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The Judicial Process course examines the structure, functions, and dynamics of the judicial branch within the broader legal and political systems. Students explore the role of courts in dispute resolution, law interpretation, and policy formation, while analyzing how factors such as legal precedent, judicial philosophy, and institutional constraints shape decision-making. The course also delves into the appointment of judges, the interaction between courts and other branches of government, and the impact of cultural, social, and political forces on judicial behavior and outcomes. Through case studies and legal analysis, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how justice is administered and the evolving role of the judiciary in society.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Procedure for the Criminal Justice Professional 12th Edition by John N. Ferdico
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15 Chapters
900 Verified Questions
900 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accused is placed in jeopardy (i.e., jeopardy attaches) when _____.
A) (s)he is indicted
B) (s)he is arraigned and enters a plea to the indictment
C) the jury is sworn or, in cases tried without a jury, when the judge begins hearing testimony
D) the jury returns a verdict
Answer: C
Q2) The Constitution, as originally proposed to the States in 1787, contained the Bill of Rights.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Rules and regulations set forth by a government agency that is empowered through statutory law to make such rules are categorized as _____________________ law.
Answer: administrative
Q4) The _____________________ branch of government creates most of the law of criminal procedure.
Answer: judicial
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although civil lawsuits against state agents are one alternative to the exclusionary rule, _____.
A) civil lawsuits can only be filed by members of certain protected classes
B) police and other agents of the state are able to claim absolute immunity
C) police and other agents of the state are able to claim qualified immunity
D) police and other agents of the state are able to claim transactional immunity
Answer: C
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court has not adopted a specific definition for the "beyond a reasonable doubt" standard.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A court's authority to hold a trial is its _____.
A) venire
B) original jurisdiction
C) appellate jurisdiction
D) venue
Answer: B
Q4) The lowest level of criminal court in the federal system is the ______________.
Answer: U.S. District Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the Aguilar-Spinelli criteria, in order to establish probable cause in a situation where informant information is secondhand, the affidavit must _____.
A) show how the third person knows the information furnished to the informant
B) show how the third person knows the information furnished to the informant and why the information from the informant is credible or reliable
C) show how the third person knows the information furnished to the informant and why the information, from both the informant and the 3rd party, is credible or reliable
D) show how the third person knows the information furnished to the informant; why the information, from both the informant and the 3rd party, is credible or reliable; and that the information could not be obtained using any other method
Answer: C
Q2) Warrantless police actions are presumed to be unreasonable unless based on probable cause.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Officers must follow knock and announce requirements even if they believe no one is in the premises to be searched.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An officer about to execute a search warrant has a sudden feeling that the occupants might resist, making the officer fearful. The officer has no facts or circumstances to support this belief. The most legally sound course of action would be to _____.
A) break in without notice
B) surreptitiously enter
C) still knock and announce
D) get permission from a supervisor to break in
Q3) A(n) ___________ search warrant specifically authorizes officers to enter unoccupied premises, search for specified evidence, and then leave-without seizing the evidence they find, and without leaving a trace that an entry has been made.
Q4) What is "knock and announce". Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of such a rule.
Q5) The person swearing-out an affidavit is referred to as the ___________.
Q6) What is the purpose and nature of Rule 41?
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Q1) What is meant by sealing/putting under seal and why this is done?
Q2) In Berger v. New York (1967) the issue was the constitutionality of a New York statute that authorized electronic surveillance pursuant to a judicial warrant. In the case, the Court:
A) validated the law because the government had probable cause and the intrusion was reasonably related to what the government was looking for
B) validated the law because it properly limited the nature, scope, or duration of the electronic surveillance
C) invalidated the law because the government did not establish probable cause
D) invalidated the law because it failed to properly limit the nature, scope, or duration of the electronic surveillance
Q3) In Olmstead v. United States (1928), the Court held that wiretapping of telephone conversations _____.
