Medical Imaging Techniques
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Medical Imaging Techniques explores the fundamental principles, methodologies, and applications of various imaging modalities used in modern medicine. Students will gain an understanding of technologies such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine imaging, including the physics behind image formation, equipment operation, and safety considerations. This course also covers clinical uses, interpretation basics, and the role of imaging in diagnosis, treatment planning, and disease monitoring, with an emphasis on recent advancements and emerging trends in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
45 Chapters
1738 Verified Questions
1738 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2116
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42146
Sample Questions
Q1) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L. Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q2) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when d decreases?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same D)cannot be determined
Answer: A
Q3) The number of significant digits in 3.75 x 10<sup>4 </sup>is A)two.
B)three.
C)four. D)five. Answer: B
Q4) F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup>; solve for m<sub>1</sub>. Answer: Fr<sup>2</sup>/Gm<sub>2</sub>
Q5) PV = nRT; solve for T. Answer: PV/nR
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42147
Sample Questions
Q1) The orderly arrangement of elements in the periodic table is based upon
A)atomic weights.
B)mass number.
C)neutron number.
D)atomic number.
Answer: D
Q2) increases as the number of electrons and protons increases
A)electron
B)neutron
C)proton
D)binding energy
E)kinetic energy
F)atomic mass
G)atomic number
H)isotope
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Electricity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42148
Sample Questions
Q1) Ohm's law is mathematically described as
A)C = Q/V.
B)L = -V/It.
C)R = V/I.
D)V = I<sup>2</sup>R.
Answer: C
Q2) The shape of door knobs has been an ever-changing process over the history of architecture and home design.A popular door opener design currently used is a flat, lever-type handle that you can use to open a door.Aside from the aesthetic issues, the flat design is intended to take advantage of what law of electrostatics?
Answer: The flat, lever style of door handle is designed to take advantage of the law of distribution of charges on a curved surface. Old-style door knobs that were round, naturally concentrated charge on the surface of the knob based upon its curvature. Flat lever openers have a lower concentration of charge as the area of curvature is diminished. The net effect is to minimize the shock one receives when the handle is touched. This design feature takes advantage of the law of distribution of charge being greatest where the curvature is greatest.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42149
Sample Questions
Q1) How many times does an AC current change direction in a single minute?
A)30
B)60
C)120
D)7,200
Q2) A generator is a device that converts
A)electrical energy to thermal energy.
B)thermal energy to electrical energy.
C)mechanical energy to electrical energy.
D)electrical energy to mechanical energy.
Q3) A bar magnet and a wire loop move with the same linear velocity and direction.What is the voltage induced in the wire?
A)maximum when the wire and magnetic flux are parallel
B)directly proportional to their velocities
C)inversely proportional to the velocities
D)zero
Q4) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
Q5) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42150
Sample Questions
Q1) yields approximately 40% higher average energy per exposure
A)autotransformer
B)rotor stator
C)filament current
D)three-phase power
E)single-phase power
F)AEC
G)exposure switch
H)rectification circuit
Q2) low-voltage circuit that supplies 3 to 5 amperes
A)autotransformer
B)rotor stator
C)filament current
D)three-phase power
E)single-phase power
F)AEC
G)exposure switch
H)rectification circuit
Q3) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 75?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42151
Sample Questions
Q1) The rotor is located ____ the stator and ____ the envelope.
A)inside; inside
B)inside; outside
C)outside; outside
D)outside; inside
Q2) List the three parts of the anode assembly.
Q3) Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires
A)a grid biased anode.
B)a small voltage.
C)a large amperage.
D)a small amperage.
Q4) The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the A)stator.
B)rotor.
C)rotating disc.
D)molybdenum neck.
Q5) List two other names for the anode target.
Q6) How many heat units are generated by three (3) exposures of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second using a high frequency generator?
Page 8
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42152
Sample Questions
Q1) For the element molybdenum, the effective energy of characteristic interactions is
A)9 keV.
B)18 keV.
C)42 keV.
D)69 keV.
Q2) The types of target interaction that occur in the production of x-ray photons in the diagnostic range are dependent upon the
A)incident electron kinetic energy.
B)nuclear binding energy.
C)incident electron potential energy.
D)band gap of the valence electrons.
Q3) What percentage of target interaction results in the production of x-ray photons?
A)1 percent
B)50 percent
C)99 percent
D)100 percent
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42153
Sample Questions
Q1) For x-rays and gamma rays approximately ____ of the biological effects on tissue are the result of indirect actions.
