Microbial Genetics Final Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the molecular mechanisms that govern the inheritance, variation, and expression of genetic material in microorganisms such as bacteria, archaea, and viruses. The course covers fundamental concepts including DNA structure and replication, gene organization, mutation, genetic recombination, plasmids, transposons, and horizontal gene transfer. Emphasis is placed on experimental and analytical approaches used to study microbial genomes, as well as practical applications of microbial genetics in biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science. Students will also examine the role of genetics in microbial evolution, adaptation, and antibiotic resistance.
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Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) The discovery of microbes occurred in the ________ century?
A) seventeenth
B) eighteenth
C) nineteenth
D) twentieth
E) twenty-first
Answer: C
Q2) What did van Leeuwenhoek discover using microscopic observations before and after drinking hot beverages?
A) Heat did not kill microbes.
B) Heat killed microbes.
C) Heat did not kill algae.
D) Caffeine in coffee killed microbes.
E) The existence of spiral-shaped microbes.
Answer: B
Q3) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Atomic force microscopy measures ________ between a probe and an object to map the three-dimensional topography of a cell.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) covalent interactions
C) van der Waals forces
D) pH changes
E) magnetic interactions
Answer: C
Q2) As lens strength increases, the light cone ________ and the lens must be ________ the object.
A) narrows; nearer to B) narrows; farther from C) widens; nearer to D) widens; farther from E) widens; touching
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of these experiments would NOT be a reason to fractionate bacterial cells?
A) to obtain membrane fractions to study transport proteins
B) to purify ribosome subunits to study translation
C) to obtain periplasmic proteins to study chaperons from that space
D) to obtain cytoplasmic proteins such as FtsZ
E) to study the growth rate of E. coli in the presence of lactose
Answer: D
Q2) One similarity between a Gram-negative cell envelope and that of mycobacteria is that mycobacteria have
A) lipid A.
B) teichoic acids.
C) a porin.
D) S-layers.
E) ampicillin.
Answer: C
Q3) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The most common form of chemical energy is contained in the high-energy phosphate bonds of
A) water.
B) glucose.
C) ATP.
D) CO .
E) NADH.
Q2) All known microorganisms have a set of genes coding for ________, whose RNA sequences are highly conserved across the phylogenetic tree.
A) ribosomes
B) chloroplasts
C) enzymes
D) cell membranes
E) cell walls
Q3) What type of medium and conditions would you need to have in order to select for photoautotrophs?
Q4) Describe the differences between batch culture and growth in a chemostat. What are the advantages of a chemostat?
Q5) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Microbes accumulate ________ in the cell to prevent cell water loss in a hypertonic environment.
A) water
B) proteins
C) sugars
D) protons
E) compatible solutes
Q2) Which of the following enzymes are stable in part because they contain relatively low amounts of the small amino acid glycine?
A) psychrophilic
B) acidophilic
C) thermophilic
D) halophilic
E) barophilic
Q3) Give an example of a naturally occurring organic acid stress situation in the food industry. How does the food industry mimic this, and why?
Q4) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
Q5) Briefly describe three techniques used to culture anaerobes in the laboratory.
Q6) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q2) Which of the following is a term for the observable destruction of cells as a result of viral lysis?
A) tissue culture
B) lawn
C) soft agar
D) plaque
E) host
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE concerning HIV?
A) It is the causative agent of AIDS.
B) It makes a DNA copy of its RNA genome.
C) Reverse transcriptase is translated from an early gene.
D) The virion contains two copies of the HIV genome.
E) The viral RNA is copied into double-stranded DNA.
Q4) A(n) ________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
A) lytic
B) temperate
C) viroid
D) asymmetrical
E) oncogenic
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Describe three practical applications of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and possible pitfalls.
Q2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?
A) Reproduction in archaea is predominantly asexual.
B) RNA polymerase components of the archaeon Sulfolobus are homologous to those of eukaryotic RNA Pol II.
C) All known archaea have a single circular chromosome and genes organized in operons.
