Medical Assistant Certification Preparation Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for national medical assistant certification exams by covering key topics essential for success in the field. Emphasizing both clinical and administrative skills, the curriculum reviews concepts such as patient care, medical office procedures, pharmacology, medical law and ethics, and diagnostic testing. Students will engage in interactive lessons, practice exam simulations, and hands-on skill development to reinforce their understanding and boost their confidence. By the end of the course, participants will be equipped with the comprehensive knowledge and practical abilities required to excel on certification assessments and in professional healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are included in the database section of a POR except A)health history report.
B)physical examination report.
C)baseline laboratory test results.
D)plan of treatment.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are advantages of an electronic medical record (EMR)except
A)an EMR does not have to be filed.
B)documents in an EMR can be quickly retrieved.
C)more than one person can view an EMR at the same time.
D)EMRs are exempt from the HIPAA regulations.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following situations requires the completion of a release of medical information form?
A)When a patient transfers records to a new physician
B)To bill the patient's insurance company
C)To send the patient's records to a consulting physician
D)To determine the patient's eligibility for insurance benefits
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personal protective equipment must be used to A)draw blood.
B)label a specimen container.
C)measure oral temperature.
D)perform a vision screening test.
E)do all of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except
A)they do not require rinsing.
B)less time is required to perform hand hygiene.
C)they remove all resident flora from the skin.
D)they contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?
A)Eating in the office laboratory
B)Storing the Exposure Control Plan on the computer
C)Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial
D)Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination
E)All of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should all organic matter be removed from an article before it is disinfected?
A)To prevent the article from rusting
B)To prevent stains on the article
C)To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article
D)To ensure the proper working condition of the article
Answer: C
Q2) The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with a A)damp cloth.
B)disinfectant.
C)low-sudsing detergent.
D)scouring pad.
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are true statements regarding sterilization pouches except A)they provide good visibility of the contents.
B)a sterilization indicator is usually present on the pouch.
C)they can be labeled.
D)they are reusable.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO reading?
A)Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe
B)Warming the probe placement site
C)Covering the probe with a washcloth
D)Aligning of the probe on the patient's finger properly
Q2) Which of the following could result in an inaccurate temporal artery temperature reading?
A)Having the patient remove his SpongeBob hat
B)Using a probe with a shiny lens
C)Quickly scanning the forehead
D)Keeping the button continually depressed while scanning
Q3) What is the normal range for body temperature?
A)96° F to 98° F
B)97° F to 99° F
C)98° F to 99° F
D)97° F to 100.4° F
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of draping a patient is to
A)make it easier for the physician to examine the patient.
B)assist the physician in making a diagnosis.
C)protect the patient from pathogens.
D)provide patient with warmth and modesty.
E)do all of the above.
Q2) A patient has a burn on his lower back from lying on a heating pad.For his physical examination,you place him in which of the following positions?
A)Lithotomy
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Prone
Q3) All of the following should be removed before weighing a patient except A)shoes.
B)jewelry.
C)heavy sweater.
D)jacket.
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Snellen eye chart is used to
A)assess visual acuity.
B)diagnose conjunctivitis.
C)assess peripheral vision.
D)diagnose glaucoma.
E)accomplish all of the above.
Q2) Using the right eye,the patient reads the line marked 20/30 with one error.How would you chart this?
A)AS 20/30 - 1
B)OS 20/30 - 1
C)OD 20/30 - 1
D)AD 20/30 - 1
Q3) Near visual acuity testing is conducted with the patient holding the test card
A)at a distance of 14 to 16 inches.
B)at a distance of 30 inches.
C)parallel to the patient's line of vision.
D)in a vertical position for 10 seconds.
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ice bag is an example of A)dry heat.
B)moist heat.
C)dry cold.
D)moist cold.
Q2) Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause
A)carpal tunnel syndrome.
B)sciatic nerve damage.
C)crutch palsy.
D)tendinitis.
Q3) All of the following should be relayed to the patient regarding cast care except A)elevate the cast above heart level for the first 24 to 48 hours.
B)apply a heating pad to the cast to relieve pain.
C)gently move the fingers or toes to help prevent swelling.
D)do not insert anything into the cast.
Q4) Forearm crutches are often used by patients with A)cerebral palsy.
B)a fracture of a lower extremity.
C)an amputated leg.
D)paralysis on one side of the body.
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes all of the following except
A)whether or not the specimen is satisfactory for evaluation.
B)a general statement as to whether the specimen is normal or abnormal.
C)categorization of the results in classes I through V.
D)a detailed description of any abnormal findings.
Q2) The drug commonly employed to treat trichomoniasis is
A)nystatin (Mycostatin).
B)tetracycline (Sumycin).
C)amoxicillin (Amoxil).
D)metronidazole (Flagyl).
Q3) The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to
A)establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient.
B)record medications being taken by the patient.
C)determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy.
D)calculate the EDD.
E)do all of the above.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A)Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B)Measles, mumps, rubella
C)Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D)Measles, hepatitis, rubella
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique when collecting a specimen for a newborn screening test?
A)Wiping away the first drop of blood
B)Completely filling each of the circles on the test card with blood
C)Allowing the test card to dry for 15 minutes before placing it in its mailing envelope
D)Mailing the test card to an outside laboratory within 48 hours
Q3) Head circumference is measured in
A)millimeters.
B)grams.
C)centimeters or inches.
D)microns.
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Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colposcopy is performed frequently
A)after abnormal Pap test results.
B)to evaluate vaginal lesions.
C)to evaluate cervical lesions.
