Microbial Pathogenesis Test Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the complex interactions between pathogenic microorganisms and their hosts, focusing on the molecular mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease. The course covers topics such as the structure and function of microbial virulence factors, host immune responses, mechanisms of immune evasion, and the cellular and molecular basis of infection and disease progression. Current research techniques and strategies for developing antimicrobial therapies and vaccines are also discussed, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how pathogens contribute to human disease and how these diseases can be prevented or treated.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?
A) Subcellular properties
B) Antigenic properties
C) Resistant profiles
D) Nucleic acid sequence analysis
Answer: B
Q2) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:
A) macroscopic morphologic structure.
B) microscopic morphologic structure.
C) nucleic acid composition.
D) antigenic properties.
Answer: C
Q3) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:
A) classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.
B) classifies microorganisms, based on their genetic makeup.
C) classifies microorganisms, based on their phenotypic makeup.
D) classifies microorganisms, based on their cellular and colonial traits.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) A bacterial cell that contains an outer membrane and periplasmic space stains pink to red on Gram stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The bacteria were subjected to too much alcohol during the decolorization process, causing the organism to absorb the pink-to-red dye.
B) The bacteria with an outer membrane and periplasmic space should not be Gram stained because of their cell wall content.
C) Something is wrong with the lot of stains and may be expired. The gram stain reagents are most likely expired.
D) No discrepancy is present; organisms that contain an outer membrane and periplasmic space should stain pink because of their cell wall composition.
Answer: D
Q2) All genes within an organism make up that organism's:
A) chromosomes.
B) genome.
C) nucleotides.
D) DNA.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Pathogens are able to produce enzymes that directly destroy or inactivate antibodies.These enzymes are referred to as:
A) proteases.
B) nucleases.
C) collagenases.
D) polymerases.
Answer: A
Q2) Biochemicals known as cytokines serve to:
A) increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances.
B) attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes.
C) have substantial effects on the activities of other cells.
D) directly kill gram-negative bacteria.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) The agency that has published guidelines known as standard precautions to reduce the risk of disease transmission in laboratories is:
A) DHEC.
B) OSHA.
C) CDC.
D) EPA.
Q2) Biosafety Level 4 agents:
A) include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.
B) require only standard good laboratory technique.
C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.
D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.
Q3) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory bench top to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a(n):
A) surfactant.
B) disinfectant.
C) biocide.
D) antiseptic.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Holding media, such as Stuart's medium and Amie's transport medium, are used to:
A) maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.
B) support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms that are present.
C) prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid.
D) allow pathogenic organisms to grow while nonpathogenic organisms die.
Q2) Increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%)and approximately 15% O produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A) Aerobes
B) Anaerobes
C) Capnophiles
D) Microaerophiles
Q3) The best anticoagulant to prevent clotting of specimens, such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid, which are submitted for recovery of all types of microorganisms, is:
A) sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).
B) heparin.
C) citrate.
D) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:
A) safranin.
B) crystal violet.
C) Gram's iodine.
D) Gram's decolorizer.
Q2) The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
Q3) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
Q4) Magnifications in excess of 100,000 ´ are achieved by ________ microscopy?
A) bright-field
B) electron
C) dark-field
D) phase-contrast
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Which medium can be described as containing crystal violet dye to inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria and fungi and allows many types of gram-negative bacilli to grow?
A) Thayer-Martin agar
B) MacConkey agar
C) PEA
D) Hektoen enteric agar
Q2) Which medium can be described as suppressing the growth of most gram-negative organisms while allowing gram-positive bacteria to grow?
A) Chocolate
B) CNA blood
C) BHI
D) Thioglycollate
Q3) A positive pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR)test was observed on a species of Enterococcus.What color should be observed for this reaction?
A) Purple
B) Red
C) Green
D) Pink
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Target nucleic acid amplification (polymerase chain reaction [PCR])methods are based on:
A) the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B) detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C) the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are repeatedly applied through numerous cycles.
D) determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) The enzyme that has the ability to synthesize DNA from ribonucleic acid (RNA)is called:
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNAse.
C) helicase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) A sample suspected of containing Legionella pneumophila is treated with the dye fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC); however, the sample fluoresced a bright apple-green colony after it was processed.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) A technical error may have occurred.
