Microbiology for Allied Health Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on topics relevant to allied health professionals. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as their roles in human health and disease. The course covers concepts such as microbial metabolism, genetics, pathogenicity, immunology, epidemiology, and infection control. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, students will gain practical experience in aseptic techniques, microscopy, identification of pathogens, and understanding the impact of microorganisms on public health and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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27 Chapters
1367 Verified Questions
1367 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbes live in us,on us and nearly everywhere around us.Which of the following activities are microbes involved in
A)Decomposing dead organisms
B)Aiding the digestive processes of grazing animals
C)Capturing energy from the sun
D)All of these
Answer: D
Q2) A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a.
A)poison
B)antibody
C)vaccine
D)antibiotic
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterial genus was administered to President Carter to improve his cancer prognosis
A)Bacteroides
B)Salmonella
C)Bifidobacterium
D)E.coli
E)Prevotella
Answer: C
Q2) What is NOT an accurate description of the term enterotype
A)gut microbes that influence your weight and risk factors for other illnesses
B)the three grouping of microbes found in the human intestine
C)the microflora found in your colon
D)the three grouping of microbes found in the chimpanzee intestine
E)the microflora found in your pericardial cavity.
Answer: E
Q3) Age but not sex affects the gut microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium hydroxide,a strong base,is added to water,the pH of the solution
A)goes up
B)remains the same
C)goes down
D)cannot be determined
Answer: A
Q2) Which is a false statement about chemical reactions
A)Catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy.
B)Polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction.
C)Anabolic reactions require energy.
D)Energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds.
Answer: B
Q3) Anabolic reactions tend to:
A)use energy and break chemical bonds.
B)produce energy,and break chemical bonds.
C)produce energy and new chemical bonds.
D)use energy and produce new chemical bonds.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formula for the resolving power (resolution distance)of a lens is /2NA (wavelength /2 x numerical aperture).What does this say about resolving power
A)The smaller the wavelength,the greater the resolving power of the lens.
B)Resolving power is not related to the lens' numerical aperture.
C)We cannot precisely calculate a lens resolving power.
D)A larger resolving power is indicative of a better lens.
Q2) A compound microscope has _____.
A)two eyepieces
B)a total magnification of 5,000X
C)only fine adjustment and no coarse adjustment
D)more than one lens
Q3) Ultraviolet light is a key component of:
A)bright-field microscopy
B)dark-field microscopy
C)phase-contrast microscopy
D)fluorescence microscopy
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about bacteria
A)All bacteria cells are smaller than 100 micrometers in diameter.
B)The cell wall controls the movement of small molecules into and out of the cell.
C)Gram negative bacteria become protoplasts when their cell wall is digested away.
D)Bacterial endospores are reproductive structures.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the endosymbiotic hypothesis is false
A)Eukaryotic cells have both 70S and 80S ribosomes.
B)Mitochondria have their own DNA.
C)When removed from cells,mitochondria continue to grow and divide.
D)Mitochondria are about the same size as prokaryotic cells.
Q3) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false
A)All bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids.
B)Plants and fungi have cell walls.
C)Bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms.
D)Algal protists have cell walls.
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions
A)Cytochrome
B)FAD
C)Niacin
D)NAD
Q2) How is ATP formed by chemiosmosis
A)Charge difference of outer and inner membrane gives motive force to generate ATP
B)Nitrates are used as their final electron acceptor
C)The last step involves H O to be split into O
D)All of the metabolites enter the Krebs cycle
Q3) Electron transport chain:
A)involves transfer of O to electrons in the substrate
B)results in a net consumption of ATP
C)can be thought of as electrons acting as fish increasing in energy as they jump up a waterfall
D)none of these
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chocolate agar:
A)contains blood
B)is used exclusively for stock cultures
C)is nutrient poor
D)is a selective agar plate
Q2) Within a bacterial endospore,the spore is most closely surrounded by the _____.
A)spore membrane
B)cortex
C)cell membrane
D)spore coat
Q3) Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise
A)aerotolerant anaerobes
B)facultative anaerobes
C)obligate anaerobes
D)obligate aerobes
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lac operon RNA polymerase first binds to the:
A)promoter
B)operator
C)repressor
D)regulator
Q2) Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by:
A)substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA
B)adding an alkyl group to a nucleotide
C)removing an amino group from a nucleotide
D)causing breaks in chromosomes
Q3) Organisms that have lost the ability to synthesize a particular enzyme and which require certain nutrients to be added to their medium to maintain growth are termed:
A)phototrophs
B)auxotrophs
C)prototrophs
D)autotrophs
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toxin from which of the following bacteria is used as an insecticide
A)E.coli
B)B.thuringiensis
C)P.fluorescens
D)P.mirablis
Q2) Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells
A)transduction
B)transcription
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q3) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to:
A)direct synthesis of conjugation pili
B)provide resistance to certain antibiotics
C)induce the formation of tumors in plants
D)two of these
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strain is a subgroup of a _____.
