
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
This course explores the scientific principles and societal impacts of natural disasters, including earthquakes, tsunamis, hurricanes, floods, volcanic eruptions, and wildfires. Students will examine the causes, prediction methods, and historical case studies of major disasters, as well as their effects on human populations and environments. The class also addresses risk management, preparedness strategies, and the role of government agencies and communities in mitigating disaster impacts, fostering an understanding of both the science and social dimensions of these phenomena.
Recommended Textbook Earth An Introduction to Physical Geology 4th Canadian Edition by Edward J. Tarbuck
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3286 Verified Questions
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Q1) Who discovered transform plate boundaries?
Answer: Canadian geophysicist John Tuzo Wilson
Q2) The Earth's core was formed from ________.
A)a massive nickle iron asteroid that was the nucleus upon which Earth condensed
B)high density radioactive carbon
C)the left over nickle and iron that would not fit into the earlier formed crust and mantle
D)molten iron and nickle that separated from silicates and sank due to its higher density
Answer: D
Q3) What is the estimated temperature of Earth's inner core?
Answer: 6700 degrees Celsius
Q4) The asthenosphere is actually a part of the ________ of the Earth.
A)outer core
B)crust
C)inner core
D)mantle
Answer: D
Q5) When was our planet created, according to James Ussher?
Answer: 4004 B.C.E.
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Q1) What element is the most abundant in the Earth's crust by weight?
A)carbon
B)chlorine
C)oxygen
D)sodium
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following rock types are not comprised mostly of minerals.
A)limestone and rock salt
B)coal, obsidian, and pumice
C)sandstone and conglomerate
D)granite and basalt
Answer: B
Q3) Graphite has (weak, strong)bonds within its layers but (weak, strong)bonds between its layers.
Answer: strong, weak
Q4) What is the most common member of the pyroxene group of ferromagesian minerals?
Answer: augite
Q5) What are the two most abundant elements, which by themselves account for approximately 75% by weight of the Earth's crust?
Answer: oxygen, silicon
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Q1) Which of the following high silica igneous rocks can be of low enough density to float on water?
A)pumice
B)granite
C)rhyolite
D)obsidian
Answer: A
Q2) The main factors which directly govern the development of texture in all igneous rocks are ________.
A)buoyancy, crystal settling, and partial melting
B)cooling rate, dissolved volatiles, and silica content
C)volcano or pluton size and shape
D)weathering and climate
Answer: B
Q3) Basalt is the aphanitic or fine-grained equivalent of gabbro.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ________ is the term for the liquid portion of magma.
Answer: Melt
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Q1) Basaltic lavas are generally hotter and more viscous than andesitic lavas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)pyroclastic flow
B)nuée ardente
C)pahoehoe
D)glowing avalanche
Q3) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)Crater Lake
B)Mount Mazama
C)Wizard Island
D)Krakatoa
Q4) Which correctly describes the size and thickness variation in pyroclastics relative to the composite volcano they came from?
A)Size and thickness both decrease uniformly away from the central vent.
B)Size increases then decreases with distance, but deposits are the same thickness.
C)Size increases, and the deposits get thicker away from the vent.
D)Size decreases, but deposits thicken downslope and then thin with distance.
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Q1) Lateritic soils form under what climatic conditions?
A)warm and moist as in a wet, tropical forest
B)cool and relatively dry as in Nunavut
C)hot and dry as in the desert regions of North Africa and Arabia
D)moist and temperate as in southwest BC
Q2) Stawamus Chief in BC, Sugarloaf in Rio De Janeiro, Brazil, and Half Dome and Liberty Cap in Yosemite National Park, California, are all shaped mainly by what mechanical weathering process?
Q3) What is the term for the selective removal of softer or less stable portions of a rock?
Q4) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)C horizon
B)A horizon
C)E horizon
D)B horizon
Q5) What are the common red and brown mineral residues produced by oxidation?
Q6) Removal of soluble chemical constituents from a soil is termed leaching.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Which term denotes the true soil above the zone of partly weathered bedrock?
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common type of chemical sedimentary rock?
A)limestone
B)chert
C)phosphate rock
D)quartz sandstone
Q2) What type of sandstone contains a clay-rich matrix?
Q3) Diagenesis occurs at temperatures below ________ in the outer few kilometres of Earth's crust.
A)10°
B)50°
C)100°
D)200°
Q4) The sedimentary rocks salt and gypsum are deposited by what process?
Q5) How does a sediment become transformed into a sedimentary rock?
A)by compaction and dewatering, followed by cementation
B)by destruction of all bedding and original depositional features
C)by multiple cycles of redeposition
D)by processes of polymorphism
Q6) How do salt flats form?
Q7) Where would sequences of graded beds likely occur?
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Q1) Metamorphic rocks formed during episodes of mountain building typically show textural characteristics indicative of directed pressure and deformation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The oldest dated rocks in the world occur in Canada.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which setting would regional metamorphism most likely occur?