D) Archaeal DNA-packing proteins and ribosomal components closely resemble those of eukaryotes.
E) Both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes encode metabolic pathways of methanogenesis.
Q3) Gene transfer from parent to progeny is called A) expression.
B) horizontal gene transfer. C) vertical gene transfer. D) transformation. E) recombination.
Q4) What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?
Q5) Describe the functions of DNA Pol III.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a heat-shock protein?
A) trigger factor
B) GroES
C) GroEL
D) Clp protease
E) DnaK
Q2) Genes that have arisen from a duplication within a species and have evolved to carry out different functions are referred to as
A) homologs.
B) orthologs.
C) paralogs.
D) homogenous.
E) synonymous.
Q3) The significance of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is that it is the site where
A) RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
B) a ribosome binds so that it can initiate translation.
C) DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication.
D) the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation.
E) DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following LEAST supports the idea of genome reduction?
A) Pseudogenes found in some organisms are no longer expressed but have homology to functional genes in other species.
B) Virulence factors are found on pathogenicity islands.
C) Pathogenic shigellae lack major regions of genes that the closely related E. coli possesses.
D) Bacteria no longer need "pseudogenes" when growing in new environments.
E) Over half of the genome of the obligate intracellular pathogen, Mycobacterium leprae, is composed of pseudogenes that are no longer needed.
Q2) What are the differences between replicative and nonreplicative transposition?
Q3) CRISPR is viewed as the adaptive immune system of bacteria, yet restriction/modification systems also play roles in bacterial defense. Compare and contrast how both systems protect the host.
Q4) Describe a frameshift mutation in terms of insertions and deletions. Does an insertion always result in a frameshift mutation? Will an insertion always render the gene product nonfunctional?
Q5) Describe the purpose of an Ames revision test and how it is performed.
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Q6) Define a pseudogene and what it is thought to represent.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) One benefit of operons in bacteria is that they
A) allow for alterations in DNA sequence by flipping promoters around.
B) allow for coordinated gene expression of related genes on one mRNA controlled by one promoter.
C) do not need ligands and regulatory proteins as single genes would.
D) do not need any modification of the proteins after they are expressed.
E) allow for the bacteria to utilize a wide variety of carbon sources.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of sRNA genes?
A) They have a ribosomal-binding site.
B) They occur between genes.
C) They share homology between related species.
D) They can act as antisense RNAs.
E) They play a role in regulating genes involved in oxidative stress, acid resistance, and quorum sensing.
Q3) Explain the process of attenuation in regulating transcription of the tryptophan operon.
Q4) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
Q5) Describe what happens to the lac operon in the presence of both lactose and glucose.
Page 12
Q6) Explain how a repressor protein works with respect to a biosynthetic operon.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The segmentation of the influenza genome is conducive to ________, which can be defined as the process by which two different viruses swap genome segments to form a new genome.
A) recombination
B) hybridization
C) ligation
D) reassortment
E) shuffling
Q2) What regulatory elements of herpes genes do NOT resemble those of eukaryotic genes?
A) Each gene has a promoter with control sequences such as a TATA box.
B) Genes are transcribed individually.
C) Different gene classes have their own specific regulatory elements.
D) tegument
E) Genes are translated individually.
Q3) The lysis/lysogeny switch has been used in synthetic biology applications that take advantage of the properties of the interaction between Cro and CI. Give two examples of such an application.
Q4) Describe the several features of lentivectors. What are their molecular sources?
Q5) Describe the replication process of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) How do operon fusions reveal transcriptional control of a target gene?
Q2) What kind of gene expression controls are revealed by operon fusions?
A) transcriptional
B) translational
C) both transcriptional and translational
D) posttranslational
E) pretranscriptional
Q3) Describe the difference between autoradiography and phosphor imaging.
Q4) Annotation of sequences of transposon insertion sites in the chromosome of Escherichia coli O157:H7 cells that had lost their acid-resistance properties revealed four genes: two encoding isoforms of glutamate decarboxylase (GadA and GadB) and one encoding a glutamate/gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) antiporter. What does the fourth gene encode?
