Microbiology for Health Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on topics relevant to the health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, classification, and ecology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on the roles of microbes in human health and disease, mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, and the principles of infection control and antimicrobial therapy. The course also examines current issues in public health microbiology, including emerging infectious diseases and antibiotic resistance, preparing students for careers in healthcare and biomedical fields.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) Which of the following theories was the Miller experiment designed to test?
A) the endosymbiotic origin of life
B) the idea that all the chemicals found in early Earth could have come together to form the basic components of cellular life
C) spontaneous generation
D) the RNA world hypothesis
Answer: B
Q2) The first cellular genome sequenced was a(n)
A) animal.
B) virus.
C) archaea.
D) bacteria.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a benefit of microorganisms?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) production of fermented foods
C) synthesis of vitamins
D) causative agents of disease
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) The main reason that climate change can affect infectious disease patterns is by
A) causing the evolution of new animal species that can serve as hosts to emerging pathogens.
B) altering where organisms can live.
C) increasing the virulence of pathogens.
D) decreasing the virulence of pathogens.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is most likely true of pathogens with a broad host range?
A) The pathogens are highly virulent in all hosts.
B) The pathogens are unlikely to be zoonotic diseases.
C) The pathogens are less likely than narrow host range pathogens to respond to antibiotics.
D) The pathogens recognize receptors that are very similar among different hosts. Answer: D
Q3) What is immunopathology?
Answer: Immunopathology refers to disease signs and symptoms caused by the host immune system in response to the pathogen.Immunopathologies may include runny nose,fever,rash,and headache.
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which microscope best allows the observation of internal cell structures in a natural state?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) electron microscope
Answer: B
Q2) You are performing a Gram stain on Gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the counterstain.What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) colorless
C) pink
D) blue
Answer: A
Q3) A ________ is the only way to observe live specimens.
Answer: wet mount
Q4) Immersion oil is used with the ________ objective.
Answer: 0.001
10 ³
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) Which of the following molecular formulas might be of an organic molecule?
A) H O
B) C H O
C) CH
D) NH
Q2) The bacterial cell wall offers protection against what type of environment?
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) endergonic
Q3) An exergonic reaction may still be slow if
A) the activation energy is high.
B) an enzyme is present.
C) product concentrations are low.
D) reactant concentrations are high.
Q4) Molecules with which kinds of bonds are hydrophobic?
A) hydrogen
B) ionic
C) nonpolar covalent
D) polar covalent
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following helps compact bacterial DNA?
A) the origin of replication site
B) supercoils
C) porins
D) pilins
Q2) Mycoplasma lost their cell walls via reductive evolution.This was possible because
A) their cell membranes became extra thick to compensate.
B) it allowed them to not be sensitive to antibiotics that target the cell wall.
C) as obligate parasites they live in environments with constant osmolarity.
D) they live in soils with plenty of available moisture.
Q3) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Q4) What evidence would suggest that a newly discovered eukaryotic organelle was formed via endosymbiosis?
Q5) In Gram-negative bacteria,peptidoglycan is found in the A) cytoplasm.
B) inner membrane.
C) outer membrane.
D) periplasm.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Direct counting of bacterial cells under the microscope can be accomplished using a ________.
Q2) Aerobic bacteria are capable of using ________ as a terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
Q3) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT necessary for endospore formation?
A) exopolysaccharide formation
B) peptidoglycan synthesis
C) dipicolinic acid synthesis
D) calcium transport
Q5) A new enzyme that helps protect a bacterial cell from reactive oxygen species has been discovered.During which phase of growth would you expect the gene that codes for this enzyme to be expressed?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) late log phase
D) stationary phase
Q6) A ________ contains only the most basic compounds an organism needs to grow and nothing more.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q2) In a metabolic reaction involving the conversion of NADH to NAD
A) NADH loses electrons and gains energy.
B) NADH gains electrons and gains energy.
C) NADH loses electrons and loses energy.
D) NADH gains electrons and loses energy.
Q3) At the end of the TCA cycle most of the energy originally present in glucose is now found in
A) CO .
B) NADH.
C) NADPH.
D) ATP.
Q4) Yeast ferment hexose sugars into two molecules of ethanol and two molecules of CO .This reaction is used in bread making-the CO causes the dough to rise.Explain why this reaction is so sensitive to temperature,slowing down considerably at lower temperatures.
Q5) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q6) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Q7) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed in the presence of the toxin.A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene.Which of the following is true?
A) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
B) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator.
C) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
D) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator.