A) is covered by the Fourth Amendment, but does not violate it
B) was not covered by the Fourth Amendment
C) is covered by the Fourth Amendment, and is a violation of it
D) was only a partial violation of the Fourth Amendment
Q4) List a minimum of three forms of wiretaps. Describe each.
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Q1) When school administrators search for contraband in the schools, it is important to remember that the Fourth Amendment applies, but the warrant requirement does not.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The line between an administrative and a criminal search sometimes blurs. In distinguishing between them, it is important to look at the search's __________ and competing __________.
Q3) Relate the circumstances under which a government entity can require employees to submit to drug testing.
Q4) Police and fire officials are investigating a fire. Assume that a reasonable expectation of privacy remains in the premise and that no exception to the warrant requirement applies. Officials want to search the premises after the fire has been fully extinguished. The only purpose of the search is to determine the cause and origin of a recent fire. Which statement is true?
A) Officials need an administrative search warrant.
B) Officials need a criminal search warrant.
C) Officials need neither an administrative nor a criminal search warrant.
D) Officials need both an administrative and a criminal search warrant.
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Q1) Officers may not deliberately move an arrested person near an object or place they want to search in order to activate the incident-to-arrest exception.
A)True
B)False
Q2) State the elements of a formal arrest. Illustrate by way of example the difference between the concepts tantamount to an arrest and formal arrest.
Q3) Why are exceptions to the warrant requirement sometimes allowed? Do you feel exceptions should be permitted? Explain your reasoning.
Q4) Select the true statement about limited searches incident to detention.
A) they constitute a seizure under the 4th Amendment and are permissible when the seizure is temporary, the resulting search was limited, the evidence obtained was destructible, and the police had probable cause to arrest.
B) they do not constitute a seizure, but nonetheless are constitutionally permissible.
C) they constitute a seizure and are always constitutionally permissible.
D) they are never constitutionally permissible.
Q5) How does the Court define "use of excessive force" by the police?
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Q1) Officer Brewer stops a vehicle because it does not have brake lights. However, he is using this reason for a traffic stop because he believes the subjects in the vehicle may be involved in illegal activity involving drugs and wants to check them out. Which of the following most accurately describes this scenario?
A) illegal stop
B) Terry stop
C) pretextual stop
D) procedural stop
Q2) _____ is a less demanding standard than _____.
A) Reasonable suspicion; probable cause
B) Probable cause; reasonable suspicion
C) Factual belief; probable cause
D) Prudent oversight; reasonable suspicion
Q3) Stop and frisk procedures are serious intrusions into a person's privacy and are governed by the ______________ Amendment.
Q4) An officer stops a vehicle for a minor equipment violation in order to investigate a more serious crime involving the occupants. This is often referred to as a(n)
Q5) What is the difference between a frisk and a full search?
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Q1) An officer is granted authority by the occupant to search an apartment unit. The occupant informed the officer that she doesn't own certain boxes and luggage lined up against the wall. Given the circumstance, select the true statement.
A) The police cannot search the boxes or luggage because they are not considered part of the residence.
B) The police are free to search anything in the apartment because consent to a general search cannot be rescinded.
C) The police cannot search the luggage or boxes because there has been an implied limitation placed on the scope of the consensual search.
D) The police can search the luggage or boxes because the occupant didn't explicitly inform the police that (s)he was placing a limitation on the scope of the search.
Q2) Evasive or uncooperative conduct on the part of the person in custody is considered to indicate that the consent is not voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Courts use the __________ test to determine voluntariness.
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Q1) A police officer lawfully pats down a suspect's outer clothing, feels an object, and the contour or mass of the object makes its identity immediately apparent that the item is a bag of cocaine. It is true that _____.
A) the only way the officer can seize the item is to gain the consent of the suspect
B) the officer is legally justified to reach into the suspect's clothing to retrieve the item
C) the officer is not legally justified to reach into the suspect's clothing to retrieve the item
D) the officer can only detain the suspect and wait for a warrant to be issued
Q2) Briefly describe the plain view doctrine.
