Medical Assisting Clinical Techniques
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Assisting Clinical Techniques is a hands-on course designed to equip students with the practical skills required for a successful career in medical assisting. The course focuses on the application of fundamental clinical procedures used in outpatient healthcare settings, including taking patient histories, measuring vital signs, assisting with physical examinations, performing basic laboratory tests, administering medications, maintaining aseptic techniques, preparing and sterilizing equipment, and supporting both patients and healthcare providers during routine and specialized medical procedures. Through a combination of lectures, simulations, and supervised lab experiences, students gain confidence and competence in delivering high-quality patient care according to professional, legal, and ethical standards.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1429
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not included on a medication record for medication administered at the office?
A)Name of the medication
B)Route of administration
C)Dosage administered
D)Number of refills
Answer: D
Q2) What term is used to describe the process of making written entries about a patient in the medical record?
A)Charting
B)Registration
C)Scribbling
D)Documentation
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following must be done when charting except
A)begin each new entry on a separate line.
B)include the patient's name at the beginning of each entry.
C)begin each phrase with a capital letter.
D)include the date and time with each entry.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for acute hepatitis B includes A)antibiotics.
B)physical therapy.
C)liver transplantation.
D)restricted activity and rest.
Answer: D
Q2) Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease is known as A)immunization.
B)postexposure prophylaxis.
C)first aid measures.
D)antiviral drug therapy.
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are growth requirements for microorganisms except A)darkness.
B)moisture.
C)nutrition.
D)acidic environment.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is _____ pounds of pressure/square inch
A)320° F at 20
B)145° F at 20
C)212° F at 15
D)250° F at 15
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
A)They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.
B)They represent a resting and protective stage.
C)They are more resistant to heat.
D)They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.
E)All of the above are characteristics of bacterial spores.
Answer: E
Q3) The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is
A)250° F for 1 hour.
B)320° F for 1 to 2 hours.
C)320° F for 15 to 20 minutes.
D)212° F for 20 to 30 minutes.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg,the patient's pulse pressure would be A)45.
B)85.
C)130.
D)215.
Q2) A tympanic membrane thermometer should not be used to measure temperature on a patient who has A)otitis externa.
B)a small amount of cerumen in the ear.
C)big ears.
D)strep throat.
Q3) During exhalation
A)oxygen is taken into the lungs.
B)the diaphragm descends.
C)the lungs expand.
D)carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs.
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One pound is equal to A)10 oz.
B)2.2 kg.
C)1000g.
D)200 kg.
Q2) The patient's height should be measured to the nearest _____ inch.
A)1/8
B)1/4
C)1/2
D)1
Q3) What term is used to describe a tentative diagnosis obtained through the evaluation of the health history and the physical examination?
A)Differential diagnosis
B)Final diagnosis
C)Clinical diagnosis
D)Physical diagnosis
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing A)elderly individuals.
B)individuals with cataracts.
C)preschoolers.
D)school-age children.
Q2) The function of cerumen is to
A)inhibit the growth of pathogens.
B)lubricate and protect the ear canal.
C)facilitate the transmission of sound waves.
D)stabilize air pressure in the middle ear.
Q3) An ear instillation may be performed to
A)apply heat to the ear.
B)remove discharge from the ear.
C)remove cerumen.
D)treat an ear infection.
Q4) What is the function of the lens of the eye?
A)To permit the entrance of light rays into the eye
B)To control the size of the pupil
C)To focus light rays on the retina
D)To transmit light rays to the brain
8
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ice bag is an example of A)dry heat.
B)moist heat.
C)dry cold.
D)moist cold.
Q2) The best way to dry a wet cast is to use a A)fan set on high.
B)heating pad on a medium setting.
C)sun lamp.
D)hair dryer on a low setting.
Q3) The most frequent reason for applying a cast is to A)support and stabilize a dislocated joint.
B)align a fracture until proper healing occurs.
