Management and Organizational Principles
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and theories of management and organizational behavior. Students explore the key functions of management, including planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, as well as the roles and responsibilities of managers in modern organizations. The course emphasizes the importance of effective organizational structures, decision-making processes, communication, motivation, and leadership in achieving organizational goals. Through case studies and interactive activities, students gain practical insights into the challenges and best practices for managing people and resources in diverse and dynamic work environments.
Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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54 Chapters
2662 Verified Questions
2662 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Management
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121 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Millard Fuller, who founded the world-renowned Christian housing ministry Habitat for Humanity International with his wife, ended his service as president his role was limited to that of a figurehead. After this change, what functions did Fuller most likely do until he retired?
A) He distributed critical information to employees.
B) He monitored the environment.
C) He helped the organization adapt to incremental changes.
D) He negotiated salaries, raises, and promotions.
E) He performed ceremonial duties like greeting company visitors.
Answer: E
Q2) The marketing manager of Interstate Bakeries was asked to meet with the organization's research and development department to explain why the company needed to change its 25-year-old package design for Twinkies. The marketing manager took on an interpersonal role as:
A) liaison
B) disseminator
C) disturbance handler
D) figurehead
E) resource allocator
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
A) human skills and decisional skills
B) informational skills and the motivation to manage
C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
E) human skills and informational skills
Answer: C
Q2) A(n) _________ is a manager who was successful early in their careers, but were knocked off the fast track by the time they reached the middle to upper levels of management.
A) overachiever
B) derailer
C) first-line manager
D) arriver
E) motivator
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A manager striving to improve organizational __________ is accomplishing tasks that help fulfill organizational objectives.
A) efficiency
B) effectiveness
C) functionality
D) synergy
E) productivity
Answer: B
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Managers are responsible for doing the basic work in the company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: History of Management
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to ISG. What advice should the shift supervisor, who is in charge of the six college students, take from the teachings of Henri Fayol that is most likely to improve productivity?
A) Eliminating bottlenecks is the key to job effectiveness.
B) Coordination is the key to job effectiveness.
C) Integrative conflict resolution is preferable to compromise or domination.
D) Division of work will get the job done more efficiently.
E) Always follow the chain of command.
Q2) ____ is best known for developing the five functions of managers and the fourteen principles of management.
A) Henri Fayol
B) Max Weber
C) Frank Gilbreth
D) Elton Mayo
E) Mary Parker Follett
Q3) One of the most commonly used operations management tools is cognitive mapping which is used to better understand the psychology of the workers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nearly all organizations should be viewed as ______ that interact with their environments and depend on them for survival.
A) covert systems
B) open systems
C) synergistic subsystems
D) closed systems
E) entropic subsystems
Q2) The goal of scientific management was to:
A) make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
B) decreased wages for individual workers
C) eliminate conflict between workers and management
D) find the one best way to perform each task
E) find different ways to motivate workers
Q3) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Henri Fayol's 14 principles of management, _____ requires that each employee should report to and receive orders from just one boss.
A) unity of direction
B) centralization
C) vertical authority
D) span of management
E) unity of command
Q2) In a departure from mainstream management thinking, Mary Parker Follett believed:
A) rules and procedures should be applied without favoritism
B) group dynamics produces positive peer pressure
C) conflict could be beneficial
D) work specialization was the key to efficiency
E) pay should be performance-based
Q3) A Gantt chart can be used to track informal communication paths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the steps in the process that managers use to make sense of their changing environments?
A) perceptual re-engagement
B) environmental laddering
C) acting on threats and opportunities
D) creating strategic windows
E) behavioristic relations
Q2) The term behavioral multiplication refers to the process of having managers and employees perform new behaviors that are central to and symbolic of the new organizational culture that a company wants to create.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by members of an organization.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
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Page 9
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Changes in any sector of the general environment:
A) will typically not impact most organizations
B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C) inhibit the innovation process
D) influence customers first and then suppliers
E) will eventually affect most organizations
Q3) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
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Page 10
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
Q2) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
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11
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethical intensity depends in part upon ____.