A) a heat shock protein
B) a possible regulator
C) a glutamate/GABA symporter
D) a GABA uniporter
E) a glutamate carrier protein
Q5) What is synthetic biology? Provide an example of its potential applications.
Q6) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) The catabolism of glucose is central to the overall hydrolysis of polysaccharides in an environment. Compare and contrast the analogous catabolism of polyaromatic compounds found in nature.
Q2) Disparate animal groups, such as ruminants and humans, can digest a variety of plant fibers because they harbor cellulase-producing bacteria such as
A) Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus subtilis.
B) Salmonella and Shigella.
C) Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis.
D) Bacteroides and Ruminococcus.
E) Escherichia chrysanthemi and Erwinia uredovora.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the electron donors in prokaryotic metabolism?
A) The use of organic compounds as electron donors is known as organotrophy.
B) Chemolithotrophy refers to the use of inorganic molecules as electron sources.
C) Photolysis of water provides electrons to phototrophic organisms such as cyanobacteria.
D) Electrons can be obtained from inorganic chemicals such as H S.
E) Oxygen can serve as an electron donor.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) How does photosystem I allow Chlorobium and other green sulfur bacteria to live near deep-sea vents?
Q2) What is lithotrophy?
A) breakdown of molecules using light energy
B) oxidation of organic electron donors to CO and H O
C) photolysis of H S or H O coupled to CO fixation
D) oxidation of inorganic electron donors such as Fe2+ using O or anaerobic electronic acceptors
E) physical breakdown of food particles to facilitate ingestion
Q3) Why and how is it that mitochondria have only a single electron transport system (ETS), unlike many bacteria?
Q4) Which of the following definitions is FALSE?
A) Photosynthesis is hotolysis followed by CO fixation and biosynthesis.
B) Photolysis is light absorption coupled to splitting of a molecule.
C) Photophosphorylation is the reaction ADP + Pi ATP catalyzed by photons.
D) Photoexcitation is light absorption causing an electron to transfer to a higher energy state.
E) Photoionization is light absorption that causes electron separation.
Q5) What are methanotrophs? What is their role in the global carbon cycle?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) It is thought that the Calvin cycle appeared after the divergence of the three domains of life. What supports this hypothesis?
Q2) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q3) Certain amino acids are more energetically expensive than others (tryptophan versus glutamate). Thus, when proteins are moved to the cell surface, extended outside the surface, or secreted out of the cell, there is a potential harm. Why is this potentially harmful, and what adaptations do bacteria have for this potential loss? Give an example.
Q4) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Q5) In anaplerotic reactions
A) intermediates in a pathway are regenerated.
B) nutrients are imported from the environment.
C) molecules targeted for breakdown are salvaged for anabolism.
D) the reactions are thermodynamically impossible.
E) large amounts of ATP are generated.
Q6) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
Q7) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
Q8) Describe how modular enzymes function in polyketide biosynthesis. Why might this be of use medically?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) In the process of ________, NO standard starter culture is available.
A) sourdough bread making
B) yogurt making
C) chocolate production
D) cheese making
E) beer making
Q2) The following are desirable characteristics of an industrial strain, EXCEPT
A) efficient gene transfer system.
B) susceptibility to large DNA rearrangements.
C) inexpensive growth and maintenance.
D) safe, non-pathogenic.
E) easy harvesting of product.
Q3) Microorganisms are used in the production of many small molecules, such as amino acids, vitamins, and medicines. Which of the following is NOT produced by a bacterium?
A) steroids
B) L-lysine
C) vitamin B12
D) penicillin
E) tetracycline
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding conditions for life on Earth?
A) Generation of life requires continual input of energy.
B) The main source of energy for life is nuclear fusion reactions within the sun.
C) It depends on a temperature range permitting liquid water.
D) Life requires elements that lead to the formation of organic molecules.