Q2) Except for the initiating fMet tRNA,what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a ribosome?
A) first E, then P, and finally A
B) first A, then P, and finally E
C) first E, then A, and finally P
D) first P, then A, and finally E
Q3) A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Why might an organism transform DNA that is homologous to its own?
A) as a food source
B) to obtain new DNA
C) to repair its own damaged genome
D) Organisms are not capable of transforming homologous DNA.
Q2) Without selective pressure,a species is at risk of experiencing
A) random mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) reductive evolution.
D) endosymbiosis.
Q3) How do bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A) restriction digestion
B) methylation of target sequences
C) generalized recombination
D) site-specific recombination
Q4) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
Q5) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
Q6) Create an example that shows how random mutations lead to natural selection and divergence of organisms.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The mycelia of Streptomyces and other actinomycetes are known to produce
A) lactic acid.
B) endospores.
C) antibiotics.
D) statins.
Q2) The most abundant phototrophs in the ocean are single-celled and include the genera
A) Treponema and Chlamydia.
B) Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus.
C) Merismopedia and Nostoc.
D) Oscillatoria and Campylobacter.
Q3) The major group of bacteria that causes sexually transmitted infections and the eye disease trachoma and are obligate intracellular pathogens is ________.
Q4) Structures found in some Gram-positive bacteria that resist desiccation,radiation,freezing,and chemical disinfectants are ________.
Q5) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
Q6) The form of a Chlamydia species outside of a host cell is referred to as a(n)________ body.
Q7) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
Q2) How is the development of a hookworm larva different from the development of a pinworm larva?
Q3) Fungal filaments associated with the root systems of trees that expand the trees' access to water and nutrients are known as A) mycorrhizae.
B) molds.
C) chitin.
D) saprophytes.
Q4) What is the function of the apical complex on a merozoite form of Plasmodium falciparum?
A) The apical complex is used for aerobic cellular respiration.
B) The apical complex is used to allow a merozoite to enter a red blood cell.
C) The apical complex is used to allow asexual reproduction.
D) The apical complex is used to provide energy for flagella.
Q5) Describe two positive impacts fungi have on our environment.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid is known as a ________.
Q2) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics do HPV and HIV have in common?
A) They are both retroviruses.
B) They both have overlapping genes.
C) They are both DNA viruses.
D) The have the same tissue tropism.
Q4) Which of the following facts supports the argument that viruses are living?
A) Viruses lack metabolism for energy and biosynthesis.
B) Viruses are capable of being crystallized.
C) Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a host.
D) Viruses cannot replicate without a host.
Q5) Why must influenza have highly efficient host-to-host transmission?
A) because of its rapid infection
B) because of its slow infection
C) because of genetic reassortment
D) because of latent infection
Q6) Differentiate between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.Explain how one can lead to a global pandemic.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) The presence of ________,such as blood,can require longer exposure times to a chemical in order to achieve true disinfection.
Q2) Glycerol is used to protect cells during
A) refrigeration.
B) deep-freezing.
C) lyophilization.
D) filtration.
Q3) Neuraminidase inhibitors that target viral release can be used to treat infections with ________.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a purpose of low temperatures in microbiology?
A) inhibit microbial growth
B) stop microbial metabolism
C) kill microorganisms
D) preserve microorganisms
Q5) Administering antibiotics before knowing the cause of the infection is specifically known as
A) chemotherapy.
B) empirical therapy.
C) prophylactic therapy.
D) persistence therapy.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Lipopolysaccharides,flagellin,and double-stranded DNA are microbe-associated molecular patterns recognized by A) tight junctions.
B) ribosomes.
C) tumor necrosis factors.
D) pattern recognition receptors.
Q2) A noninfectious disease that can be linked to changes in the microbiota is
A) yeast infection.
B) C. difficile infection.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) stomach flu.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an argument for the consideration of the microbiome as a separate organ system?
A) There are ten times more microbial cells than human cells in the body.
B) Microbiomes are contained in defined and relatively independent parts of the body.
C) Defects in microbiome composition can have dire effects on human health.
D) A human microbiome is inherited from the mother and father.
Q4) Explain two potential negative effects of using phage therapy to treat bacterial infections.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
Q2) All of the following is true regarding a fever EXCEPT that A) the use of fever reducers helps to speed recovery.
B) a fever creates an unfavorable environment for microbial growth. C) substances that cause a fever are known as pyrogens.
D) thermoregulation is maintained by the hypothalamus.