A) magnitude of dilemma
B) social acceptance
C) intent of the manager
D) probability of synergy
E) temporal immediacy
Q2) Stakeholders are people or groups with an interest in a company's actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the three factors that influence ethical decision making. How does ethical education and training influence these three factors and, thus, improve ethical decision making?
Q4) A company using a reactive strategy to respond to demands for social responsibility will do less than society expects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Companies will be considered unethical if they do not perform their discretionary responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a stakeholder group that an organization must satisfy to assure long-term survival?
A) investors
B) customers
C) the media
D) employees
E) governments
Q3) The __________ determined that companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A) U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) U.S. Department of Labor
D) U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E) Federal Trade Commission
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Page 13
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Milton Friedman, which of the following is a position opposing the stakeholder model of corporate social responsibility?
A) Organizations can act effectively as moral agents for all company shareholders.
B) The time, money, and attention diverted to social causes undermine market efficiency.
C) It is socially responsible for companies to divert their efforts to social causes.
D) The marketplace will ultimately determine the importance of social causes.
E) All of these positions are in accordance with the beliefs of Milton Friedman.
Q2) Secondary stakeholders are important to a company because:
A) it depends on them for long-term survival
B) they can affect public perceptions and opinions
C) the company is endangered by a termination of their relationship
D) they have the direct power to control management decisions
E) they create an awareness of overt organizational integrity
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain what decision criteria are. Identify two approaches that may be used to weight these criteria.
Q2) Refer to Krispy Kreme. The company's goal to never reveal its secret recipe to anyone outside the company is an example of a(n) ____ goal.
A) distal
B) temporal
C) adjacent
D) proximal
E) advocacy
Q3) The basic purpose of ____ planning is to leave commitments open by maintaining slack resources.
A) options-based planning
B) learning-based planning
C) traditional planning
D) operant planning
E) the establishment of planning windows
Q4) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following statements explains why groups can produce better solutions than individuals in decision-making situations?
A) Formal groups have no group norms.
B) Groups cannot experience information overload.
C) Groups become committed to solutions they help choose.
D) Groups take additional time to carefully evaluate all options.
E) All of these are reasons why groups can produce better solutions than individuals in a decision-making situation.
Q2) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out_______plans.
A) single-use
B) standing
C) operational
D) tactical
E) hierarchical
Q3) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ occurs when managers choose an alternative that is good enough, rather than the best possible alternative.
A) Maximizing
B) Optimizing
C) Availability bias
D) Negative frame
E) Satisficing
Q3) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Sample
Questions
Q1) A sustainable competitive advantage exists for an organization when other companies have tried unsuccessfully to duplicate the advantage and ____.
A) those companies have been prohibited from duplicating the advantage by federal law
B) those companies have, for the moment, stopped trying to duplicate the advantage
C) the organization is able to implement exclusive distribution
D) the organization operates in the international marketplace
E) the organization has a follower strategic stance
Q2) The first step in the strategy-making process is to ____.
A) assess the need for strategic change
B) conduct a situation analysis
C) choose strategic alternatives
D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
E) create a strategic budget
Q3) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The research on diversification in portfolio management indicates that the best approach is probably:
A) related differentiation
B) related diversification
C) unrelated diversification
D) repositioning
E) no diversification
Q2) There are four conditions that must be met if a firm's resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and nonsubstitutable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Strategic Reference Point Theory, managers have two basic strategic alternatives. They are:
A) risk-avoiding strategy and pioneering strategy
B) risk-avoiding strategy and risk-seeking strategy
C) risk-maintenance strategy and conflict-avoidance strategy
D) frontal attack strategy and guerrilla strategy
E) none of these
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Page 19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) The __________ is a portfolio strategy that managers use to categorize their corporation's businesses by growth rate and relative market share. This strategy guides them on how to decide how to invest corporate funds.
