

Maternity Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Maternity Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the health and well-being of newborns.
The course covers key concepts such as prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, postpartum care, and family support. Students learn about the physiological and psychological changes occurring throughout the childbearing process, patient education, and evidence-based practices for managing complications.
Emphasis is placed on culturally competent care, communication skills, and interdisciplinary collaboration to promote optimal outcomes for mothers, infants, and families.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Perry
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49 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
1995 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1278

Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25287
Sample Questions
Q1) Alternative and complementary therapies:
A)Replace conventional Western modalities of treatment.
B)Are used by only a small number of American adults.
C)Recognize the value of clients' input into their health care.
D)Focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing.
Answer: C
Q2) Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators.Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum.Therefore it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in:
A)The reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care.
B)Low birth weight and preterm birth.
C)Elimination of health disparities based on race.
D)Infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects.
Answer: A
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3

Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step Two
A)Introduce yourself to the interpreter and converse informally.
B)Outline your statements and questions, listing the key pieces of information you need to know.
C)Make sure the interpreter is comfortable with technical terms.
D)Learn something about the culture of the patient.
E)Make notes on what you learned for future reference.
F)Stop every now and then and ask the interpreter "How is it going?"
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement about cultural competence is not accurate?
A)Local health care workers and community advocates can help extend health care to underserved populations.
B)Nursing care is delivered in the context of the client's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture.
C)Nurses must develop an awareness of and sensitivity to various cultures.
D)A culture's economic, religious, and political structures influence practices that affect childbearing.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Assessment and Health Promotion
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once if born after 1956.
A)Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap)
B)Measles, mumps, rubella
C)Herpes Zoster
D)Hepatitis B
E)Influenza
F)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Answer: B
Q2) A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy,soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle.
A)Menstrual
B)Proliferative
C)Secretory
D)Ischemic
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive System Concerns
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination,the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles.The nurse should collect additional information with which statement?
A)The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days.
B)She describes her flow as very heavy.
C)She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months.
D)She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.
Q2) Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD)is accurate?
A)Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women.
B)Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea.
C)Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms.
D)The causes of PMS have been well established.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Infertility,contraception,and Abortion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A)Periodic abstinence
B)Barrier methods
C)Hormonal methods
D)They all offer about the same protection.
Q2) A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy.The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is:
A)Dilation and evacuation (D&E).
B)Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity.
C)Intravenous administration of Pitocin.
D)Vacuum aspiration.
Q3) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs).The nurse's most appropriate reply is:
A)"They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."
B)"They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation."
C)"These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."
D)"You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to prenatal genetic testing,nurses should be aware that:
A)Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome.
B)Carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease.
C)Predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear.
D)Presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer.
Q2) The nurse caring for a pregnant client knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the client reports that she has been sleeping:
A)In a side-lying position.
B)On her back with a pillow under her knees.
C)With the head of the bed elevated.
D)On her abdomen.
Q3) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
A)Fetal intestines.
B)Fetal kidneys.
C)Amniotic fluid.
D)The placenta.
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive,probable,and positive signs of pregnancy.The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:
A)A positive pregnancy test.
B)Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
C)Braxton Hicks contractions.
D)Quickening.
Q2) To reassure and educate pregnant clients about the functioning of their kidneys in eliminating waste products,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A)Increased urinary output makes pregnant women less susceptible to urinary infection.
B)Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus results in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty.
C)Renal (kidney) function is more efficient when the woman assumes a supine position.
D)Using diuretics during pregnancy can help keep kidney function regular.
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Chapter 8: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In understanding and guiding a woman through her acceptance of pregnancy,a maternity nurse should be aware that:
A)Nonacceptance of the pregnancy very often equates to rejection of the child.
B)Mood swings most likely are the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle as well as profound hormonal changes.
C)Ambivalent feelings during pregnancy usually are seen only in emotionally immature or very young mothers.
D)Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need not be addressed during pregnancy because they will resolve themselves naturally after birth.
Q2) Hypertension,preeclampsia
A)Severe vomiting in early pregnancy
B)Epigastric pain in late pregnancy
C)Severe backache and flank pain
D)Decreased fetal movement
E)Glycosuria
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Chapter 9: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI)of 18.0.The nurse knows that this woman's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy should be at least:
A)20 kg (44 lb).
B)16 kg (35 lb).
C)12.5 kg (27.5 lb).
D)10 kg (22 lb).
Q2) A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant in 3 months.She can expect the following advice:
A)"Discontinue all contraception now."
B)"Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy."
C)"You may take any medications you have been taking regularly."
D)"Make sure that you include adequate folic acid in your diet."
Q3) Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron?
A)Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink
B)Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk
C)Black bean soup, wheat crackers, orange sections, and prunes
D)Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea
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11