A)20 percent
B)40 percent
C)70 percent
D)100 percent
Q2) All of the following are considered man-made sources of radiation exposure EXCEPT
A)radiopharmaceuticals.
B)radon gas exposure in new home construction.
C)traveling cross country in a commercial aircraft.
D)occupational exposure of medical imaging personnel.
Q3) The radiation weighting factor for x-ray or gamma radiation is A)1
B)2
C)10
D)20
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and
Personnel
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42154
Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary barriers are intended to intercept
A)scatter radiation from the patient.
B)leakage radiation from the x-ray tube.
C)primary beam that exits the patient.
D)both a and b
Q2) For fluoroscopic procedures with a kVp of 100 or more, the protective apron must possess a minimum of ____ lead equivalent.
A)0.05 mm
B)0.5 mm
C)1.0 mm
D)5.0 mm
Q3) Special gonadal shields should be employed any time the gonads are A)being radiographed.
B)directly in the primary beam.
C)within 5 cm of the primary beam.
D)within 1 mm of the primary beam.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Filtration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is affected by half-layer value?
A)x-ray beam resolution
B)image size
C)focal spot length
D)patient skin exposure
Q2) For an x-ray beam operated at 80 kVp,
A)the HVL should be 3.8 mm of Al.
B)a lower HVL is necessary.
C)the beam is harder than a 60 kVp beam.
D)adding filtration will increase patient dose.
Q3) In general, low-energy x-ray photons
A)improve image quality by affecting contrast.
B)are absorbed by the image receptor.
C)penetrate the patient and detector.
D)are absorbed by the patient.
Q4) The most common diagnostic x-ray beam filter material is A)aluminum.
B)brass.
C)copper.
D)tin.
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42156
Sample Questions
Q1) All factors remaining constant, which of the following set of exposure conditions would yield an image with the GREATEST radiographic film density?
A)100 mA, .75 sec, 40" SID
B)300 mA, .25 sec, 44" SID
C)600 mA, 125 ms, 40" SID
D)400 mA, 200 ms, 40" SID
Q2) Given an exposure time of 0.06 second and a milliamperage of 400, calculate the mAs.
Q3) The relationship between mAs and exposure is
A)exponential.
B)directly proportional.
C)indirectly proportional.
D)a squared relationship.
Q4) The factors that directly affect x-ray quantity are
A)mA.
B)time (S).
C)filtration.
D)both a and b
Q5) Given 50 mA and an exposure time of 0.50 second, calculate the mAs.
Q6) Given 40 mA and an exposure time of 0.20 second, calculate the mAs.
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42157
Sample Questions
Q1) During photoelectric absorption, the ejected electron is called a/an A)incident electron.
B)photoelectron.
C)characteristic electron.
D)nuclear electron.
Q2) The photon that exits the atom after a Compton scattering is called the Compton
A)scattered photon.
B)scattered electron.
C)recoil electron.
D)photoelectron.
Q3) The incidence of the photoelectric effect increases with A)increasing kilovoltage.
B)increasing atomic number of the absorber.
C)decreasing x-ray wavelength.
D)photon energies above 1.02 mMeV.
Q4) During the process of attenuation, x-ray photons in the beam
A)reduce in number.
B)lose energy.
C)interact.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42158
Sample Questions
Q1) Skull radiography routinely includes a posterior-anterior (PA) projection.This is intended to
A)reduce dose to the lens of the eye.
B)reduce dose to the cerebellum.
C)reduce dose to the paranasal sinuses.
D)reduce dose to the thyroid.
Q2) 1.7 mR/mAs
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q3) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure for a 15-cm AP abdomen produced at 70 kVp, 20 mA, and a SID of 40 in (100 cm), if 70 kVp = 2.5 mR/mA?
Q4) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure in mR for the fluoroscopic examination of the stomach performed for 4.5 minutes at 110 kVp at 1.7 R/min?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42159
Sample Questions
Q1) commonly used in forensic radiography
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
Q2) occurs when intense, bright light floods the eye and reduces contrast perception
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42160
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered beam-restricting devices EXCEPT
A)aperture diaphragm.
B)beam filter.
C)positive beam limitation (PBL) device.
D)collimator.
Q2) The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions that occur.
A)higher; lower
B)higher; higher
C)lower; higher
D)lower; unaffected
Q3) A radiographer can best minimize the amount of scatter radiation reaching the image receptor by restricting the beam.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Image quality is improved when scatter reaching the image receptor is reduced.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42161
Sample Questions
Q1) Larger patients impact this negatively.
