Network Security Exam Bank - 699 Verified Questions
Network Security Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Network Security is an essential course that explores the principles, technologies, and best practices used to protect digital networks from threats and unauthorized access. Students will learn about common attack vectors, cryptography, secure network architecture, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and security protocols. The course emphasizes both the theoretical foundations and hands-on skills needed to identify vulnerabilities, mitigate risks, and implement robust security measures in modern network environments, preparing students to address evolving cyber threats in professional settings.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures 3rd Edition by Randy Weaver
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14 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Network Security Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which form of authentication does the authenticating device generate a random code and send it to the user who wants to be authenticated?
A) basic
B) challenge/response
C) biometrics
D) signature
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of attack works by an attacker operating between two computers in a network and impersonating one computer to intercept communications?
A) malicious port scanning
B) man-in-the-middle
C) denial of service
D) remote procedure call
Answer: B
Q3) ______________________ is the capability to prevent a participant in an electronic transaction from denying that it performed an action.
Answer: Nonrepudiation
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Page 3
Chapter 2: TCP-IP
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Q1) How large is the IPv6 address space?
A) 32 bits
B) 128 bits
C) 64 bits
D) 168 bits
Answer: B
Q2) List the seven layers of the OSI model.
Answer: Application Presentation Session Transport Network
Data Link Physical
Q3) The Transport layer of the OSI model includes the RIP protocol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) DNS operates at the _________________ layer of the OSI model.
Answer: Application
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Network Traffic Signatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a category of suspicious TCP/IP packet?
A) bad header information
B) single-packet attacks
C) suspicious data payload
D) suspicious CRC value
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following correctly represents the port used by FTP control traffic and FTP file transfer traffic respectively?
A) 20, 25
B) 21, 23
C) 20, 23
D) 21, 20
Answer: D
Q3) In the three-way handshake,the first packet in the sequence has the ________ flag set.
Answer: SYN
Q4) What is signature analysis?
Answer: Signature analysis is the practice of analyzing and understanding TCP/IP communications to determine whether they are legitimate or suspicious.
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Chapter 4: Routing Fundamentals
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Q1) To determine best path,routers use metrics such as the value of the first octet of the destination IP address.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ARP broadcast is sent to the local subnet in an attempt to discover the destination computer's ______________ address.
Q3) a network system tool that lists the MAC and IP address resolutions of other devices on the network,making the resolution process more efficient
A)ACE
B)ARP table
C)banner
D)console port
E)convergence
F)inverse mask
G)metrics
H)routing
I)stub router
j.virtual terminal
Q4) What is a distance-vector routing protocol? Give one example.
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Chapter 5: Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a hash value and how does it verify message integrity?
Q2) What is a downside to using Triple DES?
A) uses only a 56-bit key
B) goes through three rounds of encryption
C) using three keys decreases security
D) requires more processing time
Q3) Which of the following is commonly used for verifying message integrity?
A) registration authority
B) CRL
C) pseudorandom number generator
D) hashing function
Q4) Digital ____________________ security vulnerabilities are mostly associated with the IT infrastructure required to support interoperability.
Q5) Which of the following is true about encryption algorithms?
A) their strength is tied to their key length
B) not vulnerable to brute force attacks
C) block ciphers encrypt one bit at a time
D) asymmetric algorithms use a single key
Q6) A ______________ value is a fixed-size string representing the original input's contents.
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Chapter 6: Wireless Network Fundamentals
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Q1) Which digital signal modulation method is a binary modulation technique in which the carrier signal's frequency is changed to represent a 1 or 0 bit?
A) ASK
B) FSK
C) PSK
D) FDM
Q2) Describe how RF power is measured.
Q3) Which of the following tasks does an AP typically perform?
A) bridges between the wired and wireless network
B) acts as a hub for a wired network
C) routes packets from subnet to subnet
D) divides data into packets
Q4) The _____________________ wireless standard will use the 5 GHz band and will provide multistation WLANs with up to 1 Gbps bandwidth.
Q5) What is the difference between directed IR transmission and diffused IR transmission?
Q6) Describe two of the four methods of digital signal modulation.
Q7) Describe multipath interference.
Page 8
Q8) Why should you use caution when using multiple APs?
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Chapter 7: Understanding Wireless Security
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Q1) Which management frame type is sent by a station wanting to terminate the connection?
A) Deauthentication
B) Disassociation
C) Reassociation request
D) Probe response
Q2) List the three types of MAC frames defined by the 802.11 standard.
Q3) Which of the following is true about wardriving?
A) attackers use RF monitor mode
B) the hardware is very expensive
C) the software is very expensive
D) their goal is simply to hijack a connection
Q4) In which type of wireless attack does the attacker cause valid users to lose their connections by sending a forged deauthentication frame to their stations?
A) association flood
B) jamming
C) session hijacking
D) MAC address spoofing
Q5) What is the purpose of MAC address filtering and how can attackers defeat it?
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
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Q1) Which approach to stateful protocol analysis involves detection of the protocol in use,followed by activation of analyzers that can identify applications not using standard ports?