Chapter 10: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero.Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
A)Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
B)Biophysical profile (BPP)
C)Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
D)Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Q2) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)screening indicates an elevated level.MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal.What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
A)Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
B)Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
C)Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being
D)Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
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Chapter 11: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25297
Sample Questions
Q1) Step 4
A)Without adding air, withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin.
B)Gently rotate the insulin to mix it, and wipe the stopper.
C)Inject air equal to the dose of NPH insulin into the vial, and remove the syringe.
D)Inject air equal to the dose of regular insulin into the vial, and withdraw the medication.
E)Check the insulin bottles for the expiration date.
F)Wash hands.
Q2) A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels.She shows the nurse her readings for the past few days.Which one should the nurse tell her indicates a need for adjustment (insulin or sugar)?
A)75 mg/dL before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
B)115 mg/dL 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
C)115 mg/dL 2 hours after lunch; This is too high; it is time for insulin.
D)60 mg/dL just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
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13

Chapter 12: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion.You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:
A)A sleepy, sedated affect.
B)A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
C)Deep tendon reflexes of 2.
D)Absent ankle clonus.
Q2) What condition indicates concealed hemorrhage when the patient experiences an abruptio placentae?
A)Decrease in abdominal pain
B)Bradycardia
C)Hard, boardlike abdomen
D)Decrease in fundal height
Q3) The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is:
A)Hypertension.
B)Hyperemesis gravidarum.
C)Hemorrhagic complications.
D)Infections.
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Labor and Birth Processes
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth?
A)The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination.
B)Bloody mucus discharge increases.
C)The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
D)The membranes rupture during a contraction.
Q2) Two
A)Flexion
B)Internal rotation
C)External rotation
D)Expulsion
E)Engagement
F)Descent
G)Extension
Q3) Which basic type of pelvis includes the correct description and percentage of occurrence in women?
A)Gynecoid: classic female; heart shaped; 75%
B)Android: resembling the male; wider oval; 15%
C)Anthropoid: resembling the ape; narrower; 10%
D)Platypelloid: flattened, wide, shallow; 3%
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Chapter 14: Pain Management
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduced length of labor,increased satisfaction of pain relief
A)Yoga
B)Massage
C)Acupuncture
D)Water immersion
E)Aromatherapy
Q2) The laboring woman who imagines her body opening to let the baby out is using a mental technique called:
A)Dissociation.
B)Effleurage.
C)Imagery.
D)Distraction.
Q3) After change-of-shift report the nurse assumes care of a multiparous client in labor.The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall,lower back,and buttocks and down her thighs.Before implementing a plan of care,the nurse should understand that this type of pain is:
A)Visceral.
B)Referred.
C)Somatic.
D)Afterpain.
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Chapter 15: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring,nurses comprehend that both:
A)Can be used when membranes are intact.
B)Measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions.
C)May need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring.
D)Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.
Q2) According to standard professional thinking,nurses should auscultate the fetal heart rate (FHR):
A)Every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors.
B)Every 20 minutes in the second stage, regardless of whether risk factors are present.
C)Before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes.
D)More often in a woman's first pregnancy.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is in her third trimester.She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor.The nurse would explain that "true" labor contractions:
A)Increase with activity such as ambulation.
B)Decrease with activity.
C)Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters.
D)Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.
Q2) A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit.The fetal heart rate has been normal.Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart,20 to 30 seconds in duration,and of mild intensity.Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission).Membranes are intact.The nurse should expect the woman to be:
A)Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth.
B)Admitted for extended observation.
C)Discharged home with a sedative.
D)Discharged home to await the onset of true labor.