Q3) Police investigating a shooting lawfully entered the suspect's apartment to search for the shooter, for other victims and for weapons. One officer noticed stereo components and, suspecting they were stolen, moved the equipment to read and record serial numbers. The officer's actions are _____.
A) lawful under plain view because there was no search
B) lawful under plain view because there was no search or seizure
C) unlawful under plain view because there was a search
D) unlawful under plain view because there was a seizure
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Q1) What factor determines whether a driver or passenger can challenge the police on a particular search of his/her vehicle under the automobile exception?
A) whether the police search violated a principle established by the Carroll or Gant cases
B) whether the police search violated a principle established by the Carroll case
C) whether the driver or passenger is the registered owner of the vehicle
D) whether the driver or passenger have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the vehicle
Q2) If an officer has probable cause to believe that a movable vehicle contains illicit contraband somewhere within it, but is unsure of exactly where, what is the officer legally entitled to search?
A) the entire vehicle and any unlocked containers within it that are capable of holding the object of the search
B) the entire vehicle and any containers, locked or unlocked, that are capable of holding the object of the search
C) the passenger compartment and unlocked glove compartment only
D) the passenger compartment and trunk but no containers
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Q1) The basic open fields doctrine as stated by the Court in the Hester case is that Fourth Amendment protections _____.
A) do not extend to the open fields
B) encompass the open fields unless they are posted against trespass
C) prevent officers from trespassing outside the curtilage
D) prevent officers from trespassing into open fields
Q2) Explain how a garage and the immediate area surrounding it pertains to the concept of curtilage.
Q3) The case of Oliver v. United States, 1984, involved a warrantless police seizure of marijuana from a secluded plot of land. Explain the court's rationale regarding searches in and around unoccupied tracks.
Q4) Which of the following is not considered curtilage?
A) a house being sold by a realtor
B) a house in which the occupants are away on a trip around the world
C) a house under construction which has only the skeletal framing
D) a house which has been somewhat damaged by fire but is boarded up pending repair
Q5) Discuss the findings in California v. Ciraolo, 1986, regarding aerial warrantless observations by the police.
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Q1) Violations of Miranda rights produce fewer consequences compared to those that are normally triggered by other violations of constitutional criminal procedure rights.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Supreme Court has stated the "questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way" is known as _____.
A) custodial interrogation
B) superficial interrogation
C) confessions
D) interviews
Q3) The warnings required by Miranda must be given before police question a person who is in __________ or deprived of his or her freedom of action in any significant way.
Q4) A confession produced by police threatening violence but not touching the suspect is nevertheless a violation of due process.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In _____, different memory images may become combined or confused with one another.
A) unconscious retrieval
B) transference confusion
C) unconscious transference
D) subconscious retrieval
Q2) The people who appear in a lineup or photo array other than the suspect are called
Q3) In a criminal prosecution the accused has a Sixth Amendment right to _____.
A) assistance of counsel at all times
B) silence at all times
C) assistance of counsel at all critical stages
D) due process of law
Q4) _____ is an unconscious process that concerns the acquisition, retention, and recall of past experience.
A) Memory
B) Sensation
C) Perception
D) Cognition
Q5) Describe the differences between a lineup and a showup.
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Q1) The appellate court may affirm the conviction of a defendant, even if there was trial error. The conviction will be upheld if the court finds that there was error which had little likelihood of changing the result of the trial. What is this rule commonly known as?
A) plain error rule
B) contemporaneous objection rule
C) harmless error rule
D) final judgment rule
Q2) Write a brief paragraph describing what takes place during voir dire.
Q3) The final, authoritative determination or decision of a court upon a matter within its jurisdiction is called __________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a true statement about the venire?
A) Federal law and the law of most states require that no citizen be excluded from service as a juror on account certain factors like race and sex.
B) The venire must be a perfect mirror of the community or accurately [reflect] the proportionate strength of every identifiable group.
C) The venire is supposed to be representative of society as a whole.
D) The prospective jurors who are summoned comprise the venire.
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