A) investment matrix
B) SWOT matrix
C) BCG matrix
D) portfolio management matrix
E) Maslow grid
Q2) According to Michael Porter, five industry forces determine an industry's overall attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability. Which of the following is one of those forces Porter identified?
A) existence of complementary products
B) organizational structure
C) existing benchmarks
D) span of management
E) bargaining power of suppliers
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of the DVD player was a source of ____ to companies in the movie industry just as VHS tapes had once been.
A) a sustainable competitive advantage
B) creativity reengineering
C) technological discontinuity
D) planned shrinkage
E) technological replacement
Q2) Refer to Levi Strauss. Initially, Morgan found ____ strong in Asia.
A) change forces
B) internal strengths
C) frozen change
D) acceptance forces
E) resistance forces
Q3) Companies need to excel at managing ____ in order to successfully manage innovation streams.
A) the sources of innovation
B) innovation during synergistic change
C) reciprocity
D) environmental design issues
E) behavioral formality
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the knowledge, tools, and techniques used to transform inputs into outputs.
A) Resource manipulation
B) Procedural innovation
C) A transformation system
D) Technology
E) Creativity
Q3) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
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22
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
A) innovation maps
B) organization development
C) results-driven change
D) innovation streams
E) cyclical inventions
Q2) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q3) The first stage of organizational decline is:
A) crisis
B) inaction
C) blinded
D) faulty action
E) dissolution
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Chapter 8: Global Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A news article on Latin America read, "Mexico is the closest Latin America gets to the U.S. both geographically and culturally." According to Hofstede, this means the Mexican culture ____.
A) does not support individualism
B) is strong in power distance
C) has a masculine orientation
D) is not oriented towards individualism
E) is accurately described by all of these
Q2) Sodima is a French cooperative that owns the name, the trade secrets, and the patents on Yoplait yogurt. General Mills pays Sodima for the right to sell Yoplait yogurt in the United States. This is an example of ____.
A) licensing
B) a global joint venture
C) exporting
D) a strategic alliance
E) direct investment
Q3) Define direct foreign investment. Name one of the top five countries with the largest direct foreign investment in the United States.
Q4) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q3) The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
A) Maastricht Treaty of Europe
B) North American Free Trade Agreement
C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
D) Mercosur
E) Asian Free Trade Arrangement
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Managing global joint ventures can be difficult because they:
A) represent a merging of four cultures
B) increase the number of tariffs that have to be paid
C) can only be used by large companies that already have an international presence
D) use local consistency in marketing
E) do all of these
Q2) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q3) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term task description refers to the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in doing their jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under product departmentalization, it is easier for top managers to assess work-unit performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
A) Pooling interdependence
B) Reciprocating interdependence
C) Reengineering
D) Repositioning
E) Manufacturing conversion
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
A) modular organizations
B) hierarchical organizations
C) boundaryless organizations
D) organizational networks
E) virtual organizations
Q2) The two disadvantages associated with product departmentalization are costly duplication and difficulties with cross-departmental coordination.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
A) modular organizations
B) hierarchical organizations
C) boundaryless organizations
D) organizational networks
E) virtual organizations
Q2) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
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29
Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) A group of workers in a medical examiner's office decided that they would not wear blue jeans to work because such casual wear seemed unprofessional. This informal agreement was made even though the office did not have a dress code. The workers created a(n) ____.
A) heuristic
B) norm
C) behavioral policy
D) code of ethics
E) operational guide
Q2) ____ undermines team effectiveness by preventing teams from engaging in the kinds of activities that are critical to team effectiveness.
A) Low cohesiveness
B) Cognitive conflict
C) Affective conflict
D) Development of team norms
E) Behavioral conflict
Q3) Identify the three special kinds of teams that can't be easily categorized in terms of autonomy. For each of these teams, identify the probability that it would be formed on a temporary or permanent basis.
