Microbiology for Nursing Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on the relevance to nursing practice. The course covers the structure, physiology, classification, and genetics of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students learn about the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, infection control procedures, and the immune response, aligning theoretical concepts with clinical applications. Special attention is given to the roles of microorganisms in human health and disease, sterilization and disinfection techniques, specimen collection, and common laboratory diagnostics. This knowledge equips nursing students with essential skills for preventing and managing infectious diseases in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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27 Chapters
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1367 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a.
A)poison
B)antibody
C)vaccine
D)antibiotic
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are considered microbes except:
A)viruses
B)bacteria
C)protozoa
D)worms
Answer: D
Q3) Koch developed tuberculin,which he hoped would be a vaccine against tuberculosis.Tuberculin is:
A)the current vaccine used against tuberculosis
B)responsible for definitively proving that one organism causes one disease
C)administered as a skin test to diagnose tuberculosis
D)an exception to germ theory
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which developmental stage is it believed that antibiotic administration provides the highest risk of adversely affecting immune health and metabolic homeostasis
A)prenatally
B)while the immune system is still developing
C)in the adolescent
D)in the middle aged adult
E)in the geriatric
Answer: B
Q2) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
E)all are correct enterotype descriptions
Answer: D
Q3) A C-section affects the milk microbbiome by reducing its diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three fundamental particles of the atom are _____.
A)elements,molecules,and compounds
B)ions,cations,and anions
C)proteins,lipids,and sugars
D)protons,neutrons,and electrons
Answer: D
Q2) In salt,a sodium atom loses an electron to a chlorine atom.What is true about the chloride ion found in salt
A)It has one less electron than proton.
B)It is less chemically stable than a chlorine atom.
C)It is an anion.
D)It is in a covalent bond.
Answer: C
Q3) An ion is all of the following except:
A)a charged atom
B)an atom that has lost or gained one or more electrons
C)either a cation or an anion
D)an atom with the same number of protons as electrons
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "basic dyes" refers to the fact that these dyes are _____.
A)easily prepared
B)positively charged
C)attracted to positively charged cell structures
D)simple in their composition
Q2) In order to make use of light for a microscopic examination of an object the object must ________ or ________ light.
A)absorb,luminesce
B)transmit,absorb
C)transmit,reflect
D)reflect,absorb
Q3) The counterstain in the endospore stain is _____.
A)malachite green
B)crystal violet
C)safranin
D)methylene blue
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape
A)Spirochete
B)Coccus
C)Disc
D)Bacillus
Q2) What is the function of gas-filled vacuoles in aquatic photosynthetic bacteria
A)transducers to detect chemicals and signal the cells to respond
B)regulate the depth at which they float by changing amount of gas in vacuoles
C)change the handedness of the helix in which the bacteria is moving
D)allows the bacteria to respond to magnetic fields
Q3) Eukaryotic cells add rigidity to their plasma membrane by including what component in the membrane
A)Protein
B)Lipids
C)Sugars
D)Sterols
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes work by:
A)lowering the energy of the reactants.
B)raising the energy of the products.
C)decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.
D)increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
Q2) Which of the following is true about glycolysis
A)The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose.
B)It provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy.
C)Four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps.
D)The ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP.
Q3) Which statement is true about enzymes
A)Enzyme catalyzed reactions would not go forward without their specific enzymes.
B)Most enzymes catalyze several different reactions.
C)Coenzymes are organic molecules while cofactors are inorganic molecules.
D)An apoenzyme is a holoenzyme that is missing its cofactor.
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A growth medium consisting of only water,glucose and beef extract would be considered _____.
A)a defined synthetic medium
B)a complex medium
C)a chemically defined medium
D)two of these
Q2) Sporulation occurs in:
A)Clostridium
B)Staphylocoocus
C)Klebsiella
D)Citrobacter
Q3) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by _____.
A)dragging them across a solid surface
B)dispersing them in liquid media
C)killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar
D)embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segments of eukaryotic DNA that do not code for proteins:
A)are called introns
B)are found in all bacterial genes
C)can be considered by your immune system as enemy DNA
D)binds to proteins to form ribosomes
Q2) An mRNA molecule contains three nucleotide (triplet)units called _____.
A)amino acids
B)bases
C)codons
D)anticodons
Q3) In eukaryotes,transcription takes place in the ________ while translation takes place in the ________.
A)nucleus,nucleus
B)nucleus,cytoplasm
C)cytoplasm,nucleus
D)cytoplasm,cytoplasm
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an experiment such as Griffith's pneumococcal experiment which of the following,when injected into a mouse,would result in its death
A)Heat-killed,smooth pneumococci
B)Live,rough pneumococci
C)A mixture of heat-killed smooth pneumococci and live rough pneumococci
D)A mixture of heat-killed rough pneumococci and live rough pneumococci
Q2) DNA from an organism can be incorporated into a vector using the enzyme _____.
A)DNA polymerase
B)RNA polymerase
C)DNA ligase
D)restriction endonuclease
Q3) A ________ is a genetic sequence able to move from one location in a chromosome to another.