E) Life requires a CO -rich atmosphere.
Q2) How do membrane compartments spontaneously arise from the properties of fatty acid glycerol esters?
Q3) Analyses of d¹³C % has revealed biosignatures in A) igneous rock.
B) mantle rock.
C) carbonate rock.
D) sedimentary rock.
E) calcareous sand.
Q4) How can plants be so efficient photosynthetically if the chloroplast genome has fewer genes when compared with free-living cyanobacteria?
Q5) Discuss what horizontal gene transfer is. How does it occur and how might it obscure phylogenetic relationships among taxa?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct about the sulfur lithotrophic genus Beggiatoa?
A) It is a Gram-negative gammaproteobacterial genus.
B) It oxidizes H S to S0.
C) It stores S0 in cytoplasmic granules.
D) It stores polyhydroxybutyrate.
E) It grows as extended filaments.
Q2) Describe three mechanisms cyanobacteria use to provide an anoxic environment for the oxygen-sensitive, nitrogen-fixation enzyme nitrogenase.
Q3) In sewage-treatment systems, nitrifiers such as ________ are used to decrease the reduced nitrogen content.
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
B) Thiobacillus spp.
C) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosolobus, and Nitrosovibrio
D) Escherichia spp.
E) Helicobacter and Campylobacter
Q4) How do Bacteroides fragilis and B. thetaiotaomicron contribute to 15% of human caloric intake? Are there other benefits provided by these microbes to human health? Are they potentially pathogenic?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) In methanogenesis from CO and H , the initial incorporation of H requires a coupled gradient of which ion?
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) iron
D) magnesium
E) molybdenum
Q2) Which of the following contains saturated salts of essentially the same ionic proportions as the ocean?
A) thalassic lakes
B) athalassic lakes
C) solar salterns
D) undersea brine pools
E) underground salt deposits
Q3) Discuss the genome and morphology of known archaeal viruses. Why are their genomes all similar in structure?
Q4) Compare and contrast the supercoiling in hyperthermophilic archaeal species with bacteria and eukaryotes. What is responsible for this feature, and what does it accomplish for these archaea?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) In the organism Saccharomyces cerevisiae, which of the following induces alternation of generations from a haploid to a diploid cell?
A) a 10°C decrease in optimum growth temperature
B) glucose abundance
C) starvation stress
D) nitrogen deprivation
E) a pH change toward acidic conditions
Q2) Schizogony refers to the life-cycle stage of ________ in Plasmodium falciparum, which is found in the ________ stage.
A) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; mosquito
B) mitotic reproduction to achieve large population within the vertebrate host; liver
C) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; red-blood-cell
D) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; red-blood-cell
E) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; mosquito
Q3) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
Q4) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Thousands of species of microbes in the cow ________ ferment and break down plant material to small particles.
A) rumen
B) stomach
C) omasum
D) reticulum
E) intestine
Q2) The depth of the photic zone at the coastal shelf of marine habitats is
A) 100-200 m.
B) 10-20 m.
C) about 1 m.
D) about 0.1 m.
E) about 2 m.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding food webs in ecosystems?
A) Primary producers assimilate minerals into biomass.
B) Primary producers absorb energy from outside the ecosystem.
C) Grazers convert 10% of carbon back to carbon dioxide.
D) Consumers convert 90% of biomass carbon to atmospheric CO .
E) All energy gained by an ecosystem is eventually lost as heat.
Q4) Describe the initiation process for legume-rhizobium symbiosis.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) The largest reservoir for carbon is
A) the atmosphere.
B) ocean biomass.
C) carbonate rocks and subsurface carbon.
D) wetlands.
E) fossil fuels.
Q2) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
Q3) What is one of the main challenges of treating industrial runoff versus municipal wastewaters?
A) more solid waste
B) higher oxygen concentrations
C) toxic chemicals
D) higher organic loads
E) lower oxygen concentrations
Q4) Which of the following is assimilated almost entirely in the oxidized state?