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Labor and Birth Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a woman at 42 weeks of gestation,which finding would require further assessment by the nurse?
A)Fetal heart rate of 116 beats/min
B)Cervix dilated 2 cm and 50% effaced
C)Score of 8 on the biophysical profile
D)One fetal movement noted in 1 hour of assessment by the mother
Q2) In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor,what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects?
A)Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours
B)Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus
C)Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
D)Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL
Q3) A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor.What finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?
A)Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
B)Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes.
C)Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
D)The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
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19
Chapter 18: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate?
A)The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month postpartum.
B)Vaginal rugae reappear by 3 weeks postpartum.
C)Most episiotomies heal within a week.
D)Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.
Q2) Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A)The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
B)The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
C)The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D)The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
Q3) A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago.What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman?
A)Lochia rubra
B)Lochia sangra
C)Lochia alba
D)Lochia serosa
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a variation of rooming-in,called couplet care,the mother and infant share a room,and the mother shares the care of the infant with:
A)The father of the infant.
B)Her mother (the infant's grandmother).
C)Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister).
D)The nurse.
Q2) A postpartum woman overhears the nurse tell the obstetrics clinician that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means.The nurse's best response is:
A)"You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B)"You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C)"You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D)"You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q3) The laboratory results for a postpartum woman are as follows: blood type,A; Rh status,positive; rubella titer,1:8 (EIA 0.8); hematocrit,30%.How would the nurse best interpret these data?
A)Rubella vaccine should be given.
B)A blood transfusion is necessary.
C)Rh immune globulin is necessary within 72 hours of birth.
D)A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Transition to Parenthood
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to parents' early and extended contact with their infant and the relationships built,nurses should be aware that:
A)Immediate contact is essential for the parent-child relationship.
B)Skin-to-skin contact is preferable to contact with the body totally wrapped in a blanket.
C)Extended contact is especially important for adolescents and low-income women because they are at risk for parenting inadequacies.
D)Mothers need to take precedence over their partners and other family matters.
Q2) The nurse observes that a 15-year-old mother seems to ignore her newborn.A strategy that the nurse can use to facilitate mother-infant attachment in this mother is to:
A)Tell the mother she must pay attention to her infant.
B)Show the mother how the infant initiates interaction and pays attention to her.
C)Demonstrate for the mother different positions for holding her infant while feeding.
D)Arrange for the mother to watch a video on parent-infant interaction.
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Chapter 21: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?
A)Endometritis
B)Wound infections
C)Mastitis
D)Urinary tract infections
Q2) With shortened hospital stays,new mothers are often discharged before they begin to experience symptoms of the baby blues or postpartum depression.As part of the discharge teaching,the nurse can prepare the mother for this adjustment to her new role by instructing her regarding self-care activities to help prevent postpartum depression.The most accurate statement as related to these activities is to:
A)Stay home and avoid outside activities to ensure adequate rest.
B)Be certain that you are the only caregiver for your baby, to facilitate infant attachment.
C)Keep feelings of sadness and adjustment to your new role to yourself.
D)Realize that this is a common occurrence that affects many women.
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23
Chapter 22: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) By knowing about variations in infants' blood count,nurses can explain to their clients that:
A)A somewhat lower than expected red blood cell count could be the result of delay in clamping the umbilical cord.
B)The early high white blood cell (WBC) count is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly.
C)Platelet counts are higher than in adults for a few months.
D)Even a modest vitamin K deficiency means a problem with the ability of the blood to clot properly.
Q2) Signs of stress related to homeostatic adjustment
A)Habituation
B)Orientation
C)Range of state
D)Autonomic stability
E)Regulation of state
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24