A)Plasmid
B)F factor
C)Transposon
D)R factor
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within the Kingdom Monera,the group of most interest to medical microbiologists is the:
A)cyanobacteria
B)eubacteria
C)archaeobacteria
D)prokaryotic bacteria
Q2) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that _____.
A)fungi are all unicellular,plants are all multicellular
B)fungi do not have a cell wall,plants have a cell wall
C)fungi cannot photosynthesize,plants can photosynthesize
D)fungi are prokaryotic,plants are eukaryotic
Q3) The Kingdom Monera was also known as the Kingdom _____.
A)Bacteria
B)Eubacteria
C)Prokaryotae
D)Archaeobacteria
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12
Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug or other agent that induces defects during embryonic development is known as a:
A)syncytia
B)capsomere
C)teratogen
D)carcinogen
Q2) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a:
A)lytic cycle
B)temperate cycle
C)lysogenic cycle
D)induction
Q3) Viruses that have plus strand RNA chromosomes that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as:
A)retroviruses.
B)proviruses.
C)viroids.
D)bacteriophages.
E)lytic phages.
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism that lives at the expense of another organism is a _____.
A)mutualistic
B)commensal
C)parasite
D)symbiont
Q2) Bread molds are members of the phylum _____.
A)zygomycota
B)ascomycota
C)basidiomycota
D)deuteromycota
Q3) Euglenoids contain a stigma,the purpose of which is to:
A)control the passage of molecules in and out of the cell
B)communicate with other cells
C)allow the protist to move toward light for photosynthesis
D)digest nutrients
Q4) Flatworms are known scientifically as _____.
A)platyhelminths
B)cestodes
C)nematodes
D)arachnids
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultraviolet radiation:
A)is the same as X rays
B)is the same as gamma rays
C)penetrates glass,cloth,paper and most other materials
D)kills microorganisms by damaging DNA and proteins
Q2) Which is a cationic detergent having four organic groups attached to a nitrogen atom and used to sanitize utensils
A)Quaternary ammonium compound
B)Propionic acid
C)Methylene blue
D)Ethylene oxide
Q3) The use of phenol as a standard with which to compare the effectiveness of other chemical disinfectants is referred to as the _____.
A)phenol coefficient
B)phenol concentration
C)phenol effectiveness
D)phenol conditions
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15
Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against:
A)viruses
B)protozoa
C)bacteria
D)fungi
Q2) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:
A)act as antimetabolites
B)inhibit ribosome function
C)disrupt cell membrane function
D)inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Q3) Destruction or inactivation of antimicrobial agents is an example of what kind of bacterial resistance mechanism
A)target alteration
B)membrane permeability alteration
C)enzyme development
D)enzyme alteration
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the factors below is NOT considered to be an example of a virulence factor
A)Prodrome
B)Leukostatin
C)Streptokinase
D)Adhesions
Q2) Exotoxins:
A)are soluble substances secreted into the host bloodstream
B)buildup after antibiotic treatment
C)require the bacteria to die or divide
D)consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Q3) Toxoid:
A)is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity
B)is an endotoxin
C)is insoluble in host tissues
D)destroys or damages neutrophils
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17
Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States:
A)includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease
B)shows a pattern of pandemics
C)has been increasing for the last ten years
D)is difficult to assess since the disease is no longer "notifiable"
Q2) Droplet nuclei:
A)are non-living carriers that transmit infectious pathogens
B)define the first case in an outbreak
C)consists of dried endospores
D)are filtered out of hemodialysis equipment
Q3) All of the following prevent and control nosocomial infections except:
A)infection control programs in hospitals
B)patient isolation procedures
C)proper education of staff
D)uncontrolled contamination in hemodialysis equipment
Q4) Bioterrorism:
A)is a new phenomenon
B)agents all transmit from one human to other humans
C)agents are all transmitted through mechanical vectors
D)none of these
18
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons are stimulated by viruses and _____.
A)are produced only by macrophages
B)stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells
C)form membrane attack complexes
D)none of these choices
Q2) Defensins:
A)are located within the lysosomal vesicles of phagocytes
B)are enzymes secreted by natural killer cells
C)defend against parasitic worms
D)are receptors for distinguishing between microorganisms
Q3) Recombinant interferon:
A)is of a different molecular form than that produced by infected cells
B)blocks virus replication but does not stimulate the adaptive immune system
C)unequivocally is the best available treatment for viruses and cancer
D)can be produced cheaply and abundantly
Q4) Acute phase response proteins:
A)include C-reactive protein (CRP)and mannose-binding protein (MBP)
B)all bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent
C)directly destroy abnormal cells
D)increase resistance of cells to viral infection
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except:
A)distinguishes self from non-self
B)specificity
C)memory
D)first-line of defense
Q2) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed,thus producing tolerance in the host is:
A)heterogeneity
B)memory
C)primary response
D)clonal deletion
Q3) All of the following correctly describe the structure of an antibody molecule except:
A)two identical light chains
B)heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds
C)binds 2 antigens per molecule
D)two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blocking antibodies formed in response to desensitization are composed of which class of antibody
A)IgG
B)IgD
C)IgA
D)IgM
Q2) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except:
A)tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host's immune system
B)the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue
C)tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient's tissue
D)all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after
Q3) Immunosuppression is important in transplant success; which of the following are immunosuppressive agents
A)Radiation
B)Methotrexate
C)Cyclosporine
D)all of these
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered resident microflora of the skin
A)Staphylococcus
B)Corynebacterium
C)E.coli
D)Streptococcus
Q2) Measles (also known as rubeola)could be described by each of the following statements except:
A)not very contagious
B)Koplik's spots seen on cheek mucosa
C)two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections
Q3) Cat scratch fever is caused by:
A)Spirillum minor
B)Pasteurella multocida
C)Bartonella hensalae
D)two of these
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22
Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginitis is made by the appearance of _____.
