Microbial Ecology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Ecology explores the interactions of microorganisms with each other, with hosts, and with their surrounding environments. The course examines the diversity, distribution, and roles of microorganisms in natural and engineered ecosystems, emphasizing their impact on nutrient cycles, environmental processes, and ecosystem health. Students will learn about methods for studying microbial communities, including molecular, genetic, and cultivation techniques, as well as the ecological principles underlying microbial dynamics in soil, water, air, and host-associated habitats. By understanding these relationships, the course highlights the importance of microbes in environmental sustainability, biotechnology, and human health.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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16 Chapters
208 Verified Questions
208 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of basic science?
A) a study to determine the mechanism used by bacteria to adhere to the lining of the intestine
B) the development of a new anti-tuberculosis drug
C) the use of microorganisms to digest oil released during an oil spill
D) a study to determine how to prevent corrosion of water pipes by microorganisms
E) research into the use of microorganisms as a source of biofuel
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements about model organisms is true?
A) They tend to be slow growing.
B) They tend to have unique biological properties, very different from other organisms.
C) They tend to reproduce quickly.
D) They tend to be more complex and harder to study than other living things.
E) They are used regularly in applied science, but not in basic science.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an atom X has an atomic number of 18, then:
A) there are 18 protons.
B) there are 9 protons and 9 electrons.
C) there are 18 neutrons.
D) there are 9 protons and 9 neutrons.
E) it also has a mass number of 18.
Answer: A
Q2) An atom has 1 electron in an outer shell that holds a maximum of eight electrons. This atom:
A) is most likely an inert gas.
B) will most likely form polar covalent bonds.
C) will most likely gain electrons to achieve stability.
D) will most likely become a negatively charged ion to achieve stability.
E) will most likely lose its outer electron to achieve stability.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following extracellular structures allows some bacteria to resist phagocytosis by phagocytic cells?
A) capsule
B) fimbriae
C) sex pili
D) flagella
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following describes the correct pathway used by eukaryotic cells for the synthesis of proteins transported out of the cell?
A) endoplasmic reticulum » ribosomes » Golgi apparatus » plasma membrane
B) plasma membrane » ribosomes; Golgi apparatus » endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus; ribosomes » endoplasmic reticulum » plasma membrane
D) ribosomes » endoplasmic reticulum » Golgi apparatus » plasma membrane
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
Q2) What is different about the synthesis stage in a plus- and a minus-strand RNA virus?
Q3) The classification of living things according to their evolutionary relationships is called:
A) taxonomy.
B) phylogenetics.
C) taxonomic hierarchy.
D) the five-kingdom system of classification.
E) the three-domain system of classification.
Q4) Which of the following is true about viral penetration?
A) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via endocytosis.
B) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via fusion.
C) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. All enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion.
D) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion. All enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis.
E) Non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. Some enveloped viruses also enter by endocytosis, while others enter by fusion.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a large population of hosts more important for the maintenance of a "crowd disease" than it is for other types of diseases?
Q2) A serious disease outbreak that affects a large portion of the world is called a(n):
A) epidemic.
B) pandemic.
C) endemic.
D) zoonosis.
E) nosocomial infection.
Q3) What is the danger associated with agricultural monocultures?
Q4) What was the important contribution to microbiology made by Anton Van Leeuwenhoek in the 1600s?
A) He invented the microscope.
B) He was the first to observe microorganisms.
C) He disproved spontaneous generation.
D) He was the first to show that a disease could be caused by a microorganism.
E) He was the first to describe fermentation.
Q5) What are Koch's Postulates? Explain how they are used to determine the cause of a particular disease.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Individuals of the same species have the same genes, but may have different alleles of those genes.
B) Individuals of the same species have different genes but the same alleles.
C) Individuals of the same species have the same genes and alleles as each other.
D) Individuals of the same species have different genes and alleles from each other.
Q2) Which of the following mutations is most likely to prove beneficial to the cell experiencing the mutation?
A) samesense mutation
B) missense mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) spontaneous mutation
Q3) Identify and describe three distinct ways in which genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.
Q4) Explain how RNA differs in structure from DNA.