Chapter 23: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is using the Ballard scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn.Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks?
A)Flexed posture
B)Abundant lanugo
C)Smooth, pink skin with visible veins
D)Faint red marks on the soles of the feet
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age and physical assessment on the newborn.The infant appears to have an excessive amount of saliva.The nurse recognizes that this finding:
A)Is normal.
B)Indicates that the infant is hungry.
C)May indicate that the infant has a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia.
D)May indicate that the infant has a diaphragmatic hernia.
Q3) At 1 minute after birth,the nurse assesses the infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/minute,some flexion of the extremities,a weak cry,grimacing,and a pink body with blue extremities.The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of: ________
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Chapter 24: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process whereby parents awaken the infant to feed every 3 hours during the day and at least every 4 hours at night is:
A)Known as demand feeding.
B)Necessary during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth.
C)Used to set up the supply-meets-demand system.
D)A way to control cluster feeding.
Q2) To initiate the milk ejection reflex (MER),the mother should be advised to:
A)Wear a firm-fitting bra.
B)Drink plenty of fluids.
C)Place the infant to the breast.
D)Apply cool packs to her breast.
Q3) Parents have been asked by the neonatologist to provide breast milk for their newborn son,who was born prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation.The nurse who instructs them about pumping,storing,and transporting the milk needs to assess their knowledge of lactation.Which statement is valid?
A)A premature infant more easily digests breast milk than formula.
B)A glass of wine just before pumping will help reduce stress and anxiety.
C)The mother should pump only as much as the infant can drink.
D)The mother should pump every 2 to 3 hours, including during the night.
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Page 26

Chapter 25: The High Risk Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include:
A)Administering chloral hydrate for sedation.
B)Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest.
C)Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly.
D)Playing soft music during feeding.
Q2) An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings.What intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating,gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus,vomiting,and respiratory compromise?
A)Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes
B)Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes
C)Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes
D)Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
Q3) Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning,what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant?
A)Delayed growth and development
B)Ineffective thermoregulation
C)Ineffective infant feeding pattern
D)Risk for infection
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Page 27

Chapter 26: 21st Century Pediatric Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of deaths caused by unintentional injuries?
A)More deaths occur in males.
B)More deaths occur in females.
C)The pattern of deaths varies widely in Western societies.
D)The pattern of deaths does not vary according to age and sex.
Q2) Which behaviors by the nurse indicate a therapeutic relationship with children and families? (Select all that apply.)
A)Spending off-duty time with children and families
B)Asking questions if families are not participating in the care
C)Clarifying information for families
D)Buying toys for a hospitalized child
E)Learning about the family's religious preferences
Q3) The type of injury a child is especially susceptible to at a specific age is most closely related to:
A)Physical health of the child.
B)Developmental level of the child.
C)Educational level of the child.
D)Number of responsible adults in the home.
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28
Chapter 27: Family, social, cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25313
Sample Questions
Q1) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup.She comments,"I want to go back to work,but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer is:
A)"I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B)"You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C)"You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D)"Let's talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric."
Q2) A 3-year-old girl was adopted immediately after birth.The parents have just asked the nurse how they should tell the child that she is adopted.Which guideline concerning adoption should the nurse use in planning her response?
A)Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities.
B)The best time to tell the child is between ages 7 and 10 years.
C)It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young.
D)It is best to wait until the child asks about it.
Q3) What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?
A)Consanguineous
B)Affinal
C)Family of origin
D)Household

Page 29
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Chapter 28: Developmental and Genetic Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25314
Sample Questions
Q1) By what age does birth length usually double?
A)1 year
B)2 years
C)4 years
D)6 years
Q2) Which statement is true about toy safety?
A)Adults should be the only ones who select toys.
B)Adults should be alert to notices of recalls by manufacturers.
C)Government agencies inspect all toys on the market.
D)Evaluation of toy safety is a joint effort between children and adults.
Q3) Which term refers to those times in an individual's life when he or she is more susceptible to positive or negative influences?
A)Sensitive period
B)Sequential period
C)Terminal points
D)Differentiation points
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30