A)at shallow depths below an oceanic ridge or rift zone
B)at shallow depths along major transform faults on the continental crust
C)at great depths in the crust where two continents are colliding
D)on the rims of large meteorite impact craters
Q4) Which metamorphic rock, widely used for monuments and buildings, would deteriorate significantly in contact with acid rain?
Q5) What are the aluminosilicate minerals (Al<sub>2</sub>SiO<sub>5 </sub>)and how are they formed and distinguished?
Q6) Which metamorphic rock or rocks exhibit alternating layers or bands of different light- and dark-coloured silicate minerals?
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Q1) The Cambrian Period is named after the Cambrian Mountains in Wales.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A few rare times in earth history the majority of life forms disappeared "clearing the ecologic slate" for new ones.When this happens it is called ________.
A)an ecoshift
B)a half life
C)an iridium anomaly
D)a mass extinction
Q3) Compare and contrast relative age dating with radiometric age dating.What is a limitation (if any)of each?
Q4) The radioactive isotope, potassium-40, has argon-40 as a daughter product.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Paleophrenology is the study of fossils and ancient life forms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the name of a Phanerozoic era that means ancient life?
Q7) Give three ways that geologic formations can be correlated between localities.
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Q1) Compressional stresses are responsible for most normal faulting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the three types of differential stress in the Earth's lithosphere?
A)compression, shear, and tension
B)confined, unconfined, and directed
C)hydrostatic, lithostatic, and vibratory
D)upwards, downwards, and sideways
Q3) A thrust fault has ________.
A)slickensides parallel to its strike
B)a shallow inclination less than 45° and a hanging wall that slid down relative to the footwall
C)a shallow inclination less than 45° and a hanging wall that rode up over the footwall
D)a steep inclination more than 45° and a hanging wall that rode up over the footwall
Q4) Quartzite or marble is more likely to exhibit brittle behaviour?
Q5) A(n)________ has strata on both limbs dipping inward toward the axis.
Q6) Name three modern tools or techniques that aid in the mapping of large scale geologic structures.
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Q1) The Richter earthquake magnitude scale is based on the total amount of energy released by the earthquake, as measured on a seismograph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What happens inside a rock as a wave front from an S wave passes through?
A)The little parcel of rock rotates about its own location in an ellipse until the wave passes.
B)The little parcel of rock shimmies from side to side as the wave passes, with the greatest motion at the Earth's surface, dying out with depth.
C)The volume of the rock stays fixed, but it shears back and forth, distorting the rock's internal shape as the wave passes through.
D)The rock moves toward and away from the earthquake as the volume of the material alternately expands and contracts, changing the rock's density while the compression-rarefaction wave passes through.
Q3) The ________ is the point on the surface directly above the site of initial earthquake rupture.
Q4) The ________ discontinuity marks the boundary between the crust and mantle.
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Q1) On average, the slope across a continental shelf is about ________.
A)0.001°
B)0.1°
C)1.5°
D)5°
Q2) Which ocean floor sediment type comprises complex metallic lumps?
A)manganese nodules
B)terrigenous
C)biogenous
D)orogenous
Q3) How deep is the deepest portion of the ocean floor and what are these regions called?
A)2000 metres, submarine canyons
B)2500 metres, rift zones
C)4000 metres, abyssal plains
D)>10,000 metres, trenches
Q4) Submarine canyons form the deepest parts of the ocean basins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ and ________ comprise most biogenous sediments.
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Q1) What does the plate reconstruction, with the Atlantic Ocean closed up, do to the apparent polar wandering paths for Eurasia and North America, and what can we infer from this?
A)It makes them coincide, demonstrating that the opening of the Atlantic was the cause for the divergence seen today.
B)It makes them overlap but they are still strangely curved, implying the poles have still shifted so continental drift doesn't solve anything.
C)It indicates that the poles drift counterclockwise with time, implying Earth used to revolve the other way.
D)It really indicates that, because opposite polarities attract, the curves became stuck together.
Q2) In the early part of the 20th century, ________ argued forcefully for continental drift.
A)Karl Wagner
B)Peter Rommel
C)Alfred Wegener
D)Bill Kohl
Q3) What is the inclination of the earth's magnetic field near the north pole?
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Q1) Subduction ceases in a(n)________ type of convergent plate margin.
A)continent-ocean
B)ocean-ocean
C)accretionary
D)continent-continent
Q2) The elevation and uplift rate of mountain areas are determined isostatically by the densities and thicknesses of underlying rock layers all the way down to the mantle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A ________ is a ridge of steeply inclined, resistant strata exposed along the edges of an uplifted block of older rock.