A)phylum
B)class
C)family
D)species
Q2) The binomial name of a microbe is composed of its _____.
A)kingdom and genus names
B)genus name and a species modifier
C)family and class names
D)genus and family names
Q3) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that _____.
A)fungi are all unicellular,plants are all multicellular
B)fungi do not have a cell wall,plants have a cell wall
C)fungi cannot photosynthesize,plants can photosynthesize
D)fungi are prokaryotic,plants are eukaryotic
Q4) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is used to separate _____.
A)DNA by GC content
B)proteins by size
C)DNA by nucleotide sequence
D)proteins by amino acid sequence
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses are known for causing latent infections
A)adenoviruses
B)herpesviruses
C)poxviruses
D)parvoviruses
Q2) Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by:
A)host cell lysis
B)host cell rupture
C)budding
D)animal viruses never leave the host cell
Q3) A viral infection is treated with a drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase.Which of the following viruses would NOT be affected
A)Human Immunodeficiency virus
B)Murine leukemia virus
C)Hepatitis B virus
D)None of these choices
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycology is defined as the study of _____.
A)microbes
B)protists
C)fungi
D)plants
Q2) A mechanical vector:
A)lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host
B)simply carries microbes on the outside of its body
C)reproduces as an asexual form in this host
D)infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe
Q3) Which of the following statements about protists is true
A)The protozoan responsible for malaria is classified as a ciliate.
B)Eutrophication occurs when protists stop growing in a body of water.
C)Amoeba move by means of cilia.
D)All protists are eukaryotic.
Q4) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as _____.
A)obligate parasites
B)schizonts
C)hermaphrodites
D)accidental parasites
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surfactants include all of the following except:
A)alcohols
B)detergents
C)wetting agents
D)oxidizing agents
Q2) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered:
A)bacteriostatic
B)bactericidal
C)bacterial lysis
D)an inhibitor of growth
Q3) Formaldehyde,as an antimicrobial agent,is used for:
A)food preservation
B)to disinfect skin and inanimate objects
C)to treat protozoan and fungal infections
D)to inactivate viruses without destroying antigenic properties
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin was discovered by ____________ and was isolated by ________ .
A)Gerhard Domagk; Alexander Fleming
B)Selman Walksman; Ernest Fourneau and Paul Ehrlich
C)Ernst Chain and Howard Florey; Paul Ehrlich
D)Alexander Fleming; Ernst Chain and Howard Florey
Q2) Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to antimicrobial agents include all of the following except:
A)alteration of ribosomes
B)alteration of an enzyme
C)development of enzymes
D)alteration of normal microflora
Q3) The lowest concentration of drug that yields no growth during a second inoculation into fresh medium is called:
A)minimum bactericidal concentration
B)minimum inhibitory concentration
C)mutant prevention concentration
D)serum killing power
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species
A)does not change the pathogenicity
B)increases its fitness in broth culture
C)can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
D)can decrease the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
Q2) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship.
A)Parasitism
B)Mutualism
C)Commensalism
D)Contamination
Q3) Iatrogenic diseases:
A)include nosocomial infections
B)have no known causes
C)can be caused by chemicals,physical agents or viruses
D)are present at birth
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The worldwide spread of an infectious disease is called a/an:
A)epidemic
B)endemic
C)sporadic
D)pandemic
Q2) Which of the following does not contribute to the acquisition of nosocomial infections
A)Catheters
B)Surgical procedures
C)Home hygiene
D)Proper sanitation
Q3) A non-medicinal substance that has no effect on an individual,but the individual believes is a real treatment is known as a/an:
A)index case
B)human reservoir
C)zoonosis
D)placebo
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18
Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue debris,remains of digested microorganisms,injured cells and dead phagocytes is the content of:
A)pus
B)plasma
C)opsonin
D)tonsils
Q2) Leukocyte endogenous mediator:
A)elevates body temperature
B)lowers the plasma iron concentration
C)decreases the hosts metabolic rate
D)two of these
Q3) Which of the following is not a chemical barrier
A)Mucous membrane
B)Saliva
C)Gastric juice
D)Complement
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activated delayed hypersensitivity T (TD)cells:
A)release macrophage chemotactic factor
B)play a role in humoral immunity
C)suppress T cells
D)release perforin molecules
Q2) The ability of the specific immune system to distinguish a huge of different molecules is mediated by:
A)cross reaction
B)clonal selection
C)gamma globulin
D)species immunity
Q3) A compromised host _____.