Chapter 29: Communication, history, and Physical Assessment
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25315
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has a 2-year-old boy sit in "tailor" position during palpation for the testes.The rationale for this position is that:
A)It prevents cremasteric reflex.
B)Undescended testes can be palpated.
C)This tests the child for an inguinal hernia.
D)The child does not yet have a need for privacy.
Q2) The nurse is testing an infant's visual acuity.By what age should the infant be able to fix on and follow a target?
A)1 month
B)1 to 2 months
C)3 to 4 months
D)6 months
Q3) Step 1
A)Auscultation
B)Palpation
C)Inspection
D)Percussion
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Page 31

Chapter 30: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25316
Sample Questions
Q1) When pain is assessed in an infant,it is inappropriate for the nurse to assess for:
A)Facial expressions of pain.
B)Localization of pain.
C)Crying.
D)Thrashing of extremities.
Q2) Step 1
A)Place the patient on continuous pulse oximetry to assess SaO<sub>2</sub>.
B)Administer the prescribed naloxone (Narcan) dose by slow IV push.
C)Ensure oxygen is available.
D)Prepare to calm the child as analgesia is reversed.
Q3) Step 2
A)Place the patient on continuous pulse oximetry to assess SaO<sub>2</sub>.
B)Administer the prescribed naloxone (Narcan) dose by slow IV push.
C)Ensure oxygen is available.
D)Prepare to calm the child as analgesia is reversed.
Q4) The nurse is using the FLACC scale to evaluate pain in a preverbal child.The nurse makes the following assessment: Face: occasional grimace; Leg: relaxed; Activity: squirming,tense; Cry: no cry; Consolability: content,relaxed.The nurse records the FLACC assessment as ________.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
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Chapter 31: The Infant and Family
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25317
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting education classes for parents of infants.The nurse plans to discuss sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).Which risk factors should the nurse include as increasing an infant's risk of a SIDS incident (select all that apply)?
A)Breastfeeding
B)Low Apgar scores
C)Male sex
D)Birth weight in the 50th or higher percentile
E)Recent viral illness
Q2) Second
A)Voluntary palmar grasp
B)Reflex palmar grasp
C)Puts objects into a container
D)Neat pincer grasp
E)Builds a tower of two blocks
Q3) With the goal of preventing plagiocephaly,the nurse should teach new parents to:
A)Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day.
B)Buy a soft mattress.
C)Allow the infant to nap in the car safety seat.
D)Have the infant sleep with the parents.
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Page 33

Chapter 32: The Toddler and Family
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25318
Sample Questions
Q1) A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal,even if they go to a restaurant.The nurse should explain that this is:
A)A sign that the child is spoiled.
B)A way to exert unhealthy control.
C)Regression, common at this age.
D)Ritualism, common at this age.
Q2) Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child?
A)Skips
B)Rides tricycle
C)Broad jumps
D)Walks up and down stairs
Q3) The psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood include:
A)Development of a conscience.
B)Recognition of sex differences.
C)Ability to get along with age mates.
D)Ability to withstand delayed gratification.
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Chapter 33: The Preschooler and Family
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25319
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is probably the most important criterion on which to base the decision to report suspected child abuse?
A)Inappropriate parental concern for the degree of injury
B)Absence of parents for questioning about child's injuries
C)Inappropriate response of child
D)Incompatibility between the history and injury observed
Q2) A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection.He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "bad." The nurse's best interpretation of this comment is that it is:
A)A sign of stress.
B)Common at this age.
C)Suggestive of maladaptation.
D)Suggestive of excessive discipline at home.
Q3) Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period?
A)Solitary
B)Parallel
C)Associative
D)Team
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Chapter 34: The School-Age Child and Family
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25320
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching injury prevention during the school-age years,the nurse should include:
A)Teaching the need to fear strangers.
B)Teaching basic rules of water safety.
C)Avoiding letting children cook in microwave ovens.
D)Cautioning children against engaging in competitive sports.
Q2) The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it:
A)Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
B)Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
C)Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles.
D)Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.
Q3) The father of 12-year-old Ryan tells the nurse that he is concerned about his son getting "fat." Ryan's body mass index for age is at the 60th percentile.The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A)Reassure the father that Ryan is not "fat."
B)Reassure the father that Ryan is just a growing child.
C)Suggest a low-calorie, low-fat diet.
D)Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age.
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36