A) sulfur
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorus
D) carbon
E) iron
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) The membrane attack complex, or MAC, kills Gram-negative bacteria through A) opsonization.
B) dissolving the cell wall.
C) the lectin pathway.
D) creating a pore on the bacterial membranes.
E) antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity, or ADCC.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is NOT a cause of chronic inflammation?
A) a splinter
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Mycobacterium marinum
D) Actinomyces bovis
E) biofilms on surgical implants
Q3) An organism responsible for tooth decay is
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Streptococcus mutans.
C) Neisseria meningitides.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
Q4) Why is the alternative complement cascade not considered a part of adaptive immunity?
25
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time. The antibody isolated was
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Q2) Complement molecule, C1 complex, will bind to an IgG antibody at the A) VL portion.
B) F(ab')2 portion.
C) CL portion.
D) Fc portion.
E) J-chain region.
Q3) Severe combined immunodeficiency is most commonly caused by A) chromosome 22 trisomy.
B) Y-linked inherited hypermetabolism.
C) X-linked inherited enzyme or receptor deficiency.
D) chromosome 7 deletion.
E) XXY inheritance.
Q4) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli heat-labile toxin
A) damages membranes.
B) increases protein synthesis.
C) activates second messenger pathways.
D) activates immune response.
E) acts as a capsule.
Q2) Synthesis of flagella and pili filaments in Gram-negatives share which of the following attributes?
A) Protein export systems are used to deliver subunits to the outside.
B) Chaperones are not needed for protein transport.
C) There is no periplasmic stopover.
D) Flagellar and pili proteins are added in sequence intracellularly.
E) Flagellar and pili proteins do not extend beyond the periplasm.
Q3) There is no host cell receptor for the enteropathogenic Escherichia coli intimin adhesion. How does this pathogen successfully colonize human intestines?
Q4) What is the rationale for designating disease-causing protozoa and worms as parasites, not as pathogens?
Q5) What are ubiquitination signals? Describe how a microbe can redirect these signals for its own purposes.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause cancer through A) toxin production.
B) inducing superantigens.
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow.
D) injecting the CagA protein into gastric epithelial cells.
E) adhering with pili to the oropharygeal epithelium.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B
Q3) A tuberculin skin test on a patient with an active tuberculosis disease will result in A) a negative result.
B) a positive result.
C) profuse bleeding.
D) an ulcerating lesion.
E) severe bruising.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) If a Staphylococcus aureas bacterium was to become resistant to a newly discovered antibiotic, what are the four basic forms of resistance this bacterium could have acquired?
Q2) How have modern agricultural practices contributed to the increase of antibiotic resistance seen today?
Q3) A bacterial strain exhibiting a unique RNA polymerase structure would most likely inhibit the activity of which antibiotic?
A) rifampin
B) nalidixic acid
C) penicillin
D) streptomycin
E) chloramphenicol
Q4) Several antifungal therapeutic agents act to inhibit sterol synthesis. Explain why this does NOT affect mammalian systems.
Q5) What is the definition of "antibiotic"? Where are antibiotics isolated from, and why are these compounds made in nature?
Q6) Describe the mechanism by which the influenza virus enters or exits a host cell and one potential drug target that is being used to prevent infection.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27338
Sample Questions
Q1) How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?
Q2) A serum antibody ELISA would be looking for which of the following in a person who is presumed to have a necrotizing fasciitis infection?
A) anti-group A streptococcal antibodies
B) antimeningococcal antibodies
C) group A streptococcal-specific antigens
D) enzyme-linked antibody
E) anti-group B streptococcal antibodies
Q3) Which infectious disease is on the CDC bioterrorism list due to the general population NOT being vaccinated for this disease since the 1970s?
A) bubonic plague
B) rabies
C) smallpox
D) tuberculosis
E) Machupo virus
Q4) How were Koch's postulates modified in the discovery of Tropheryma whipplei, the causative agent of Whipple's disease?
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