B) The fluorescent bulb may have malfunctioned.
C) The results are accurate; no discrepancy is found.
D) A postanalytical error is to blame.
Q2) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:
A) react with many different types of antigens.
B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C) react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):
A) solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B) direct fluorescent antibody test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D) radioimmunoassay.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) For an accurate diagnostic of a current infection, acute and convalescent sera should reflect a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
A) decrease; two
B) increase; two
C) decrease; four
D) increase; four
Q2) Cell-mediated immune responses, such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells that are damaged or infected, are carried out by:
A) lymphocytes of the thymus-derived (T) class.
B) lymphocytes of the bone marrow-derived (B) class.
C) neutrophils.
D) nasophils.
Q3) The difference between latex agglutination and hemagglutination is:
A) the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B) the type of target organism involved.
C) that hemagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D) that hemagglutination procedures are temperature sensitive.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q2) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q3) The mechanism of acquired, high-level resistance to vancomycin involves:
A) enzymatic destruction of the antibiotic.
B) altered antibiotic targets.
C) decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D) production of altered cell wall precursors that do not bind the antibiotic with sufficient avidity.
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for:
A) action of beta-lactamase inhibitors.
B) intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
C) production of beta-lactamase by the infecting organism.
D) intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by altered antibiotic targets.
Q2) The antibiotic nitrofurantoin is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.This antibiotic is effective against which type of specimen?
A) Blood
B) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
C) Urine
D) Sputum
Q3) Growth on the oxacillin agar screen means that a patient should be treated with which antibiotic?
A) Oxacillin
B) Methicillin
C) Vancomycin
D) Cephalosporin
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The species of Staphylococcus, which is one of the most important human pathogens, is:
A) S. lentus.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. mucilaginosus.
D) S. intermedius.
Q2) The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of:
A) clumping factor.
B) free coagulase.
C) extracellular coagulase.
D) catalase.
Q3) In clinical isolates, the most likely identification of coagulase-positive, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be:
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Staphylococcus intermedius.
C) Stomatococcus luteus.
D) Micrococcus aureus.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q2) Which species of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases such as rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, and exudative pharyngitis?
A) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) S. pyogenes
C) S. pneumoniae
D) Enterococcus
Q3) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages, and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?
A) Beta-hemolytic and susceptible to optochin
B) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-negative
C) Gamma-hemolytic and resistant to optochin
D) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-positive
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A) Thayer-Martin agar.
B) 5% sheep blood agar.
C) MacConkey agar.
D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q2) A patient diagnosed with Bacillus anthracis is allergic to penicillin.Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?
A) Ampicillin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Imipenem
D) Vancomycin
Q3) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is nonhemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) B. cereus
C) B. mycoides
D) B. anthracis
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Bacillus cereus.
Q2) A pharyngeal specimen is inoculated on cystine-tellurite blood agar, modified Tinsdale agar, and MacConkey agar.After 48 hours of incubation, black colonies with a brown halo are observed on the Tinsdale agar and gray colonies are isolated from the cystine-tellurite agar.However, no growth is observed on the MacConkey agar.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The MacConkey agar is most likely expired.
B) The MacConkey agar should be incubated an additional 24 hours to observe growth.
C) The pH of the media may be altered, causing an environment that is too acidic for the organism to grow.
D) No discrepancy is present; this organism does not grow on MacConkey agar.
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal large:
A) squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B) numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C) numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D) pleomorphic gram-negative rods with many leukocytes.
Q2) A 28-year-old woman suspected of having sepsis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis has multiple blood cultures drawn; however, all sets were negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The lot of blood culture media is most likely defective.
B) The blood culture bottles should be incubated anaerobically to enhance the growth of the organism.
C) Gardnerella vaginalis is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) in the blood culture.
D) No discrepancy is present. Gardnerella vaginalis remains localized and does not cause sepsis.
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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface, which are called _____ hyphae.
A) surface
B) substrate
C) aerial
D) topical
Q2) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A) Mycetoma
B) Lymphocutaneous infections
C) Skin abscesses or cellulites
D) Invasive pulmonary infections
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A) Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B) Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C) Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D) Nocardia and Streptomyces
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) This organism, belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae, grows best at 25º to 30º
C.Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism.What is the medium of choice?