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
Q2) Which of the following elements would attenuate a greater percentage of the x-ray beam?
A)hydrogen
B)calcium
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q3) Subject distortion can be reduced by accurately positioning the patient.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42162
Sample Questions
Q1) As you perform a KUB radiograph on an elderly cancer patient who is cachexic and emaciated, you select AEC for the exposure.In order to achieve optimum image quality, you should
A)raise the kVp according to the 15% rule.
B)raise the mAs to shorten the exposure time.
C)allow the AEC system to adjust technique for the patient's condition.
D)decrease the SID to shorten the exposure time.
Q2) Generally speaking a ____________loss in bone substance must take place before it is detected radiographically.
A)5-10%
B)20-30%
C)50%
D)75%
Q3) Most destructive conditions should require a reduction in _______ to compensate for the tissue condition.
A)SID
B)kVp
C)mAs
D)focal spot size
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: The Grid
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42163
Sample Questions
Q1) A grid absorbs A)light.
B)incident electrons.
C)scatter electrons.
D)scatter radiation.
Q2) When the lead strips run in a single direction in a grid, the grid pattern is described as
A)criss-cross.
B)linear.
C)cross-hatched.
D)unparallel.
Q3) The greatest source of scatter during a radiographic examination is the A)patient. B)tube.
C)image receptor.
D)grid.
Q4) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 8 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using an 8:1 grid with a conversion factor of 4.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42164
Sample Questions
Q1) invisible, undeveloped image
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
Q2) Which type of energy primarily interacts with the radiographic film in an intensifying screen cassette?
A)x-ray
B)heat
C)light
D)sound
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Film Processing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42165
Sample Questions
Q1) Fixer solution becomes saturated with ____ ions.
A)bromide
B)silver
C)sodium
D)copper
Q2) An image becomes visible during A)washing.
B)fixing.
C)drying.
D)development.
Q3) Which reducing agent quickly reduces silver, enhancing fine detail?
A)phenidone
B)hydroquinone
C)sodium carbonate
D)potassium bromide
Q4) Reducing agents ____ positive silver ions.
A)neutralize
B)develop
C)fix
D)activate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42166
Sample Questions
Q1) \(\Delta\)D ÷ \(\Delta\)E
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
Q2) After exposure to x-radiation, the radiographic film
A)must be processed immediately.
B)is twice as sensitive and must be handled carefully.
C)contains the visible image in the cassette.
D)is placed in a reader for laser scanning.
Q3) The optical density formula includes which factors?
A)intensity of incident light
B)intensity of transmitted light
C)the log of 10
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42167
Sample Questions
Q1) A film screen system that possesses high latitude will
A)produce high contrast images.
B)require precise exposure techniques.
C)produce images with many gray shades.
D)all of the above
Q2) The predominant type of interaction that takes place between the x-ray photon and the high-atomic-number phosphor of the intensifying screen is
A)photoelectric.
B)Compton.
C)pair production.
D)Bremsstrahlung.
Q3) Poor screen/film contact can produce
A)increased radiographic film density.
B)loss of resolution.
C)loss of contrast.
D)decreased screen efficiency.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42168
Sample Questions
Q1) When changing exposure technique from 9 mAs to 18 mAs using computed radiography, the radiographer should expect
A)an increase in S number from 350 to 475.
B)an EI number increase from 1500 to 1800.
C)a visible change in radiographic image density.
D)all of the above
Q2) Digital radiography (DR) is characterized by
A)the electronification of data scanned from a film-based media.
B)the use of reusable receptors.
C)the application of analog counting techniques.
D)the processing of the receptor data using dry chemistries.
Q3) The deviation index (DI)
A)compares entrance dose to the detector to a reference industry-standard target dose.
B)compares entrance dose to the patient to a reference industry-standard target dose.
C)compares exit dose to the detector to a reference industry-standard target dose.
D)compares DQE and MTF with a reference value.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42169
Sample Questions
Q1) The service class and object class combine to form a A)DICOM byte.
B)DICOM bit.
C)local area network (LAN).
D)SOP unit.
Q2) Laser printers have which of the following components?
A)laser source
B)collimator lens
C)beam modulator
D)all of the above
Q3) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) intends to A)streamline patient billing and accounts receivable for the provider.
B)consolidate major medical insurance companies into regional insurance co-ops.