Q5) How does "proofreading" by DNA polymerase occur during DNA replication?
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Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a coupled reaction:
A) a catabolic exergonic reaction supplies the energy needed for an anabolic endergonic reaction to occur.
B) a catabolic endergonic reaction supplies the energy needed for an anabolic exergonic reaction to occur.
C) an anabolic endergonic reaction supplies the energy for a catabolic exergonic reaction to occur.
D) an anabolic exergonic reaction supplies the energy for a catabolic endergonic reaction to occur.
Q2) Why is pyruvate reduced during fermentation?
A) to regenerate NAD<sup>+</sup>, permitting glycolysis to continue
B) to produce additional NADH, which can be oxidized in electron transport
C) to produce additional ATP by coupling ATP production to the reduction of pyruvate. The now reduced form of pyruvate can then enter the Krebs Cycle.
D) Pyruvate is toxic to cells. It is therefore reduced to a non-toxic form.
Q3) Describe how ATP is produced in electron transport.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following conditions would resistance to a specific antibiotic most likely evolve?
A) when the antibiotic is not commonly used
B) when the antibiotic is routinely used, even in inappropriate situations
C) when the antibiotic is used, but only in carefully controlled and appropriate situations
D) when the use of the antibiotic is suddenly curtailed
E) when several antibiotics, including the specific antibiotic under consideration, are used together
Q2) It is believed that mitochondria were acquired by primitive eukaryotic cells before chloroplasts were. What is the evidence for this?
Q3) An experiment by Stanley Miller in the 1950s demonstrated that abiotic synthesis of organic molecules could occur:
A) in a reducing environment.
B) in an oxidizing environment.
C) on the ocean floor.
D) at extremely high temperatures.
E) at extremely low temperatures.
Q4) Explain the rationale for the "RNA world" hypothesis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the addition of extra nutrients into a lake often result in a die-off of fish and other animals?
Q2) Which of the following processes directly require the activity of microorganisms?
A) release of organic carbon into the environment from animal and plant remains
B) absorption of sulfate from the environment by green plants
C) release of organic nitrogen into the environment by dead plants and animals
D) conversion of organic phosphorus in animal and plant remains into inorganic phosphorus
E) All of the above require microbial activity.
Q3) In aquatic environments, the ________ zone represents the part of the environment where sunlight reaches the bottom.
A) photic zone
B) littoral zone
C) profundal zone
D) benthic zone
E) pelagic zone
Q4) Describe why decomposers are so important in ecosystems.
Q5) What exactly is a biofilm? Where are biofilms found?
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Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Q1) Why are symptoms in a host, such as diarrhea in the case of intestinal disease, or sneezing and coughing in the case of respiratory disease, beneficial from the perspective of some pathogens that cause these diseases?
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins?
A) They all work in different ways.
B) They are all proteins.
C) They are only produced by Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
E) They interfere with host ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis by host cells.
Q3) In terms of how a pathogen might affect a host, which of the following is the correct sequence of events?
A) contamination » disease » infection
B) disease » contamination » infection
C) infection » contamination » disease
D) infection » disease » contamination
E) contamination » infection » disease
Q4) What is the difference between biological vector transmission and mechanical vector transmission?
Q5) How does our normal flora protect us from some infections by pathogens?
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Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a correct and necessary step in the generation of a cell-mediated response?
A) Antigen presenting cells are activated by pattern recognition.
B) Antigen presenting cells present antigen to helper T cells.
C) Antigen presenting cells activate cytotoxic T cells.
D) Helper T cells release cytokines that stimulate activate cytotoxic T cells.
E) Cytotoxic T cells recognize their specific antigen on the surface of infected cells.
Q2) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
Q3) Which of the following is a good example of how innate and adaptive immunity depend on each other?
A) the release of perforin by cytotoxic T cells
B) presentation of the antigen by virally infected cells
C) phagocytosis of pathogens by neutrophils
D) the activation of humoral immunity by helper T cells
E) the ability of antibodies to function as opsonins
Q4) Describe how cells of the innate immune system activate the adaptive immune system under certain circumstances.