Chapter 35: The Adolescent and Family
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25321
Sample Questions
Q1) The weight loss of anorexia nervosa is often triggered by:
A)Sexual abuse.
B)School failure.
C)Independence from family.
D)Traumatic interpersonal conflict.
Q2) When planning care for adolescents,the nurse should:
A)Teach parents first, and they, in turn, will teach the teenager.
B)Provide information for their long-term health needs because teenagers respond best to long-range planning.
C)Maintain the parents' role by providing explanations for treatment and procedures to the parents only.
D)Give information privately to adolescents about how they can manage the specific problems that they identify.
Q3) Which is the most significant factor in distinguishing those who commit suicide from those who make suicidal attempts or threats?
A)Social isolation
B)Level of stress
C)Degree of depression
D)Desire to punish others
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Page 37

Chapter 36: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25322
Sample Questions
Q1) Lindsey,age 5 years,will be starting kindergarten next month.She has cerebral palsy,and it has been determined that she needs to be in a special education classroom.Her parents are tearful when telling the nurse about this and state that they did not realize that her disability was so severe.The best interpretation of this situation is that:
A)This is a sign that parents are in denial.
B)This is a normal anticipated time of parental stress.
C)The parents need to learn more about cerebral palsy.
D)The parents are used to having expectations that are too high.
Q2) What is a priority nursing diagnosis for the preschool child with chronic illness?
A)Risk for Delayed Growth and Development related to chronic illness or disability
B)Chronic Pain related to frequent injections
C)Anticipatory Grieving related to impending death
D)Anxiety related to frequent hospitalizations
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Chapter 37: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25323
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia.The nurse should plan which priority intervention when caring for the child?
A)Maintain a structured routine and keep stimulation to a minimum.
B)Place the child in a room with a roommate of the same age.
C)Maintain frequent touch and eye contact with the child.
D)Take the child frequently to the playroom to play with other children.
Q2) The nurse is discussing sexuality with the parents of an adolescent girl with moderate cognitive impairment.Which should the nurse consider when dealing with this issue?
A)Sterilization is recommended for any adolescent with cognitive impairment.
B)Sexual drive and interest are limited in individuals with cognitive impairment.
C)Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct.
D)Sexual intercourse rarely occurs unless the individual with cognitive impairment is sexually abused.
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Chapter 38: Family-Centered Care of the Child During
Illness and Hospitalization
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25324
Sample Questions
Q1) What represents the major stressor of hospitalization for children from middle infancy throughout the preschool years?
A)Separation anxiety
B)Loss of control
C)Fear of bodily injury
D)Fear of pain
Q2) Because of their striving for independence and productivity,which age-group of children is particularly vulnerable to events that may lessen their feeling of control and power?
A)Infants
B)Toddlers
C)Preschoolers
D)School-age children
Q3) A previously "potty-trained" 30-month-old child has reverted to wearing diapers while hospitalized.The nurse should reassure the parents that this is normal because:
A)Regression is seen during hospitalization.
B)Developmental delays occur because of the hospitalization.
C)The child is experiencing urinary urgency because of hospitalization.
D)The child was too young to be "potty-trained."
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25325
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a 12-year-old girl for a bone marrow aspiration.She tells the nurse that she wants her mother with her "like before." The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A)Grant her request.
B)Explain why this is not possible.
C)Identify an appropriate substitute for her mother.
D)Offer to provide support to her during the procedure.
Q2) The nurse has just collected blood by venipuncture in the antecubital fossa.Which should the nurse do next?
A)Keep arm extended while applying a bandage to the site.
B)Keep arm extended, and apply pressure to the site for a few minutes.
C)Apply a bandage to the site, and keep the arm flexed for 10 minutes.
D)Apply a gauze pad or cotton ball to the site, and keep the arm flexed for several minutes.
Q3) When administering a gavage feeding to a school-age child,the nurse should:
A)Lubricate the tip of the feeding tube with Vaseline to facilitate passage.
B)Check the placement of the tube by inserting 20 mL of sterile water.
C)Administer feedings over 5 to 10 minutes.
D)Position the child on the right side after administering the feeding.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Respiratory Dysfunction
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25326
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic otitis media with effusion (OME)is differentiated from acute otitis media (AOM)because it is usually characterized by:
A)Fever as high as 40° C (104° F).
B)Severe pain in the ear.
C)Nausea and vomiting.
D)A feeling of fullness in the ear.
Q2) Which statement best describes why children have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older?
A)The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases.
B)Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity.
C)Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population.
D)Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.
Q3) Which intervention for treating croup at home should be taught to parents?
A)Have a decongestant available to give the child when an attack occurs.
B)Have the child sleep in a dry room.
C)Take the child outside.
D)Give the child an antibiotic at bedtime.
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42