D)in all of the above situations.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of a minor office surgery except
A)performed in an ambulatory care facility.
B)performed in a short period of time.
C)requires a general anesthetic.
D)does not pose a major risk to life.
Q3) Cryosurgery operates on the basis of A)freezing temperatures.
B)sound waves.
C)X-rays.
D)chemicals.
Q4) All of the following may cause an ingrown toenail except A)tight shoes.
B)trauma.
C)improper nail trimming.
D)long periods of standing.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an allergen?
A)Peanuts
B)House dust
C)Insect stings
D)Ragweed
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following tests is used to identify allergens causing contact dermatitis?
A)Skin-prick test
B)Patch test
C)Intradermal test
D)Tine test
Q3) Which of the following medications is administered through the subcutaneous route?
A)Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive
B)Penicillin
C)Insulin
D)Mantoux test
E)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aVR,aVL,and aVF are known as the _____ leads.
A)standard
B)chest
C)augmented
D)bipolar
Q2) Electrical voltage received by the electrocardiograph is changed to mechanical motion in the A)stylus.
B)galvanometer.
C)amplifier.
D)patient cable.
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of asthma except A)it is a chronic disease with no cure.
B)symptoms include wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
C)primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs.
D)most often affects children and young adults.
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Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following positions is used for flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy?
A)Sims
B)Lithotomy
C)Prone
D)Supine
Q2) Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stool?
A)Hemorrhoids
B)Diverticulosis
C)Colorectal cancer
D)Polyps
E)All of the above
Q3) When should a testicular self-examination be performed?
A)In the morning
B)After taking a warm shower
C)After sexual intercourse
D)After vigorous exercise
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Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of an obstetric ultrasound is to
A)determine gestational age.
B)detect congenital abnormalities.
C)detect multiple pregnancies.
D)determine the position of the fetus in the uterus.
E)accomplish all of the above.
Q2) All of the following occurs during an upper GI radiographic examination except A)barium is introduced into the colon through a tube.
B)the radiologist observes the passage of the barium through the GI tract.
C)radiographs are taken periodically.
D)the patient's position is changed at various times.
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiology?
A)Images can be taken and viewed immediately.
B)Images can be sent electronically to a network of computers.
C)The images can be saved on a CD or DVD.
D)Higher-quality images are produced.
E)All of the above are advantages of digital radiology.
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test)is allowed to consume
A)baked chicken.
B)water.
C)diet soda.
D)orange juice.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following laboratory tests requires fasting?
A)OGTT
B)Comprehensive metabolic profile
C)Triglycerides
D)FBG
E)All of the above
Q3) What is the purpose of performing a routine test?
A)To detect the presence of an acute infection
B)To assist in the clinical diagnosis of a patient's condition
C)To assist in the early detection of disease
D)To determine the medication dosage to administer to a patient
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen,a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to
A)remove pathogens from the bladder.
B)ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine.
C)prevent irritation of the urethra.
D)flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra.
Q2) What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells?
A)It causes them to swell and become rounded.
B)It has no effect on them.
C)It causes them to shrink and become crenated.
D)It causes them to develop hypochromia.
Q3) A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is
A)acidic.
B)alkaline.
C)neutral.
D)contaminated.
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling?
A)Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein
B)Applying the tourniquet tightly
C)Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle
D)Inserting the needle 1/2 inch below the puncture site
Q2) When collecting a venous blood specimen to be transported to an outside laboratory for testing,which of the following should be consulted for information on collecting and handling requirements?
A)Laboratory directory
B)Manufacturer's instructions of the test system
C)Physicians' Desk Reference
D)Medical dictionary
Q3) Methods for performing venipuncture include all of the following except the _____ method.
A)butterfly
B)syringe
C)retractable lancet
D)vacuum tube
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Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate there are no basophils.This is considered to be
A)below the reference range.
B)within the reference range.
C)above the reference range.
D)invalid.
Q2) How many pints of blood does the average adult contain?
A)4 to 6 pints
B)8 to 10 pints
C)10 to 12 pints
D)15 to 20 pints
Q3) The primary function of a neutrophil is to A)engulf pathogens through phagocytosis.
B)act as a scavenger to clean up debris.
C)produce antibodies.
D)transport carbon dioxide.
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis?
A)Epstein-Barr
B)Varicella
C)Treponema pallidum
D)HIV
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding a 2-hour postprandial glucose test?
A)Blood specimens are collected at intervals over 3 hours.
B)The patient is required to fast for 2 hours before the test.
C)A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes 100 g of glucose.
D)A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient administers his or her insulin injection.
Q3) What is the term for a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen?
A)Antibody
B)Antitoxin
C)Vaccine
D)Antigen
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21
Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease?
A)Prodromal period
B)Infectious period
C)Inoculation
D)Incubation period
Q2) The purpose of incubating a culture is to
A)allow the pathogen to grow and multiply.
B)prevent overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms.
C)produce a pure culture.
D)kill any pathogens present.
Q3) When viewed under a microscope,gram-positive bacteria
A)appear pink or red.
B)exhibit motility.
C)appear purple.
D)sing America the Beautiful.
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a fracture?
A)Cyanosis
B)Pain
C)Deformity and swelling
D)Loss of function
Q2) Which of the following individuals is at higher risk for heat-related or cold-related injury?
A)An elderly man
B)An individual who works outdoors
C)An individual with cardiovascular disease
D)An individual under the influence of alcohol
E)All of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of hyperventilation except A)rapid and deep respirations.
B)palpitations.
C)abdominal pain.
D)tachycardia.
E)lightheadedness.
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