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Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations might a bacteriostatic drug be preferable to a bactericidal drug?
A) when a patient is infected with an unknown pathogen
B) when the patient is immunocompromised
C) when antibiotics are being used prophylactically
D) when an infection is in a well-oxygenated region of the body
E) when Gram-negative bacteria have infected an ordinarily sterile region of the body
Q2) What is a nosocomial infection?
A) an infection contracted at one's place of work, or at school
B) an infection contracted from an animal
C) an infection contracted from improperly prepared food
D) an infection contracted during a stay in the hospital
E) an infection that a health care worker contracts from a patient
Q3) Why are antibiotics often added to animal feed?
A) to reduce disease transmission among domestic animals
B) to increase the growth rate of domestic animals
C) to reduce the likelihood of drug resistance
D) All of the above are correct.
E) Both "a" and "b" are correct.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who, What, When, Where, and Why
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into which category of emergent diseases would dengue be placed?
A) Category 1: invasion of a new host population by a known pathogen
B) Category 2: appearance of a completely new, previously unknown pathogen
C) Category 3: association of a well-known disease with a new pathogen
D) Category 4: increased virulence, or a renewed problem, with a well-known but previously less virulent or well-controlled pathogen
Q2) How can a vaccine program prevent epidemics?
Q3) When a new disease appears, which of the following is developed first?
A) a case-control study
B) personal characteristics of the disease
C) place characteristics of the disease
D) time characteristics of the disease
E) a case definition
Q4) What is antigenic drift? Why are RNA viruses more prone to this phenomenon than DNA viruses are?
Q5) Describe the design of a case-control study and how it is used to identify the cause of an epidemic.
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Chapter 14: The Future Is Here: Microorganisms and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sequencing of the human genome has shown us that:
A) the number of genes in the human genome is much smaller than previously thought.
B) the number of genes in the human genome is much larger than previously thought.
C) the number of genes in the human genome is about the same number as previously thought.
D) the DNA of humans is much different from that of even our closest nonhuman ancestors.
Q2) If a gene of interest is inserted into a plasmid, and the plasmid also has a lethal gene and an antibiotic resistance gene, to later identify those plasmids:
A) the inserted gene must not disrupt either the resistance or the lethal gene.
B) the inserted gene must interrupt the resistance gene.
C) the inserted gene must interrupt the lethal gene.
D) the inserted gene must interrupt both the resistance gene and the lethal gene.
Q3) What exactly is a DNA library? What is a genomic library?
Q4) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and
Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fermentation of most bread and alcoholic beverages relies on:
A) fermentation by Gram-positive bacteria.
B) fermentation by Gram-negative bacteria.
C) fermentation by single-celled fungi.
D) fermentation by filamentous fungi.
Q2) In which of the following products does fermentation of the must occur?
A) cheese
B) bread
C) beer
D) wine
E) sauerkraut
Q3) Of the following pairs of organisms, which two are most closely related to each other?
A) Brewers' yeast and Spirulina
B) Brewer's yeast and the Lactobacillus used in yogurt production.
C) Brewer's yeast and mushrooms
D) Penicillium camemberti and Lactobacillus
E) Penicillium camemberti and the Gram-positive bacteria used to make pickles.
Q4) Microbial fermentation only occurs under certain environmental conditions. Why, in terms of metabolism, do these organisms ferment under such conditions?
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms to be used commercially usually are developed in a series of defined steps. Which of the following has those steps in the correct order?
A) laboratory flask » pilot plant fermentor » laboratory fermentor » industrial fermentor
B) laboratory fermentor » laboratory flask » pilot plant fermentor » industrial fermentor
C) industrial fermentor » pilot plant fermentor » laboratory fermentor » labortory flask
D) laboratory flask » laboratory fermentor » pilot plant fermentor » industrial fermentor
E) pilot plant fermentor » labortory flask » industrial fermentor » laboratory fermentor
Q2) What exactly is the biopesticide Bt? Why is this product, which kills garden pests, not a danger to humans, pets, or other animals?
Q3) Why does compost tend to heat up over time? Why is it beneficial to periodically turn the compost?
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