A) MacConkey agar
B) Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar
C) Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar
D) Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
Q3) If an organism were a glucose and lactose fermenter, the LIA reaction would be:
A) K/A.
B) A/K.
C) A/A.
D) K/K.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Pseudomonas luteola
C) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D) Bordetella holmesii
Q2) Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by:
A) the oxidase test.
B) maltose and glucose medium.
C) tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D) nitrate reduction.
Q3) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Pseudomonas pseudomallei
C) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group
D) Brevundimonas diminuta
Q2) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A) Burkholderia ralstonia
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia cepacia
Q3) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by which one of the following?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Ralstonia pickettii
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia pseudomallei
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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The reservoir for Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) environment only, not human flora.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) environment and human flora.
Q2) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar, oxidizes glucose and xylose, and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B) Paracoccus yeei
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
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Q1) A patient with a bacteremia identified as Elizabethkingia meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin; however, the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A) The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B) The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C) Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D) An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
Q2) Quality control was performed to determine the validity of urea agar.Sphingobacterium multivorum and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica were used, which yielded positive for S.multivorum and negative for E.meningoseptica.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The urea agar is most likely expired.
B) The pH is off on the urea agar.
C) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control because they are both urea-positive.
D) No discrepancy is present; the results are valid.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all:
A) urea-positive.
B) oxidase-negative.
C) nonglucose utilizers.
D) lactose fermenters.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella?
A) The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C) The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q3) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) The transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by:
A) exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B) ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q2) Vibrio cholera and V.alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?
A) Green
B) Black
C) Yellow
D) Blue
Q3) Stool specimens suspected of containing which of the following enteric pathogens should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A) Vibrio
B) Salmonella
C) Shigella
D) Plesiomonas
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?
A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe
C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis
Q3) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Sphingomonas
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following tests can be performed to differentiate the two subspecies of Neisseria-elongata and glycolytica?
A) Catalase
B) Nitrate reduction
C) DNase
D) Growth in nutrient broth
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lacunata will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
Q3) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:
A) M. catarrhalis.
B) M. lacunata.
C) M. canis.
D) M. atlantae.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A) pink pigmentation.
B) grapelike odor.
C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D) bleachlike odor.
Q2) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A) 4º C
B) 25º C
C) 35º C
D) 56º C
Q3) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B) Eikenella corrodens
C) Pasteurella multocida
D) Weeksella virosa
Q3) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B) Eikenella corrodens.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Weeksella virosa.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Kingella denitrificans, which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar, also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A) Capnocytophaga spp.
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q2) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pasteurella multocida
D) Actinobacillus spp.
Q3) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by its:
A) negative test for catalase.
B) positive test for lactose fermentation.
C) positive test for catalase.
D) negative test for oxidase.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Isolates from an ear swab that are gram-negative coccobacilli grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar, require both X and V factors for growth, and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:
A) Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
B) H. ducreyi.
C) H. aphrophilus.
D) H. influenzae.
Q2) A 6-year-old boy was diagnosed with purulent conjunctivitis caused by a species of Haemophilus.What would the biochemical profile of the organism be?
A) Growth requirements require both X and V factors; the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
B) Growth requirements require both X and V factors; the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
C) Growth requirements require V factor; the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
D) Growth requirements require X factor; the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
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33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A) probes.
B) polymerases.
C) primers.
D) restriction enzymes.
Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q3) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A) B. bacilliformis
B) B. henselae
C) B. elizabethae
D) B. clarridgeiae
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:
A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C) multiplication of the organism in food products.
D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q2) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions
B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions
C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions
D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions
Q3) Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?
A) Campylobacter coli and C. concisus
B) C. curvus and C. hyointestinalis
C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei
D) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. coli
Q4) Virulence determinants of Helicobacter pylori include:
A) proteases.
B) urease enzyme.
C) hemolysins.
D) exotoxins.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q3) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A) Fluoroquinolones
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Aminoglycosides
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A) dairy farmers.
B) fishermen.
C) prison guards.
D) those working with exotic birds.
Q2) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A) cattle.
B) sheep or goats.
C) swine.
D) dogs.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
Q4) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:
A) throat swabs.
B) sputum.