A)anaerobes in a microscope slide
B)clue cells
C)epithelial cells
D)endotoxin
Q2) What are the signs associated with congenital syphilis
A)Huchinson's teeth
B)Saber shin
C)Saddle-nose
D)All of these
Q3) All of the following defense mechanisms are present in the urogenital system except:
A)normal flora competing with opportunists
B)sphincter muscles
C)flushing action of fluids
D)high pH
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fungal infection leads to an allergic asthmatic response
A)Aspergillosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Cryptococcosis
D)Histoplasmosis
Q2) Cyanosis,which may occur during whooping cough,is:
A)a fainting spell
B)a vomiting incident
C)a bluing of the skin
D)formation of a red rash
Q3) Which of the following statements about prevention of whooping cough is false
A)DTP contains the acellular Pertussis vaccine (Recombinant DNA vaccine).
B)The whole cell vaccine caused a number of children to die or have brain damage.
C)The acellular vaccine is safer.
D)Babies are immunized early because they have no passive immunity from their moms.
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24
Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) How does fluoride help reduce dental decay
A)absorbs the acid that seeps down between rods of enamel
B)mineralization of fluoride fills in the spaces between enamel rods
C)kills the bacteria that are responsible for dental decay
D)two of these choices
Q2) Which is the only ciliated protozoan that causes a human disease similar to amoebic dysentery
A)Diphyllobothrium latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Balantidium coli
D)Taenia solium
Q3) Which microbe is responsible for a self-limiting disease whose symptoms include abdominal pain,fever (probably due to endotoxins),diarrhea with blood and mucus,within 8-48 hours of ingestion
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Salmonella enteritidis
D)Pseudomonas cocovenenans
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases was a problem during the Vietnam War as soldiers crawled on their bellies in low vegetation to avoid snipers
A)Scrub typhus
B)Murine typhus
C)Epidemic typhus
D)Leishmaniasis
Q2) Rickettsia are characterized by all of the following except:
A)gram-negative coccobacilli
B)obligate intracellular parasites
C)embryonated eggs are often used for cultivation
D)treatment with amoxicillin is usually effective
Q3) Epidemic typhus is characterized by all of the following except:
A)etiology is Rickettsia prowazekii
B)in WWI,killed 3 million Russians
C)there is no immunity after recovery
D)rash from trunk to extremities,but rarely on palms and soles
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) While over 90% of populations that live in closed environments (such as military bases,dormitories and day-care centers are carriers)only 1 of 1000 carriers will have meningitis.This statement refers to _____.
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)Haemophilus influenzae type B
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae
D)Haemophilus influenzae type F
Q2) Acanthamoeba polyphaga can accumulate on the surface of water in hot tubs.Upon infection,they cause:
A)eye ulcerations
B)skin ulcerations
C)meningoencephalitis
D)all of these choices
Q3) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is _____.
A)antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B)dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C)the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D)the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) How do the ONPG and MUG test detect microorganisms in water
A)color is changed by enzymes secreted by coliform bacteria
B)gas production in cultures of lactose broth
C)observing dark colonies of coliform organisms on EMB-lactose agar
D)colonies forming on surface of a sterile absorbent pad
Q2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect
A)The biosphere consists of three layers- the hydrosphere,lithosphere and atmosphere.
B)Communities with many populations of organisms are more stable than those with fewer populations.
C)Vegetative cells must have water.
D)The sun is the ultimate source of energy for all organisms in any ecosystem.
Q3) Which term is correctly matched with its definition
A)biotic factors - interaction of organisms with other organisms
B)ecology - all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors
C)ecosystem - organisms that are always found in a given environment
D)niche - recycling of life-essential elements and water
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Glutamic acid is probably the amino acid manufactured by fermentation in the greatest quantity.What is its major use
A)as a flavor enhancer
B)as a raw material for animals feeds
C)a nutritional supplement
D)a starting material for aspartame
Q2) Which of the following can be transmitted to humans who eat infected meat
A)anthrax
B)Q fever
C)listeriosis
D)all of these choices
Q3) In the second half of the 19 century,there was a mass emigration of Irish citizens to other countries due to which organism
A)Aspergillus fumigatus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Pseudomonas syringae
D)Phytophthora infestans
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