C)protect a patient's medical information from unauthorized usage and access.
D)prevent the duplication of medical procedures and billings without prior authorization.
Q4) What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 2,400 x 2,400 matrix with a 32-bit depth?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42170
Sample Questions
Q1) What process is used to create a hard copy of digital images?
A)laser
B)DICOM formatting
C)wet mounting
D)You can't create hard copies of digital images.
Q2) After a radiograph of the lumbar spine (AP) is completed, the final image reveals a S# of 758.Your correct image analysis leads you to
A)increase the mAs by 10% and repeat the image.
B)increase the kVp by 4 kVp and repeat the image.
C)decrease the SID to 36" and repeat the image.
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of these activities would be inconsistent with the "scope of practice" of the radiographer?
A)suggesting methods to improve fluoroscopic image quality to a radiologist
B)helping an ER physician identify a pneumonia on a chest radiograph
C)obtaining additional patient information to add to an existing patient history that was taken by a nurse
D)repeating a suboptimal radiograph after determining the S# was too high
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42171
Sample Questions
Q1) affected by photographic properties of image
A)mAs
B)kVp
C)density maintenance formula
D)radiographic grids
E)15% rule
F)anode heel effect
G)focal spot size
H)recorded detail
I)EI value
J)visibility of detail
Q2) Radiographic room A is a three-phase, 6-pulse generator.Room B is a high frequency generator.When going between these two rooms to perform examinations, what exposure modification is necessary to produce comparable exposure density?
A)Use 15% more with the three-phase system.
B)Use 10% more with the high frequency system.
C)No change is required between the two systems.
D)Use 10% less with the high frequency system.
Q3) If 60 kVp, 100 mA, and 0.25 sec.produce a satisfactory radiograph, what mAs was used?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Contrast
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42172
Sample Questions
Q1) the same as low contrast
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q2) Contrast increases with all of the following EXCEPT
A)decreased kVp.
B)decreased field size.
C)decreased part thickness.
D)increased scatter.
Q3) Contrast decreases with A)excessive density.
B)inadequate density.
C)a wider range of densities.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42173
Sample Questions
Q1) Recorded detail is
A)the degree of geometric sharpness.
B)definition.
C)the accuracy of the structural lines actually recorded in the radiographic image.
D)all of the above
Q2) The ____ represents a depth to the information in the digital image.
A)z axis
B)y-x grid matrix
C)y axis
D)x-y grid matrix
Q3) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
Q4) The Nyquist frequency is
A)important in analog imaging.
B)sampling a minimum of twice per cycle.
C)unique to radiography.
D)related to involuntary motion.
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Distortion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42174
Sample Questions
Q1) ratio between image size and MF
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q2) MF
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q3) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the OID is 2 in.
Q4) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the SOD is 25 in.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42175
Sample Questions
Q1) Static marks on a film radiographic image represent
A)a procedural factor problem.
B)a recorded detail problem.
C)a visibility of detail problem.
D)an equipment malfunction problem.
Q2) Geometric problems dealing with distortion could be due to A)focal spot selection.
B)x-ray tube alignment.
C)collimation problems.
D)inadequate mAs.
Q3) As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be
A)clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail.
B)identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature.
C)determining if post-processing algorithms are accurate.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Quality Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42176
Sample Questions
Q1) A value of 1 is ideal.
A)synchronous motor spinning top
B)2% of SID
C)DQE
D)MQSA
E)12 inches
F)S:N ratio
G)exposure reproducibility
H)15 inches
Q2) Quality assurance includes each of the following EXCEPT
A)equipment maintenance.
B)filing systems.
C)diagnosis.
D)scheduling.
Q3) The centering mark should be within ____ of the light field central ray.
A)0%
B)1%
C)11%
D)100%
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 33
Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42177
Sample Questions
Q1) Fixed kVp systems produce more scatter radiation than other systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fixed kVp systems
A)increase the consistency of image density.
B)increase the consistency of image contrast.
C)lengthen exposure latitude.
D)all of the above
Q3) Fixed kVp systems
A)produce more scatter radiation than other systems.
B)shorten exposure latitude.
C)increase x-ray tube wear.
D)are very popular because of the low contrast images.
Q4) Variable kVp systems
A)produce higher contrast images than other systems do.
B)enhance the visibility of detail.
C)increase the perception of resolution.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42178
Sample Questions
Q1) Ionization chamber AECs are usually used in a ____ chamber configuration.