C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D) anterior nose swabs.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:
A) runny nose and mild cough.
B) severe and violent coughing.
C) neutrocytosis and fever.
D) lymphadenitis.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A) Brucella spp.
B) Bordetella spp.
C) Pasteurella spp.
D) Francisella spp.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) Cysteine and cystine
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q2) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A) is oxidase-negative.
B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q3) Which assay is available to identify Francisella tularensis serologically?
A) Complement fixation
B) Direct fluorescent antibody test
C) Immunodiffusion assays
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Spirillum minus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Q3) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.
A) hydrogen (H2)
B) carbon dioxide (CO2)
C) nitrogen (N2)
D) nitrate (NO3)
Q2) MTM, Martin-Lewis (ML), and New York City (NYC)media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?
A) Moraxella catarrhalis
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) N. gonorrhoeae
D) N. mucosa
Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. lactamica
B) N. mucosa and Moraxella catarrhalis
C) N. lactamica and M. catarrhalis
D) N. sicca and N. subflava
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Rectal swab is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q2) Percutaneous lung aspirate is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q3) PEA agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q4) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q5) Aspiration of peritoneal fluid using a needle and syringe is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
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Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) A diabetic patient has developed gas gangrene of the right foot.The most likely anaerobe causing this infection is:
A) Clostridium tetani.
B) C. perfringens.
C) C. botulinum.
D) C. difficile.
Q2) The most likely identification of an anaerobic, curved, gram-variable bacillus with tapered ends on Gram stain of vaginal secretions when vaginosis is suggested is:
A) Porphyromonas spp.
B) Actinomyces.
C) Mobiluncus.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
Q3) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that will fluoresce brick red or has a brown-to-black-pigment is:
A) nonpigmented Prevotella.
B) Porphyromonas spp.
C) Bacteroides fragilis group.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?
A) 1 mL
B) 5 mL
C) 10 mL
D) 20 mL
Q2) The type of specimen collected for mycobacterial studies that must be neutralized with 10% sodium carbonate is:
A) spontaneously produced sputum.
B) gastric lavage.
C) transtracheal aspiration.
D) bronchial lavage.
Q3) Examples of the mycobacterial species that occur in humans and belong to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex include:
A) M. tuberculosis, nontuberculous mycobacteria, M. bovis, and M. africanum.
B) M. tuberculosis, M. gordonae, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum.
C) M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. avium, and M. intracellulare.
D) M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale, which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, and part of South America, is:
A) clindamycin.
B) doxycycline.
C) imipenem.
D) gentamycin.
Q2) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A) RB
B) EB
C) Replicate body
D) Initial body
Q3) A Weil-Felix test was performed on serial dilutions from a patient bitten by a tick.The results obtained were positive for OX-19 and negative for OX-2 and OX-K.Based on these findings, the organism can be identified as:
A) Rickettsia rickettsii.
B) Orientia tsutsugamushi.
C) Rickettsia prowazekii.
D) Rickettsia typhi.
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Chapter
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Q1) Which group of drugs is effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?
A) Beta-lactams
B) Sulfonamides
C) Cephalosporins
D) Fluoroquinolones
Q2) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?
A) Ureaplasma urealyticum
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) M. hominis
D) M. genitalium
Q3) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma spp., which causes infectious disease in humans, can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of humans.
B) aquatic environment.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospirae that includes fever, headache, myalgia, and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called:
A) icteric leptospirosis.
B) anicteric leptospirosis.
C) Weil's disease.
D) syphilis.
Q2) Recombinant antigens
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) A stage of venereal syphilis, characterized by tissue destruction, central nervous system disease, cardiovascular abnormalities, eye disease, and granuloma-like lesions, is known as ________ syphilis.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Paragonimus infection is:
A) sputum.
B) blood.
C) urine.
D) stool.
Q2) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Cryptosporidium spp.
D) Balantidium coli
Q3) Some strains of leishmaniae have reservoir hosts, including dogs and wild rodents.Transmission is via the bite of a:
A) tsetse fly.
B) tick.
C) sandfly.
D) triatomid bug.
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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) When cooking meat, an internal temperature of ____° C must be reached to kill organisms such as Toxoplasma and Sarcocystis.