A)hogback
B)hoodoo
C)monotreme
D)shellback
Q4) Mountains and mountain building processes have little direct influence upon regional climate.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)Frank Slide 1903
B)Madison Slide 1959
C)Hope Slide 1965
D)Furry Creek Slide 2008
Q2) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)earthquake
B)creep
C)liquefaction
D)rockslide
Q3) What two circumstances immediately preceded the 4:10 AM April 29, 1903 Frank Slide.
Q4) Pingoes are mounds on tundra that are cored by sand and gravel or ice?
Q5) Which rockslide dammed the Madison River and buried a campground?
A)Montana 1959
B)Alberta 1903
C)Missouri 1811
D)Quebec 2010
Q6) What is another name for swift destructive volcanic mudflows, like those formed during the 1980 Mount St.Helens eruption?
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Q1) Which component of the hydrologic cycle describes the recharge of water to the soil and groundwater systems?
Q2) Stream discharge is defined as the quantity of water flowing past a specific channel location per unit time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ refers to unconsolidated sediments deposited from streams.
Q4) ________ in a delta are essentially cross strata inclined toward deeper water.
A)Backset beds
B)Topset beds
C)Foreset beds
D)Bottomset beds
Q5) Wind gaps are abandoned water gaps where stream piracy has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Evapotranspiration and average stream velocity are both important components of the hydrologic cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What cycle describes water moving through Earth's hydrosphere?
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Q1) Which one of the following is not a speleothem?
A)geyserite
B)dripstone
C)stalactite
D)stalagmite
Q2) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)cavern
B)geyserite
C)sinkhole
D)tower karst
Q3) The term karst topography was first used in ________.
A)the Republic of Slovenia
B)eastern Canada in areas of fractured igneous and metamorphic rocks
C)India near the southern foothills of the Himalayan Mountains
D)Australia for the extremely dry interior area near Alice Springs
Q4) Porosity is a measure of the volume of open fracture space in rocks and interstitial space in unconsolidated geologic materials like alluvium and soils.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What feature originates where the water table intersects the land surface?
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Q1) The Pleistocene Epoch began about 6 million years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glaciers erode underlying bedrock in which two main ways?
Q3) Briefly describe the three processes that lead to the formation of a glacier.
Q4) Glaciers can deform internally to behave like a plastic material and flow because ________.
A)the bonds between successive layers of ice are weaker than those within a single layer, allowing the glacier to slip like a stack of cards
B)there are layers of pure liquid water between the annual layers of ice
C)there are layers of air between the layers of ice
D)there are round rock particles within the ice that act like little ball bearings
Q5) Briefly discuss the indirect effects of glaciation.Indicate whether such changes would occur in conjunction with glaciation or at some time later?
Q6) What term denotes a glacial valley that was partly flooded as sea level rose?
Q7) What are two problems with Paul Hoffman's "Snowball Earth Hypothesis"?
Q8) How do we know there was a Proterozoic glaciation in Ontario?
Q9) Unusually rapid, forward movements of glaciers are called ________.
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Q1) A ________ is closed depression in an arid region caused by ________.
A)kettle hole, boiling desert springs
B)sinkhole, wind abrasion
C)U-shaped valley, drying chinook winds
D)blowout, deflation
Q2) Deserts between 30 and 45 degrees of latitude are more extensive in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about deserts is true?
A)Although rainfalls are infrequent, erosional and deposition related to water is important in deserts
B)Deserts are located where there are ascending air masses and low atmospheric pressure
C)Deserts are defined by their sand content
D)Deserts are always located in hot, humid coastal areas
Q4) ________ are rocks with one or more flat surfaces abraded by windblown sand.
Q5) Deposits of windblown silt are called ________.
Q6) Compare and contrast sediment transportation by wind and by water.
Q7) In which hemisphere are mid-latitude deserts most common and why?
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Q1) The dominant effect of the late Pleistocene sea level change was shoreline advance around the globe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Falling tides and tidal currents flowing from an estuary to the open sea are known as
Q3) ________ is not a dynamic characteristic of a wave.
A)Fetch
B)Wavelength
C)Period
D)Velocity or speed
Q4) Spits and tombolos are deposited by reversing tides or wave generated currents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How big are most barrier islands?
A)1-5 kilometres wide by 15-30 kilometres long
B)10-25 kilometres wide by 75-100 kilometres long
C)>100 kilometres wide by > 350 kilometres long
D)1-5 metres wide by 15-30 metres long
Q6) What is beach drift?
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Q1) Government studies suggest solar energy could provide ________ percent of Canada's electricity.
A).5
B)5
C)50
D).05
Q2) Geothermal power generation in ________ relies hot waters related to near surface volcanic heat from modern igneous intrusions.
A)Nunavut
B)Iceland, Italy, New Zealand, and the USA
C)Saskatchewan
D)Nova Scotia
Q3) Banded Iron Formations, the common setting for iron ores, have been produced throughout geologic time wherever reducing conditions prevail in continental sedimentary basins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydroelectric dams last for millennia and require no maintenance.
A)True
B)False
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