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
Q3) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) The ____ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) informal
E) canned
Q2) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
Q3) Which of the following statements about using 360-degree feedback is true?
A) 360-degree feedback is most effective when used to train performance raters.
B) A 360-degree feedback provides feedback from peer workers only.
C) With the 360-degree feedback approach, feedback comes from four sources.
D) Employees do not provide feedback about their own efforts in the 360-degree feedback approach.
E) 360-degree feedback should not be used for developmental purposes.
Q4) Cognitive ability tests are also called aptitude tests.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate between internal and external recruiting. Provide two examples of each.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41969
Sample Questions
Q1) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
Q3) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41968
Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) scripted
E) canned
Q2) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q3) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
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35
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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120 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
Sample Questions
Q1) When Suzanne Pogell wanted to learn to sail, she could not find anyone to teach her because men were the ones who sailed, and women were their crew. After mastering sailing, Suzanne started an all-woman sailing school called Womanship as a sole proprietorship. The male sailors who would not teach her were exhibiting ____.
A) organizational plurality
B) behavioral diversity
C) surface-level diversity
D) deep-level diversity
E) ego-driven heterogeneity
Q2) Affirmative action actually makes good business sense in terms of cost savings, the ability to attract and retain talent, and business growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two basic types of diversity training programs are ____.
A) mentoring and role-playing
B) organizational plurality and individual autonomy
C) role-playing and computer simulation
D) computer simulation and role-playing
E) awareness training and skills-based diversity training
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Page 36
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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10 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q2) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
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Page 37
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41971
Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conscientiousness is:
A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented
B) the degree to which someone is curious
C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
E) defined by none of these
Q3) Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
A) Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
B) Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
C) Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
D) Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
E) Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) Currently the U.S. Olympic Committee (USOC) pays Olympic athletes $25,000 for each gold medal, $15,000 for a silver medal, and $10,000 for a bronze medal. Since 1960, the Paralympics for disabled athletes has been an integral part of the Olympic Games, yet the USOC pays disabled athletes only 10 percent of what the Olympic athletes are paid, and Paralympic athletes are not allowed to participate in opening ceremonies. For disabled athletes who believe their efforts will not be fairly rewarded, the motivation to win a Paralympics medal would have a(n) ____.
A) low valence
B) strong expectancy
C) low performance value
D) high valence
E) strong instrumentality
Q2) According to expectancy theory, in order for people to be highly motivated, ____ must be high.
A) value added
B) reinforcement usage
C) instrumentality
D) equity
E) referent power
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Page 39
Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
Q2) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
Q3) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41974
Sample Questions
Q1) On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
A) tangible and intangible needs
B) physiological and psychological needs
C) higher-order and lower-order needs
D) extrinsic and intrinsic needs
E) realized and unrealized needs
Q2) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q3) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
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Page 41
Chapter 14: Leadership
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140 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast charismatic and transformational leadership. Explain why ethical transgressions are less likely among transformational leaders than they are among charismatic leaders.
Q2) Transformational leadership is leadership that generates awareness and acceptance of a group's purpose and mission and gets employees to see beyond their own needs and self-interest for the good of the group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The founder and CEO of a medical products distributor, establishes ambitious goals for his employees and is confident that they will be able to achieve these goals. In terms of the path-goal theory, this founder and CEO is exhibiting a(n) ____ type of leadership.
A) Participative
B) achievement-oriented
C) Delegating
D) Empowering
E) Supportive
Q4) What are the two key leader behaviors that are central to successful leadership? How does each typically influence subordinates?
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41978
Sample Questions
Q1) Fiedler's contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
Q2) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
Q3) Whereas managers tend to have a short-term perspective, leaders tend to have a long-term perspective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace has proven effective?
A) accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations
B) teaching managers how to change situational favorableness
C) arbitrary definition of situations
D) only hiring supervisors with appropriate leadership traits
E) creating standing plans concerning leader actions and reactions
Q2) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
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Page 44
Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982
Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain why it is important for managers to understand nonverbal communication.
Q2) Briefly identify the difference between the formal and informal communication channels in an organization.
Q3) Managers generally like and use____ but are less receptive to using ____.
A) oral communication; written communication
B) written communication; oral communication
C) downward communication; horizontal communication
D) informal communication; formal communication
E) horizontal communication; downward communication
Q4) For some time, researchers have known that deceptive answers have a slower onset than honest ones. In a job interview these characteristics would be examples of ____ that may help the interviewer evaluate the job applicants.
A) proxemics
B) kinesics
C) paralanguage
D) semiotics
E) pseudo-language
Q5) Briefly differentiate between active listening and empathetic listening.
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
Q2) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q3) The self-serving bias is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves (internal causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the __________ type of grapevine communication network, one "highly connected" individual shares information with many other managers and workers.
A) star chain
B) gossip chain
C) cluster chain
D) leader chain
E) linear
Q2) The steps in the basic perception process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) attention
B) organization
C) analysis
D) interpretation
E) retention
Q3) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Control
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly describe the Balanced Scorecard approach to control. Explain how it differs from the traditional approach to control used in most companies.
Q3) Sometimes the costs of control exceed its benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Control loss usually has no effect on goal achievement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following factors can help managers determine whether more or different control is worthwhile?
A) regulation costs
B) customer flows
C) channelization
D) synergy
E) subordinate empathy
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41984
Sample Questions
Q1) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ control regulates workers' performances on the job, while __________ control measures the results of their efforts.
A) Input; behavior
B) Motivation; output
C) Concertive; normative
D) Behavior; output
E) Input; output
Q3) The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41983
Sample Questions
Q1) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q2) Benchmarking is the process of setting corporate norms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic control process begins with:
A) either benchmarking or keystoning
B) the establishment of clear standards of performance
C) the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
D) problem identification
E) determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed expected performance
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) Extranets are used to handle organizational transactions with suppliers and distributors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary difference between raw data and information is meaning to the user.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The establishment of ____ is an information security procedure that encrypts Internet data at both ends of the transmission process.
A) cookie manipulators
B) virtual private networks
C) cookie managers
D) firewall
E) data insulators
Q5) What is a first-mover advantage?
Q6) Briefly distinguish between knowledge and information.
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Q7) Define data mining. Briefly describe the two general approaches to data mining.
Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) To properly secure data and data networks, a manager should use:
A) virtual private networks
B) firewalls
C) authentication and authorization
D) Web-based SSL encryption
E) all of these
Q2) Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one else. They are:
A) authentication and authorization
B) authorization and empowerment
C) delegation and empowerment
D) encryption and empowerment
E) authentication and encryption
Q3) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
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Page 52
Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one else. They are:
A) authentication and authorization
B) authorization and empowerment
C) delegation and empowerment
D) encryption and empowerment
E) authentication and encryption
Q2) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989
Sample Questions
Q1) Higher productivity is good not only for individual companies that achieve it but also for the countries in which they do business.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ is a ticket-based system that indicates when to reorder inventory.
A) An MRP system
B) A just-in-time system
C) Kanban
D) An independent demand system
E) A dependent demand system
Q3) Define the two common measures of productivity used by managers. Specify the circumstances under which each should be used.
Q4) Generally speaking, it costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All manufacturing operations produce physical goods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41991
Sample Questions
Q1) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
Q2) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q3) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41990
Sample Questions
Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the Baldrige National Quality Award?
A) leadership
B) business results
C) customer and market focus
D) competitive advantage
E) process management
Q3) Downtime and lost efficiency are both examples of:
A) ordering costs
B) setup costs
C) holding costs
D) stockout costs
E) depreciation costs
56
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