A)one-
B)two-
C)three-
D)four-
Q2) When an AEC is used for a PA chest, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
Q3) A radiographer is performing an AP knee radiograph using AEC.The manual technique for this exam would be 12 mAs at 80 kVp.The backup mAs the radiographer should set would be
A)6 mAs.
B)12 mAs.
C)18 mAs.
D)24 mAs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42179
Sample Questions
Q1) 5 cm increase in tissue thickness
A)decreased density
B)focal spot size
C)longer scale of contrast
D)grid ratio
E)receptor speed
F)increased mAs by 2x
G)additive pathology
H)higher amount of contrast
I)destructive pathology
J)density-distance relationship
Q2) Which of the following exposure settings will yield an image with the shortest scale of contrast?
A)200 mA, 0.09 s, 100 kVp, 12:1 grid
B)400 mA, 0.05 s, 75 kVp, 8:1 grid
C)300 mA, 0.06 s, 90 kVp, 10:1 grid
D)500 mA, 46 ms, 77 kVp 12:1 grid
Q3) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a three-phase, high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single phase,2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42180
Sample Questions
Q1) In surgery or in the emergency unit, which situation should be considered?
A)the stress of performing in a high-tension environment
B)limitations due to aseptic conditions
C)the presence of additional critical equipment
D)all of the above
Q2) With current, state-of-the-art portable units, A)kVp is used to compensate for insufficient mAs.
B)it is safe to stand behind the unit for protection.
C)the batteries provide power for exposures and travel.
D)higher ratio grids are necessary.
Q3) A common cause for repeat examinations in mobile radiography is due to A)equipment reliability.
B)angulation of grids and grid-off.
C)inaccurate SID measurements.
D)low image contrast.
Q4) If a chest radiograph requires 4 mAs at 72", the new mAs to use at 56" would be A)3 mAs.
B)2.4 mAs.
C)2.0 mAs.
D)1.5 mAs.
Page 37
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42181
Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the voltage supplied to the electrostatic lenses, the ____ the acceleration and the ____ the focal point to the input screen.
A)greater; farther
B)greater; closer
C)lesser; smaller
D)greater; larger
Q2) Mobile fluoroscopic systems are different from fixed systems in that they A)do not have a primary barrier.
B)do not use video displays.
C)have separate fluoroscopy and radiographic tubes.
D)have a minimum SOD of 12 inches.
Q3) All of the following are common post-processing features with digital fluoroscopy EXCEPT
A)last image hold (LIH).
B)digital subtraction.
C)window level and width.
D)edge enhancement.
Q4) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 5 in.and an output diameter of 1 in.?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42182
Sample Questions
Q1) When explaining tomography to a patient, it would be advisable to
A)explain the process as slicing bread.
B)indicate that you will taking cuts of their kidneys.
C)explain to the patient that superimposed anatomical structures will viewed in sections.
D)explain that the process is similar to CT technology.
Q2) Tomographic images are
A)inherently high contrast due to the thickness of the cut.
B)inherently low contrast.
C)primarily taken of the sagittal plane of the patient.
D)commonly taken of the head.
Q3) The exposure time during tomography must at least match the A)fulcrum height.
B)section thickness.
C)length of time required for the x-ray tube to complete the tomographic amplitude.
D)interrogation time of the AEC.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Mammography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42183
Sample Questions
Q1) The AEC system on most mammography machines utilizes ____ radiation-sensitive detector(s) located ____ the cassette.
A)a single; in front of B)three; in front of C)a single; behind D)three; behind
Q2) When the backup time is reached during a breast exposure, the radiographer should select a ____ setting for the repeat radiograph.
A)lower mAs
B)higher mAs
C)higher kVp
D)lower kVp
Q3) The disadvantage to using low kVp in mammography is its ability to produce
A)a very low-energy x-ray beam.
B)high radiographic contrast.
C)a soft x-ray beam.
D)an increased patient dose.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42184
Sample Questions
Q1) Type II osteoporosis is distinguished from Type I in that
A)Type I is hormonal in nature.
B)Type II is age-related.
C)Type I is post-menopausal.
D)all of the above
Q2) The BMD values of a DXA phantom
A)change yearly due to decay of the polymer resin of the phantom.
B)are stable and permit sharing phantoms between DXA systems.
C)never change.
D)are used to calculate the T-scores of patients.
Q3) The principle of DXA scanning relies upon the
A)attenuation of two discrete photon energy levels through soft tissue and bone.
B)measurement of scatter energy from the patient at two energy levels.