A)may have a poor diet
B)may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity
C)usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases
D)two of these
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of lower respiratory anaphylaxis
A)Tuberculosis
B)Legionnaire's disease
C)Hay fever
D)Asthma
Q2) Which matches the correct hypersensitivity reaction with their type
A)Immediate (type I)- immune complexes
B)Cytotoxic (type II)- anaphylaxis
C)Immune complex (type III)- precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes
D)Cell-mediated (type IX)- blood transfusion
Q3) Which of the following statements about localized anaphylaxis is incorrect
A)"atopy" means "out of place"
B)demonstrates a wheal and flare
C)if the allergen enters the skin,may result in itching
D)is most likely life threatening
Q4) All of the following are associated with Type IV hypersensitivity except:
A)antigen presenting cells
B)plasma cells
C)sensitized TH1 cells
D)granulomatous lesions
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dermal warts:
A)are more common in older people than children
B)never go away on their own
C)are often treated by freezing the tissue and then excising the wart
D)two of these
Q2) Blastomycosis:
A)is common in the San Joaquin Valley
B)causes disfiguring granulomatous pus producing skin lesions
C)occurs mostly in young female children
D)two of these
Q3) Which viral disease is seasonal with an incidence highest in March and April
A)molluscum contagiosum
B)smallpox
C)chickenpox
D)human papillomavirus
Q4) Which statement about skin is incorrect
A)largest single organ of the body
B)dead epithelial cells function as a barrier for infections
C)normal microflora are very sensitive to the skin's antimicrobial substance
D)consists of a thin epidermis and a thicker underlying dermis layer
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the detection of cervical cancer is true
A)Pap smears is far more accurate than an HPV DNA test.
B)HPV DNA test can determine if there are abnormal cells present.
C)Vaccination against HPV will give false positives on the HPV DNA test.
D)60% of women with a positive HPV DNA test will show some abnormality in 5 years.
Q2) In the United States,the most prevalent STD is caused by _____.
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Haemophilus ducreyi
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q3) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched
A)Herpes Whitlow - fingers
B)HSV 2 - genital herpes
C)HSV 1 - labial fever blisters
D)Herpes gladiatorium - pneumonia
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Middle ear infections are common in children because _____.
A)they do not secrete cerumen
B)their tympanic membranes are thinner than in adults
C)their Eustachian tubes are shorter and wider
D)two of these choices
Q2) Pontiac fever is a mild form of _____.
A)tuberculosis
B)pneumonia
C)legionellosis
D)diphtheria
Q3) Pharyngitis is described as a _____.
A)sore throat
B)strep throat
C)viral infection
D)fungal infection
Q4) The pathogen responsible for the disease whooping cough is _____.
A)Rhinovirus
B)Bordetella pertussis
C)Corynebacterium
D)Haemophilus
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following infections can be self-limiting and will cease without treatment
A)Strongyloides
B)Pinworm
C)Trichinosis
D)Whipworm
Q2) Which term refers to severe diarrhea that often contains large quantities of mucus and sometimes blood
A)Enteritis
B)Hepatitis
C)Dysentery
D)Enterotoxicosis
Q3) Which disease is not always treated with antibiotics because the drugs seem to induce carrier state in the gallbladder
A)Staphylococcus food poisoning
B)Salmonellosis
C)Shigellosis
D)Asiatic cholera
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) All of the following refer to sickle-cell anemia except:
A)makes children more susceptible to infection with Erythrovirus
B)is caused by Lyme disease
C)protects against malaria
D)is a blood disorder
Q2) Which of the following is most prevalent during rabbit-hunting season and causes high fever,headache and buboes
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Bacillus anthracis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Borrelia burgdorferi
Q3) Which infection is seen in individuals with extreme stress,poor sanitation,and nutritional deficiencies,transmitted by body lice and had an impact on both World War I and II
A)Rickettsialpox
B)Dengue fever
C)Smallpox
D)Shinbone fever
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which is not a form of encephalitis
A)Eastern equine
B)St.Louis
C)JC
D)Venezuelan equine
Q2) The central nervous system includes all of the following except:
A)brain
B)spinal cord
C)nerves that reach the tissues in limbs
D)microglial cells
Q3) _______ is the only bacterial species known to destroy peripheral nerve cells.
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Herpes simplex I
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Mycobacterium leprae
Q4) Herpes meningoencephalitis usually follows _____.
A)a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract
B)a generalized herpes infection
C)a fever blister outbreak
D)an outbreak of genital herpes
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is used to control the of microbes in the air
A)UV light
B)triethylene glycol
C)cellulose acetate filters
D)all of these choices
Q2) Which would not be the habitat for terrestrial species of some microorganisms
A)desert
B)tundra
C)tropical rain forest
D)freshwater lake
Q3) The predominant genus of microbe found in ambient air is _____.
A)Cladosporium
B)Bacillus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Candida
Q4) Eutrophication leads to:
A)a decrease in oxygen
B)plants become very dense
C)abundant nutrient enrichment
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect
A)Single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein.
B)They are used in the production of steroid hormones.
C)They can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste.
D)They are currently used in animal feed.
Q2) Lyophilization involves:
A)irradiating foods
B)drying foods
C)freezing foods
D)two of these choices
Q3) Canned goods will _____.
A)not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory
B)not spoil because of the high salt content
C)will remain edible for years if not contaminated
D)have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment
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