C)promote healing after a surgical correction.
D)aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity.
Q4) Walkers are used primarily by _____ patients.
A)pediatric
B)prenatal
C)geriatric
D)psychiatric
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are warning signs in pregnancy except A)heartburn.
B)vaginal bleeding.
C)blurred vision.
D)abdominal pain.
Q2) Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
A)Inspection of the external genitalia, vagina, and cervix
B)Collection of a specimen for a Pap test
C)Bimanual pelvic examination
D)Rectal-vaginal examination
E)All of the above
Q3) An infant infected with group B Streptococcus during delivery may develop A)septicemia.
B)meningitis.
C)pneumonia.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What immunizations are included in a DTaP injection?
A)Diphtheria, polio, tetanus
B)Dysentery, pertussis, mumps
C)Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
D)Diphtheria, rubella, rubeola
Q2) Which of the following injection sites should be used to administer IM injections to infants and young children?
A)Dorsogluteal
B)Vastus lateralis
C)Deltoid
D)Ventrogluteal
Q3) Which of the following sites can be used to obtain a blood specimen for a newborn screening test?
A)Plantar surface of the heel
B)Earlobe
C)Lateral surface of the finger
D)Big toe
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a postoperative instruction for toenail removal?
A)Elevate the foot for 24 hours.
B)Keep the area clean and dry.
C)Apply an antibiotic ointment daily.
D)Wear loose-fitting shoes.
E)All of the above are correct postoperative instructions.
Q2) Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it
A)comes in contact with a pathogen.
B)comes in contact with a nonpathogen.
C)becomes wet.
D)touches something clean.
E)does all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is not a local sign of inflammation?
A)Redness
B)Fever
C)Swelling
D)Pain
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12
Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Mantoux tuberculin test is performed using
A)a disposable plastic disc with four stainless-steel tines.
B)intradermal administration.
C)intramuscular administration.
D)a reagent strip.
Q2) Which of the following guidelines should be followed when administering a medication?
A)Check that you have the correct medication.
B)Check the expiration date of the medication.
C)Identify the patient by full name and date of birth.
D)Check that the patient is not allergic to the medication.
E)All of the above are correct guidelines.
Q3) When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect,it is said that the patient has developed
A)an idiosyncratic reaction.
B)an allergic reaction.
C)a drug interaction.
D)drug tolerance.
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Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The left atrium receives
A)deoxygenated blood from the body.
B)oxygenated blood from the left ventricle.
C)oxygenated blood from the lungs.
D)deoxygenated blood from the lungs.
Q2) What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?
A)Segment
B)Baseline
C)Interval
D)Polarization line
Q3) An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to
A)facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart.
B)reduce the amount of dryness of the skin.
C)protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph.
D)amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart.
Q4) An electrocardiogram is a recording of the A)electrical activity of the heart.
B)opening and closing of the valves of the heart.
C)force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
D)contraction and relaxation of the ventricles.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy?
A)Lubricating the physician's gloved finger for the digital examination
B)Insufflating air into the colon
C)Placing lubricant on the sigmoidoscope
D)Assisting with suctioning equipment
Q2) All of the following may be ordered if the PSA level is elevated except
A)transrectal ultrasound.
B)double-contrast barium enema radiographic examination.
C)biopsy of the prostate gland.
D)CT scan.
Q3) When the physician is finished with the sigmoidoscope,it should be
A)sterilized in the autoclave.
B)sanitized and returned to its storage case.
C)sterilized in the dry heat oven.
D)sanitized and disinfected.
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15
Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient instructions for a mammogram include which of the following?
A)Do not wear lotions, powders, or deodorants.
B)Fast for 12 hours before the examination.
C)Schedule the examination several days before your menstrual period.
D)Take a mild sedative before the examination.
E)All of the above are accurate instructions.
Q2) An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except A)kidney stones.
B)blockage of the urinary tract.
C)growths of the urinary system.