Q3) There are two general types of interferons,type I and type II.Describe how type I interferons work to prevent the host from infection.
Q4) A consequence of chronic inflammation for the host is the formation of a A) boil.
B) granuloma.
C) abscess.
D) cyst.
Q5) Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)includes all of the following EXCEPT A) tonsils.
B) adenoids.
C) M cells.
D) alveolar macrophages.
Q6) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________. Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Proteins that do not require antigen processing and presentation are referred to as
Q2) Which of the following would most directly eliminate an intracellular pathogen such as a virus?
A) production of antibody
B) activation of B cells
C) activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) activation of helper T cells
Q3) The second signal required for T<sub>C</sub> activation is
A) binding of a CD28 molecule on the T cell to a B7 protein on an antigen-presenting cell.
B) secretion of the cytokine IL-2 from a T<sub>H</sub>1 cell.
C) binding of a CD8 molecule on the T cell to an antigen-MHC I complex on an antigen-presenting cell.
D) secretion of the cytokine IL-1 from a T<sub>H</sub>0 cell.
Q4) One way a pathogen may attempt to evade an immune response is by downregulating the production of Class I MHC molecules on infected cells.What type of pathogen would benefit from this adaptation and how would the pathogen benefit?
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells.This is an example of a(n)
A) DNA vaccine.
B) attenuated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid.
Q2) All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases EXCEPT A) lupus.
B) Lyme disease.
C) Graves' disease.
D) type-1 diabetes.
Q3) An autoimmune response is generated within the host when A) immune tolerance against self is lost.
B) immune cells attack foreign antigens.
C) NK cells bind host tissue.
D) T cells deactivate self-reacting B cells.
Q4) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
Q5) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of hepatitis in a patient's blood sample.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Some microbes use tiny molecular syringes called ________ to inject proteins directly into the host cytoplasm.
Q2) All of the following are true about bacterial capsules EXCEPT
A) they are produced by intracellular pathogens to avoid the host immune system.
B) they coat bacterial cell wall components inhibiting phagocytosis.
C) the slippery nature of capsules make "grabbing" the bacterial cell difficult.
D) the immune system attacks encapsulated organisms with opsonizing antibodies.
Q3) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)primarily targets which subset of immune cells?
A) CD8+ T cells
B) CD4+ T cells
C) macrophages
D) dendritic cells
Q4) In viruses such as influenza,the ability to undergo a major genetic alteration is called
A) antigenic drift.
B) antigenic shift.
C) antigenic variation.
D) antigenic binding.
Q5) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Keratitis is inflammation of the
A) lens.
B) retina.
C) cornea.
D) sclera.
Q2) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat.Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother,who had shingles.What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) rubella
D) fever blisters
Q3) Which of the follow is NOT caused by HSV-1?
A) cold sores
B) canker sores
C) herpes whitlow
D) herpes encephalitis
Q4) Explain the cycle of acne.What is the causative agent and why are some individuals more prone to acne than others?
Q5) A sight-threatening inflammation of the cornea is referred to as ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) As a result of an antigenic shift
A) influenza is able to evade the host immune system by presenting a new hemagglutinin structure.
B) the host immune system is better able to detect and respond to influenza viruses.
C) the influenza viral protein M2 becomes hidden within the virion envelope.
D) alpha 2,6 receptors are able to bind to the alpha 2,3 sialic acid residues.
Q2) Of the viral respiratory diseases below,which is LEAST likely to present with a fever?
A) the common cold
B) croup
C) influenza
D) respiratory syncytial disease
Q3) A young man who enjoys spelunking,the recreational sport of exploring caves,develops a flu-like pulmonary illness along with erythema nodosum and arthralgia.The most likely fungal infection in this man is A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) cryptococcosis.
D) blastomycosis.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of diseases are transmitted by mosquitoes?
A) malaria and toxoplasmosis
B) babesiosis and Chagas' disease
C) leishmaniasis and schistosomiasis
D) lymphatic filariasis and malaria
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) babesiosis
C) leishmaniasis
D) schistosomiasis
Q3) What causes symptoms of malaria to occur every 48-72 hours?
A) The life span of sporozoites is approximately 48-72 hours.
B) The liver releases merozoites every 48-72 hours.
C) Sporozoites are converted into merozoites during a 48-72-hour cycle.
D) Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.
Q4) The blood vessels returning oxygenated blood to the heart are the ________.
Q5) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
Q6) Drugs used to treat the major systemic bacterial diseases fall into the category of ________.