C)measurement of scatter photon energy subtracted from primary photon energy.
D)ratio of Bremsstrahlung and characteristic radiation production.
Q4) Primary osteoporosis
A)can be classified as Type I and Type II.
B)is often the result of hyperparathyroidism.
C)often results from metastatic bone disease.
D)can occur in persons taking gluticocorticoids.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42185
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the TRUE statement from the choices below.
A)Extinction time is the time required to prepare the x-ray tube for exposure.
B)Window level adjusts the contrast and window width adjusts the density of an image.
C)The flow rate is the rate at which the contrast medium is filtered by the kidneys.
D)The typical design of the vascular imaging system uses a C-arm configuration.
Q2) Digital image receptors used in angiography
A)require a CCD for image capture.
B)are composed of selenium detector material.
C)acquire the images digitally in the detector material.
D)permit post-processing of images, unlike analog image intensifier detectors.
Q3) Most angiographic studies are produced at what kVp range?
A)30 to 40
B)40 to 50
C)50 to 100
D)75 to 110
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42186
Sample Questions
Q1) With MSCT scanners, resolution is primarily determined by A) prepatient collimation.
B) dose.
C) collimation at the detector.
D) gantry rotation speed.
Q2) CT scan pitch uses all of the following technical parameters EXCEPT
A)slice thickness.
B)360-degree<sup> </sup>gantry rotation.
C)acquisition mAs .
D)table increment.
Q3) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 1.5 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q4) If the table is moving at 12 mm/sec., and a section thickness of 10 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?
Q5) The ____ is how well the detectors receive photons from the patient.
A)capture efficiency
B)absorption efficiency
C)conversion efficiency
D)response time
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42187
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent extraneous RF signals from degrading MR image quality, MR scan suites are enclosed in a
A)copper cage.
B)steel cage.
C)Faraday cage.
D)both a and c
Q2) The time between a 180-degree pulse and a 90-degree inversion pulse in an inversion recovery pulse system is
A)spin density (\(\rho\)).
B)repetition time (TR).
C)echo time (TE).
D)inversion time (TI).
Q3) If a piece of equipment, object, or device is to be used for a MR procedure, it is important to
A)check its labeling by the ASTM Standard F2503.
B)check it first with a small personal magnet before using it in the scan room.
C)contact the MR vendor to check compatibility with the scanner.
D)bring it into the scan room prior to the patient's entry, to check its safety.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
44
Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42188
Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of the regulation of radionuclides and nuclear medicine facility, if a particular state conducts the inspections and enforces the NRC regulations in place of the NRC, the state is considered a/an
A)compliant state.
B)coop - state.
C)agreement state.
D)NRC dependent state.
Q2) When one considers the many clinical applications of nuclear medicine studies, perhaps the singlemost distinction between radionuclide studies and radiographic studies centers around the fact that
A)nuclear studies have higher resolution and less dose to the patient.
B)CT and radiographic studies are more invasive to the patient.
C)radionuclide studies are generally functional or metabolic studies.
D)nuclear medicine exams are more economical and quicker to complete.
Q3) All of the following are methods of nuclear image acquisition EXCEPT
A)dynamic, gated imaging.
B)SPECT.
C)radiofluoroscopic.
D)planar.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 45
Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42189
Sample Questions
Q1) Proton radiotherapy is particularly beneficial because of A)protons depositing their total energy within the target tissue.
B)the positive charge of protons.
C)the minimal scatter radiation produced with protons.
D)all of the above
Q2) achieved by moving the gantry and/or couch
A)Clarence Dally
B)isocenter
C)isodose curve
D)simulation
E)contouring
F)Emil Grubbe
G)radiotherapist
H)palliative
I)fusion imaging
J)IGRT
K)curative
L)beam angles
M)radiation oncologist
N)cone beam CT
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 46
Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42190
Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship between ultrasound frequency and depth of penetration is A)direct.
B)indirect.
C)inverse.
D)both b and c
Q2) The characteristic of spatial pulse length (SPL)
A)is distance from the beginning of the pulse to the end of the pulse.
B)is alterable by the sonographer.
C)has no effect upon resolution.
D)is directly related to frequency and depth.
Q3) When scanning in the transverse orientation,
A)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's right side.
B)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's head.
C)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's left side.
D)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's feet.
Q4) The sonographer can change the intensity, power or amplitude of a sound wave
A)by adjusting the gain.
B)by altering the dBs .
C)by changing the time gain compensation.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47