controls.
Q5) Water damage protection is included in security controls.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ audit process should be conducted on new IT systems and services once they are implanted;and on existing systems periodically,often as part of a wider,general audit of the organization or whenever changes are made to the organization's security policy.
Q7) A _________ on an organization's IT systems identifies areas needing treatment.
Q8) Contingency planning falls into the _________ class of security controls.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) Physical security must also prevent any type of physical access or intrusion that can compromise logical security.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ______ is an optional key that may be present on any PIV card,does not require PIN entry,and whose purpose is to authenticate the card and therefore its possessor.
A)VIS
B)BIO
C)CHUID
D)CAK
Q3) Physical security threats are organized into three categories: environmental threats,human-caused threats,and _________ threats.
Q4) A prevalent concern that is often overlooked is ________.
A)overvoltage
B)undervoltage
C)dust
D)noise
Q5) ________ physical threats are more difficult to deal with than environmental and technical threats.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) Having all of the security functions and audit responsibilities reside in the same person is a wise decision on the part of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Complying with regulations and contractual obligations is a benefit of security awareness,training,and education programs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Security awareness,training,and education programs can serve as a deterrent to fraud and actions by disgruntled employees by increasing employees' knowledge of their ________ and of potential penalties.
A)regulations
B)accountability
C)liability
D)incidents
Q4) The goal of the _______ function is to ensure that all information destined for the incident handling service is channeled through a single focal point regardless of the method by which it arrives for appropriate redistribution and handling within the service.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) _________ audit trails may be used to detect security violations within an application or to detect flaws in the application's interaction with the system.
A)Application-level
B)System-level
C)User-level
D)None of the above
Q2) The ________ is a module that transmits the audit trail records from its local system to the centralized audit trail collector.
A)audit dispatcher
B)audit analyzer
C)audit trail collector
D)none of the above
Q3) All UNIX implementations will have the same variants of the syslog facility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ______ repository contains the auditing code to be inserted into an application.
Q5) SIEM software has two general configuration approaches: agentless and ______.
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) A ______ handles the financial transaction for issuing the digital license to the consumer and pays royalty fees to the content provider and distribution fees to the distributor accordingly.
Q2) _______ is a form of crime that targets a computer system to acquire information stored on that computer system,to control the target system without authorization or payment,or to alter the integrity of data or interfere with the availability of the computer or server.
A)Computers as targets
B)Computers as storage devices
C)Computers as mediums
D)Computers as communication tools
Q3) _______ or cybercrime,is a term used broadly to describe criminal activity in which computers or computer networks are a tool,a target,or a place of criminal activity.
Q4) Computer technology has involved the creation of new types of entities for which no agreed ethical rules have previously been formed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The invasion of the rights secured by patents,copyrights,and trademarks is ________.
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) It is possible to convert any block cipher into a stream cipher by using the cipher feedback (CFB)mode.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of the link encryption approach is that the message must be decrypted each time it enters a frame switch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _________ is the original message or data that is fed into the algorithm as input.
A)Plaintext
B)Encryption algorithm
C)Decryption algorithm
D)Ciphertext
Q4) The most powerful,and most common,approach to countering the threats to network security is ________.
Q5) One desirable property of a stream cipher is that the ciphertext be of the same length as the plaintext.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) _________ are analogous to a burglar guessing a safe combination by observing how long it takes to turn the dial from number to number.
A)Digital standards
B)Mathematical attacks
C)Ciphers
D)Timing attacks
Q2) In 2005,NIST announced the intention to phase out approval of _______ and move to a reliance on the other SHA versions by 2010.
A)SHA-1
B)SHA-512
C)SHA-256
D)SHA-2
Q3) The security of any MAC function based on an embedded hash function depends in some way on the _________ strength of the underlying hash function.
Q4) SHA-1 is considered to be very secure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) NIST has published FIPS PUB 186,which is known as the ___________.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) The ________ accepts the message submitted by a message user agent and enforces the policies of the hosting domain and the requirements of Internet standards.
A)mail submission agent
B)message user agent
C)mail delivery agent
D)message transfer agent
Q2) S/MIME content-types support four new functions: enveloped data,__________,clear-signed data,and signed and enveloped data.
Q3) The ________ function consists of encrypted content of any type and encrypted-content encryption keys for one or more recipients.
A)clear-signed data
B)signed data
C)enveloped data
D)signed and enveloped data
Q4) _________ is a specification for cryptographically signing e-mail messages,permitting a signing domain to claim responsibility for a message in the mail stream.
Q5) The _________ is used to convey SSL-related alerts to the peer entity.
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) The authentication server shares a unique secret key with each server.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A full-service Kerberos environment consisting of a Kerberos server that has the user ID and password of all participating users in its database and shares a secret key with each server,all users and servers being registered with the Kerberos server,is referred to as a Kerberos ______.
Q3) _______ certificates are used in most network security applications,including IP security,secure sockets layer,secure electronic transactions,and S/MIME.
A)X.509
B)PKI
C)FIM
D)SCA
Q4) CMP,defined in RFC 2510,is designed to be a flexible protocol able to accommodate a variety of technical,operational,and business models.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ allows end entities to restore their encryption/decryption key pair from an authorized key backup facility.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The security requirements are: confidentiality,integrity,availability,authenticity,and
Q2) The purpose of the authentication phase is to maintain backward compatibility with the IEEE 802.11 state machine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wireless environment consists of three components that provide point of attack: the wireless client,the transmission medium,and the _________.
Q4) An extended service set (ESS)is a set of stations controlled by a single coordination function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In most data-link control protocols,the data-link protocol entity is responsible not only for detecting errors using the CRC,but for recovering from those errors by retransmitting damaged frames.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The field following the MSDU field is referred to as the ___________.
Q7) At the top level of the group key hierarchy is the ___________.
Page 26
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