A) 38
B) 48
C) 58
D) 68
Q2) Entamoeba coli, a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 microns in diameter, can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?
A) Small, usually compact
B) Large, usually compact
C) Small, irregularly shaped
D) Large, not compact
Q3) The peripheral chromatin, which contains fine granules that are uniform in size and are evenly distributed, can be found in which one of the following protozoa?
A) Endolimax nana
B) Iodamoeba butschlii
C) Entamoeba coli
D) Entamoeba histolytica
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Chagas disease is caused by:
A) Trypanosoma rangeli.
B) T. cruzi.
C) T. brucei rhodesiense.
D) T. brucei gambiense.
Q2) Plasmodium vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube; however, the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined, Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P. vivax infections.
B) The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.
C) The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.
D) The blood remained in the tube too long, yielding false-negative results.
Q3) P.knowlesi
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape; size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal; oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q2) A 15-year-old male was diving in a lake when he inhaled some of the stagnate water.Five days later he was admitted to the hospital, comatose and in critical condition.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen was taken, and several motile amoebae were observed.The patient would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following conditions?
A) Granulomatous amebic encephalitis
B) Primary amebic meningoencephalitis
C) Secondary amebic encephalitis
D) Chronic granulomatous meningitis
Q3) The CSF would reveal which of the following results in infections caused by N.fowleri?
A) Increased glucose, increased protein, and positive Gram stain
B) Decreased glucose, decreased protein, and negative Gram stain
C) Decreased glucose, increased protein, and negative Gram stain
D) Increased glucose, decreased protein, and positive Gram stain
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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A short buccal capsule, large bulb on the esophagus, and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Capillaria philippinensis
C) Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
Q2) The eggs of the Ascaris lumbricoides worm are ingested and hatched in the duodenum, penetrate the intestinal wall, and migrate to the hepatic portal circulation.Its geographic distribution and infection rate are associated with:
A) institutional crowding.
B) poor sanitation.
C) day care centers.
D) moist warm soil.
Q3) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Trichostrongylus spp.
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:
A) normal.
B) insignificant.
C) diagnostic.
D) negative.
Q2) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A) mosquito.
B) microfilaria.
C) humans.
D) tabanid fly.
Q2) Onchocerca volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q3) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A) Wuchereria bancrofti.
B) Onchocerca volvulus.
C) Loa loa.
D) Brugia malayi.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) A stool specimen is examined, and the following characteristics are observed: 15 to 18 lateral branches on each side
Scolex with four suckers
No hooklets
The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:
A) cattle.
B) humans.
C) cats.
D) swine.
Q2) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A) dog.
B) cat.
C) flea.
D) human.
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
Q2) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A) Coenurosis
B) Cysticercosis
C) Hydatid disease
D) Sparganosis
Q3) In Echinococcus granulosus infections, the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A) Stomach
B) Brain
C) Intestines
D) Liver
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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater:
A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
Q2) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
Q3) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:
A) snails.
B) fish.
C) crabs.
D) shrimp.
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57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A) Snail
B) Crustacean
C) Copepod
D) Freshwater fish
Q2) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) Lung fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A) copepod.
B) crustacean.
C) freshwater snail.
D) freshwater fish.
Q2) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Metrifonate should have been administered.
B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C) Steroids should have been initially administered.
D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q3) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) A capsule and phenoloxidase melanin synthesis are virulence factors contributing to the pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?
A) Aspergillus spp.
B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
C) Blastomyces dermatitidis
D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Q2) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:
A) Candida albicans.
B) Coccidioides immitis.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) Aspergillus fumigatus.
Q3) If a fungal colony is described as rugose, then it means that the colony:
A) is furrowed or convoluted.
B) is slightly raised in the center.
C) furrows radiate out from the center.
D) has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) The slow-growing organism Trichophyton rubrum produces a flat or heaped-up colony, generally white to reddish with a cottony or velvety surface.The cherry-red color is best observed on the reverse side of the colony.This organism is capable of infecting which of the following?
A) Hair and nails
B) Skin and nails
C) Hair and skin
D) Hair, skin, and nails
Q2) Which genus is involved in infections of the skin and nails only?