D)urinary tract infections.
Q3) The purpose of an obstetric ultrasound is to
A)determine gestational age.
B)detect congenital abnormalities.
C)detect multiple pregnancies.
D)determine the position of the fetus in the uterus.
E)accomplish all of the above.
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory tests requires fasting?
A)OGTT
B)Comprehensive metabolic profile
C)Triglycerides
D)FBG
E)All of the above
Q2) How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office?
A)Faxed
B)Mailed
C)Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier
D)Electronically
E)All of the above
Q3) The purpose of quality control is to
A)prevent accidents in the laboratory.
B)protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens.
C)ensure accurate and valid test results.
D)ensure the test results fall within the normal range.
E)ensure all of the above.
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17
Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does it mean if a urine specimen is light yellow?
A)White blood cells are present in the urine specimen.
B)The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances.
C)The pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic.
D)Bacteria are present in the urine specimen.
Q2) What is the term for the functional unit of the kidney?
A)Glomerulus
B)Ureter
C)Renal pelvis
D)Nephron
Q3) What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine?
A)Acidosis
B)Alimentary glycosuria
C)Ketosis
D)Ketonuria
Q4) A urine culture is used in the diagnosis of
A)an injury to the urinary system.
B)kidney stones.
C)a urinary tract infection.
D)diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemolysis of a blood specimen results in
A)collection of an insufficient quantity of blood.
B)inaccurate test results.
C)a contaminated specimen.
D)exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens.
Q2) Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)?
A)Pulsates when palpated
B)Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein
C)If punctured, blood is bright red in color
D)If punctured, patient feels more than usual amount of pain
E)All of the above
Q3) What may occur if an outdated evacuated tube is used to collect the blood specimen?
A)The specimen may become hemolyzed.
B)The tube may crack.
C)The tube may no longer have a vacuum.
D)The test may provide inaccurate results.
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Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mature erythrocyte has a _____ shape and _____ nucleus.
A)biconcave; contains a B)round; contains a multilobed C)convex; does not contain a D)biconcave; does not contain a
Q2) What is the function of warfarin?
A)To inhibit the formation of blood clots
B)To prevent atrial fibrillation
C)To encourage blood clotting
D)To speed up production of red blood cells
Q3) An immature form of a neutrophil is known as a A)plasma cell.
B)mast cell. C)band. D)seg.
Q4) The movement of leukocytes through the pores of the capillaries is known as A)leukocytosis.
B)phagocytosis.
C)flagellation.
D)diapedesis.
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of LDL is to
A)carry cholesterol to the cells.
B)transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood.
C)remove cholesterol from the cells.
D)protect against coronary artery disease.
Q2) What blood antibodies are present if an individual has type AB-negative blood?
A)A, B
B)None
C)A, B, Rh
D)Rh
Q3) What type of specimen is required for most blood chemistry tests?
A)Plasma
B)Serum
C)Whole blood
D)Clotted blood
Q4) What is the term for a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen?
A)Antibody
B)Antitoxin
C)Vaccine
D)Antigen
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Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A)Iris diaphragm
B)Coarse adjustment
C)Substage condenser
D)Fine adjustment
Q2) The causative agent of gonorrhea is a gram-
A)negative Diplococcus.
B)positive rod.
C)positive Diplococcus.
D)negative Coccus.
Q3) The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as A)inflammation.
B)infection.
C)disease.
D)susceptibility.
Q4) Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
A)Chickenpox
B)Tetanus
C)Mumps
D)Rubella
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments?
A)Spiral
B)Comminuted
C)Open
D)Oblique
Q2) Which of the following snakes is poisonous?
A)Rattlesnake
B)Copperhead
C)Cottonmouth
D)Coral snake
E)All of the above
Q3) With what type of bleeding is there a slow and steady flow of blood that is dark red?
A)Capillary
B)Venous
C)Arterial
D)Profuse
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