Chapter 41: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25327
Sample Questions
Q1) Fourth priority
A)Call Jason's parents and notify them of the situation.
B)Call Jason's family practitioner to obtain further orders for medication.
C)Promptly administer an intramuscular (IM) dose of epinephrine.
D)Call 911 and wait for the emergency response personnel to arrive.
Q2) Which statement best characterizes hepatitis A?
A)The incubation period is 6 weeks to 6 months.
B)The principal mode of transmission is through the parenteral route.
C)Onset is usually rapid and acute.
D)There is a persistent carrier state.
Q3) Caring for the newborn with a cleft lip and palate before surgical repair includes:
A)Gastrostomy feedings.
B)Keeping the infant in near-horizontal position during feedings.
C)Allowing little or no sucking.
D)Providing satisfaction of sucking needs.
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Chapter 42: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25328
Sample Questions
Q1) A common,serious complication of rheumatic fever is:
A)Seizures.
B)Cardiac arrhythmias.
C)Pulmonary hypertension.
D)Cardiac valve damage.
Q2) The nurse is preparing an adolescent for discharge after a cardiac catheterization.Which statement by the adolescent would indicate a need for further teaching?
A)"I should avoid tub baths but may shower."
B)"I have to stay on strict bed rest for 3 days."
C)"I should remove the pressure dressing the day after the procedure."
D)"I may attend school but should avoid exercise for several days."
Q3) The most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis is:
A)Staphylococcus albus.
B)Streptococcus hemolyticus.
C)Staphylococcus albicans.
D)Streptococcus viridans.
Q4) Which is the acceptable mg/dl level,or below this level,low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol level for a child from a family with heart disease? _____ Record your answer as a whole number.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25329
Sample Questions
Q1) An acquired hemorrhagic disorder that is characterized by excessive destruction of platelets is:
A)Aplastic anemia.
B)Thalassemia major.
C)Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D)Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Q2) A boy with leukemia screams whenever he needs to be turned or moved.The most probable cause of this pain is:
A)Edema.
B)Bone involvement.
C)Petechial hemorrhages.
D)Changes within the muscles.
Q3) An accurate description of anemia is:
A)Increased blood viscosity.
B)Depressed hematopoietic system.
C)Presence of abnormal hemoglobin.
D)Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
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45