A) Protocol state tracking
B) IP packet reassembly
C) Traffic rate monitoring
D) Dynamic Application layer protocol analysis
Q2) Which type of IDPS can have the problem of getting disparate systems to work in a coordinated fashion?
A) inline
B) host-based
C) hybrid
D) network-based
Q3) A hybrid IDPS combines aspects of NIDPS and HIDPS configurations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three network defense functions performed by an IDPS?
Q5) What is an inline sensor and how is it used to stop attacks?
Q6) Describe two advantages and two disadvantages of a signature-based system.
Q7) List four types of information that an NIDPS typically logs.
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Chapter 9: Firewalls
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Q1) The rule base should permit access to public servers in the _________ and enable users to access the Internet.
Q2) Describe a packet-filtering scenario that works with the DMZ.
Q3) What is stateful packet filtering?
Q4) What are the two standard ports used by FTP along with their function?
A) UDP 23 control, TCP 20 data
B) UDP 20 data, TCP 21 control
C) TCP 21 control, TCP 20 data
D) TCP 23 data, TCP 21 control
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a criteria typically used by stateless packet filters to determine whether or not to block packets.
A) IP address
B) ports
C) data patterns
D) TCP flags
Q6) What service uses UDP port 53?
A) SMTP
B) DNS
C) ICMP
D) TFTP
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Firewall Design and Management
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Q1) Describe the process of network address translation.What are the two primary types of NAT?
Q2) Which of the following best describes a DMZ?
A) a network of computers configured with robust firewall software
B) a subnet of publicly accessible servers placed outside the internal network
C) a private subnet that is inaccessible to both the Internet and the company network
D) a proxy server farm used to protect the identity of internal servers
Q3) How does a server farm and load-balancing software figure into the multiple DMZ/firewall configuration?
Q4) Which type of security device can speed up Web page retrieval and shield hosts on the internal network?
A) caching firewall
B) proxy server
C) caching-only DNS server
D) DMZ intermediary
Q5) What is a honeypot and how is one used to help protect the network?
Q6) What is a bastion host and how is one typically configured?
Q7) How can using two firewalls help in protecting your network?
Q8) What is a reverse firewall and why would you use one?
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Chapter 11: VPN Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is authentication implemented in a VPN?
Q2) List two advantages and two disadvantages of VPNs.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about a hardware VPN?
A) should be the first choice for fast-growing networks
B) can handle more traffic than software VPNs
C) have more security vulnerabilities than software VPNs
D) create a gateway-to-gateway VPN
Q4) The Internet Key ______________ protocol enables computers to make an SA.
Q5) Which of the following is an improvement of TLS over SSL?
A) requires less processing power
B) uses a single hashing algorithm for all the data
C) uses only asymmetric encryption
D) adds a hashed message authentication code
Q6) Hardware VPNs create a gateway-to-gateway VPN.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Network gateways are ____________ of the VPN connection.
Q8) Standards and protocols used in VPNs are in their infancy and seldom used.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Internet and World Wide Web Security
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Q1) A critical buffer component is the function _________ and buffer overflows are usually aimed at this component.
Q2) Which of the following is a top-level digital certificate in the PKI chain?
A) security-aware resolver
B) trust anchor
C) DNSSEC resolver
D) RRSIG record
Q3) What is a zone transfer?
A) the movement of e-mail from one domain to another
B) updating a secondary DNS server
C) backing up an SQL data file
D) copying host file data to another system
Q4) List three of the steps you should take to close potential holes against SQL injection attacks.
Q5) What feature of the 13 DNS root servers enables any group of servers to act as a root server?
A) multicast addressing
B) broadcast addressing
C) anycast addressing
D) unicast addressing
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Chapter 13: Security Policy Design and Implementation
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?
A) installation of a firewall
B) antivirus software
C) Internet-connected computer
D) spyware
Q2) What are the four steps of Threat and Risk Assessment?
Q3) Your exposure to risk increases if your organization has one or more factors that increase _____________ probabilities.
Q4) Which of the following best describes a Monte Carlo simulation?
A) a technique for simulating an attack on a system
B) a formula that estimates the cost of countermeasures
C) a procedural system that simulates a catastrophe
D) an analytical method that simulates a real-life system for risk analysis
Q5) What is the purpose of a privileged access policy?
Q6) SNA starts with the assumption that a system or network will be ________________.
Q7) What points should a third-party access policy include? List at least three.
Q8) VPNs create a _____________ to transport information through public communications media.
Q9) When should you update the security policy? Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 14: On-Going Security Management
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a type of event that you would normally monitor?
A) user account creation
B) e-mail attachment handling
C) antivirus scanning
D) access to shared folders
Q2) You should review the logs and alerts created by your security devices,a process called _________ monitoring.
Q3) Since system intrusions take place over a very short period of time,there is no need to maintain IDPS log data for more than a few hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______________ management involves modifying equipment,systems,software,or procedures in a sequential,planned way.
Q5) Change management should be used before making changes to firewall or IDPS rules that affect users.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List three types of changes for which you should use change management.
Q7) Discuss the process of IDPS signature evaluation.
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