A) Microsporum
B) Epidermophyton
C) Trichophyton
D) Scopulariopsis
Q3) Yeastlike cells with internal cross walls
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)Histoplasma capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Penicillium marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) An agricultural worker is punctured by a tool used in the field.An infection, characterized by the development of a papule that is similar to a cauliflower appearance, develops.The worker is most likely suffering from which type of infection?
A) Mycetoma
B) Chromoblastomycosis
C) Tinea nigra
D) Black piedra
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?
A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A) Metronidazole
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
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Page 63
Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) Creamy, white patches
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q2) Polysaccharide capsule
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q3) If cornmeal agar is set up and chlamydoconidia are produced, the organism is most likely:
A) C. krusei.
B) C. glabrata.
C) C. albicans.
D) C. tropicalis.
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64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Inhibits protein synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Genital
A)Varicella zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q2) A 2-year-old girl is suspected of having a rotavirus infection.The specimen of choice to collect to identify the agent is:
A) stool.
B) blood.
C) urine.
D) throat.
Q3) Urine
A)Varicella zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) Cold sore
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
Q2) Kaposi sarcoma
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
Q3) Myocarditis
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Page 67
Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) Saquinavir
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q2) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Inhibits viral plaque formation.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:
A) pathogenic.
B) virulent.
C) a contaminant.
D) normal flora.
Q2) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is:
A) the genitourinary tract.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) an abscess.
D) the biliary tract.
Q3) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?
A) Vitamin K
B) Vitamin B6
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin D
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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by:
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B) Chlamydia pneumonia.
C) parainfluenza virus.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is _____ pneumoniae.
A) Mycoplasma
B) Chlamydophila
C) Streptococcus
D) Klebsiella
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B) adults younger than 30 years of age.
C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D) school-age children.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Rhinitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Clinical specimens from suspected cases of epiglottitis should be plated at least to _______ agar(s).
A) sheep blood
B) sheep blood and chocolate
C) Regan-Lowe
D) charcoal horse blood
Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A) pharyngitis.
B) Vincent angina.
C) rhinitis.
D) thrush.
Page 71
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Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of
the Central Nervous System
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Q1) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q2) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) pleocytosis.
Q3) The most common source(s)of infection in the central nervous system (CNS)is(are):
A) hematogenous spread.
B) infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C) organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in CNS structures.
D) bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Canaliculitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) Keratitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A) Klebsiella pneumococci.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Streptococcus agalactiae.
D) Moraxella catarrhalis.
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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Cystitis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A) Enterobacteriaceae.
B) yeast.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching is referred to as:
A) chorioamnionitis.
B) bartholinitis.
C) cervicitis.
D) vaginitis.
Q2) Large amounts of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram-variable rods and coccobacilli, and the absence of inflammatory cells in vaginal discharge are signs of:
A) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B) bartholinitis.
C) cervicitis.
D) bacterial vaginosis.
Q3) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A) lactobacilli.
B) Streptococcus agalactiae.
C) Enterobacteriaceae.
D) staphylococci.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:
A) anaerobic species.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Enterococcus.
D) Enterobacteriaceae.
Q2) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q4) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A) Veillonella spp.
B) Clostridium spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
Q2) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:
A) Clostridium spp.
B) Bacteroides spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Actinomyces spp.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis.The Gram-stain reaction and morphologic features of the most probable pathogen causing this infection is:
A) gram-positive cocci.
B) gram-positive bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:
A) grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B) placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C) centrifugation with glass beads.
D) filtration under pressure.
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)are caused by:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis and S. aureus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D) Streptococcus spp.
E) viral agents.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Streptococcus agalactiae.
Page 78
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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Eliminating redundant motion, recognizing waste, and identifying what creates value from the patient's perspective is considered which type of process?
A) Lean methodology
B) Total Quality Management
C) Continuous Quality Improvement
D) Performance Improvement
Q2) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A) autonomous
B) nosocomial
C) opportunistic
D) septic
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q3) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A) Clinical
B) Sentinel
C) Reference
D) National
Q2) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated, and if the colony is oxidase-, urease-, and indole-negative and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain, then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A) Bacillus anthracis.
B) Francisella tularensis.
C) Brucella spp.
D) Yersinia pestis.
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A) biosecurity.
B) biocrime.
C) microterrorism.
D) cactiterrorism.
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