Chapter 44: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25330
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just started dialysis.The child seems always angry,hostile,or depressed.The nurse should recognize that this is most likely related to:
A)Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis.
B)Physiologic manifestations of renal disease.
C)Adolescents having few coping mechanisms.
D)Adolescents often resenting the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis.
Q2) A child with secondary enuresis who complains of dysuria or urgency should be evaluated for what condition (Select all that apply)?
A)Hypocalciuria
B)Nephrotic syndrome
C)Glomerulonephritis
D)Urinary tract infection (UTI)
E)Diabetes mellitus
Q3) An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that:
A)Treatments are done in hospitals.
B)Protein loss is less extensive.
C)Dietary limitations are not necessary.
D)Parents and older children can perform treatments.
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Chapter 45: Cerebral Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25331
Sample Questions
Q1) The vector reservoir for agents causing viral encephalitis in the United States is:
A)Tarantula spiders.
B)Mosquitoes and ticks.
C)Carnivorous wild animals.
D)Domestic and wild animals.
Q2) Which term is used to describe a child's level of consciousness when the child can be aroused with stimulation?
A)Stupor
B)Confusion
C)Obtundation
D)Disorientation
Q3) A toddler fell out of a second-story window.She had brief loss of consciousness and vomited four times.Since admission,she has been alert and oriented.Her mother asks why a computed tomography (CT)scan is required when she "seems fine." The nurse should explain that the toddler:
A)May have a brain injury.
B)Needs this because of her age.
C)May start having seizures.
D)Probably has a skull fracture.
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Page 47

Chapter 46: Endocrine Dysfunction
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25332
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a school-age child with hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease).Which clinical manifestations should the nurse monitor that may indicate a thyroid storm (Select all that apply)?
A)Constipation
B)Hypotension
C)Hyperthermia
D)Tachycardia
E)Vomiting
Q2) Which symptom is considered a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A)Nausea
B)Seizures
C)Impaired vision
D)Frequent urination
Q3) What is characteristic of the immune-mediated type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A)Ketoacidosis is infrequent.
B)Onset is gradual.
C)Age at onset is usually younger than 18 years.
D)Oral agents are often effective for treatment.
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Chapter 47: Integumentary Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25333
Sample Questions
Q1) A child steps on a nail and sustains a puncture wound of the foot.The most appropriate method for cleansing this wound is to:
A)Wash wound thoroughly with chlorhexidine.
B)Wash wound thoroughly with povidone-iodine.
C)Soak foot in warm water and soap.
D)Soak foot in solution of 50% hydrogen peroxide and 50% water.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a school-age child with a tinea capitis (ringworm)infection.The nurse should expect that therapeutic management for this child includes:
A)Administering oral griseofulvin.
B)Administering topical or oral antibiotics.
C)Applying topical sulfonamides.
D)Applying Burow's solution compresses to affected area.
Q3) A toddler sustains a minor burn on the hand from hot coffee.The first action in treating this burn is to:
A)Apply ice to burned area.
B)Hold the burned area under cool running water.
C)Break any blisters with a sterile needle.
D)Clean the wound with soap and warm water.
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Page 49

Chapter 48: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25334
Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).The nurse should plan to implement which interventions for this child (Select all that apply)?
A)Instructions to avoid exposure to sunlight
B)Teaching about body changes associated with SLE
C)Preparation for home schooling
D)Restricted activity
Q2) A 4-year-old child is newly diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.Nursing considerations should include which action?
A)Encouraging normal activity for as long as is possible
B)Explaining the cause of the disease to the child and family
C)Preparing the child and family for long-term, permanent disabilities
D)Teaching the family the care and management of the corrective appliance
Q3) When infants are seen for fractures,which nursing intervention is a priority?
A)No intervention is necessary. It is not uncommon for infants to fracture bones.
B)Assess the family's safety practices. Fractures in infants usually result from falls.
C)Assess for child abuse. Fractures in infants are often nonaccidental.
D)Assess for genetic factors.
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Chapter 49: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25335
Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding should cause the nurse to suspect a diagnosis of spastic cerebral palsy?
A)Tremulous movements at rest and with activity
B)Sudden jerking movement caused by stimuli
C)Writhing, uncontrolled, involuntary movements
D)Clumsy, uncoordinated movements
Q2) Which problem is most often associated with myelomeningocele?
A)Hydrocephalus
B)Craniosynostosis
C)Biliary atresia
D)Esophageal atresia
Q3) The nurse is talking to a parent with a child who has a latex allergy.Which statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
A)"My child will have an allergic reaction if he comes in contact with yeast products."
B)"My child may have an upset stomach if he eats a food made with wheat or barley."
C)"My child will probably develop an allergy to peanuts."
D)"My child should not eat bananas or kiwis."
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