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Q7) The asexual cycle of plasmodium within humans occurs within the ________ system.
Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
Q2) Oophoritis can result in ________ infected with mumps.
A) prepubescent males
B) postpubescent males
C) prepubescent females
D) postpubescent females
Q3) Why would a nondeadly intestinal pathogen most likely want to cause diarrhea?
A) to leave before the host is irreparably harmed
B) to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the pathogen
C) to escape to a different organ system
D) to flush out the competition
Q4) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
Q5) A patient presents at the clinic exhibiting signs of jaundice.How can you confirm that the individual has jaundice?
A) urinalysis
B) spinal tap
C) eye exam
D) MRI
Q6) ________ results when intestinal mucosal cells increase ion secretion.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Lashandra is 24 years old and had been experiencing increased frequency of urination and dysuria (pain or burning with urination)over the previous three days.This was the first time Lashandra had ever suffered from persisting dysuria.She consulted her general practitioner,who requested a midstream specimen of urine.Upon microscopic examination,the urine was found to contain more than 50 leukocytes/_l (normal is fewer than 5)and 35 red blood cells/_l (normal is 3-20).Epithelial cells from the urogenital area contaminate a midstream specimen if the specimen is not collected properly.No squamous epithelial cells (skin cells)were seen,indicating a well-collected midstream catch.The urine culture plated on agar medium yielded more than 105 colonies/ml (meaning more than 105 organisms/ml in the urine)of a facultative,anaerobic,Gram-negative bacillus that can ferment lactose. Lashandra's physician is not likely to be surprised by the diagnosis of a UTI in a woman her age.Discuss Lashandra's potential risk factors for this disease.
Q3) Primary syphilis is an inflammatory reaction at the site of infection called a ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) poliomyelitis - respiratory route
B) meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route
C) rabies - direct contact
D) listeriosis - ingestion
Q3) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
Q4) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Q5) All of the following are caused by prions EXCEPT
A) sheep scrapie.
B) kuru.
C) rabies.
D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
Q6) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT that A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death occurs without proper treatment.
Q7) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Ten patients are diagnosed with shigellosis.Explain the importance of having a clinical laboratory identify the strains of Shigella in each patient.
Q2) What is the function of goat anti-rabbit IgG antibodies in a typical point-of-care immunochromatographic assay?
A) In the absence of antibodies in a clinical specimen, they bind to red colloidal gold particles.
B) They are conjugated with red colloidal gold particles and are used to bind to antigen in a clinical specimen.
C) In the presence of antigen in a clinical specimen, they prevent complexes from forming with rabbit antibodies.
D) In the absence of antigen in a clinical specimen, they bind rabbit antibodies attached to red colloidal gold particles.
Q3) Growth of a bacterium in the presence of bile salts indicates the organism is
Q4) A young child with meningitis is given an antibiotic prior to the identification of the causative pathogen.What is the appropriate term for this approach,and when would this approach most likely be used?
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) You turn on a television and catch the end of an interview with a young patient who developed a life-threatening MRSA infection after a routine surgery to remove his appendix.What is the term for this type of surgical wound infection,and how common are these infections?
Q2) Describe how the AIDS pandemic has influenced reemerging diseases in developed countries.
Q3) In developed countries,healthy individuals are typically able to handle occasional infections with some disease agents,but immunocompromised individuals are affected by these agents.The agents that can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals but that are often repelled by healthy individuals are
A) parasites such as ascariasis.
B) viruses such as hantavirus.
C) bacteria such as Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA.
Q4) A nurse stops by a new patient's room and observes a sign outside the door indicating that a disposable mask and gown should be worn in addition to latex gloves when caring for this patient.What are the two broad categories of patients that would require this extra step,and who is this gear designed to protect in each category?
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs as a result of using common bread mold to ferment soybeans during the production of tempeh?
A) Phytate is introduced.
B) Lectins are decreased.
C) Protein content is increased.
D) Autoimmune diseases are induced.
Q2) Using organisms such as bacteria to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site is referred to as ________.
Q3) A chicken producer in Georgia is considering installing a wetland rather than a traditional wastewater treatment facility to handle chicken manure and wastewater.Which of the following is an advantage of using a wetland?
A) Wetlands do not contain microbes.
B) Wetlands produce fewer odors than wastewater treatment facilities.
C) The cost of a wetland is only slightly higher than the cost of a wastewater treatment facility.
D) Wetlands do not take up much space.
Q4) Explain how the availability of oxygen in soil determines how microbes utilize organic compounds supplied by other organisms.
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