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IT Systems Planning and Design is a comprehensive course that explores the methodologies and best practices involved in analyzing, designing, and implementing information technology systems within organizations. Students will learn how to assess business needs, gather system requirements, create design specifications, and develop effective project plans to support organizational goals. The course emphasizes both technical and managerial aspects, covering topics such as feasibility studies, system architecture, risk management, stakeholder communication, and documentation. Through case studies and practical assignments, students will gain hands-on experience in planning and designing robust IT systems that meet real-world challenges and align with strategic business objectives.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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Q1) Which of the following are true statements regarding today's analysis and design of information systems?
A)More and more systems implementation involves a three-tier design.
B)There is a movement to wireless system components.
C)There is a continued focus on developing systems for the Internet and for firms' intranets and extranets.
D)All of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The Agile Methodologies focus on ________ rather than predictive methodologies.
Answer: adaptive
Q3) Design is the second phase of the SDLC in which the current system is studied and alternative replacement systems are proposed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The first phase in the systems development life cycle (SDLC)is planning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The software reuse approach where developers are not required to practice reuse,but are encouraged to do so best describes:
A)flexible reuse
B)facilitated reuse
C)ad hoc reuse
D)managed reuse
Answer: B
Q2) SAP AG and Oracle are vendors of enterprise solution software.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is the software reuse step that involves making the reusable asset understandable to developers who want to use it in their systems?
A)storage
B)abstraction
C)recontextualization
D)conceptualization
Answer: C
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Q1) ________ are any person,group of people,piece of equipment,or material used in accomplishing an activity.
Answer: Resources
Q2) A ________ is an end product in a phase of the SDLC.
Answer: deliverable
Q3) Team members are assessed as part of the conducting postproject reviews activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A major disadvantage of the network diagram is its inability to represent completion times and show interrelationships between activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Designing and sequencing activities to attain project goals describes the ________ project manager activity.
Answer: technical problem solving
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Q1) ________ is a generic information systems planning methodology that attempts to gain a broad understanding of the information system needs of the entire organization.
Q2) Which of the following is a competitive strategy?
A)low-cost producer
B)product differentiation
C)product focus
D)all of the above
Q3) ________ is the amount and type of resources the project requires and their availability.
Q4) Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader needs of the organization?
A)user department
B)development group
C)IS manager
D)top management
Q5) "We are in the business of selling high-quality men's shoes" is an example of a mission statement.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Project Scope Statement clearly outlines the objectives and constraints of the project for the development group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The construction of an information system can have political ramifications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cost reduction and avoidance,error reduction,and increased flexibility are examples of:
A)intangible benefits
B)qualitative benefits
C)tangible benefits
D)legal and contractual benefits
Q4) ________ is the current value of a future cash flow.
Q5) Which of the following is not an element of project initiation?
A)establishing management procedures
B)dividing the project into manageable tasks
C)establishing a relationship with the customer
D)establishing the project initiation team
Q6) ________ are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system. Page 7
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Q1) Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal,yet still effective include:
A)JAD
B)interviewing
C)observations
D)quiz sessions
Q2) What is the Nominal Group Technique? How is it beneficial to requirements determination?
Q3) Define disruptive technologies.Identify eight disruptive technologies and how they have eliminated long-held organizational rules.
Q4) One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:
A)a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee
B)the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers
C)previously unknown information can result
D)they work well when the answers to the questions are well known
Q5) Traditional methods of collecting systems requirements include:
A)individual interviews
B)observing workers
C)group interviews
D)all of the above
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Q1) The ________ to a process are different from the outputs of that process.
Q2) Assume condition one has three values,condition two has four values,and condition three has two values;the number of rules required for the decision table is nine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A DFD that is a result of three nested decompositions of a series of subprocesses from a process on a level-0 diagram defines a:
A)level-3 diagram
B)level-1 diagram
C)level-2 diagram
D)primitive diagram
Q4) In a decision table,an indifferent condition is represented with a ________.
Q5) The lowest level of decomposition for a data flow diagram is called the:
A)context diagram
B)level-0 diagram
C)level-1 diagram
D)primitive diagram
Q6) Identify six concrete rules for stopping the decomposition process.
Q7) Briefly discuss modeling logic with decision tables.
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Q1) Use a verb or verb phrase to name an entity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of instances of entity B that can (or must)be associated with each instance of entity A refers to:
A)cardinality
B)domain
C)ternary occurrence
D)participation level
Q3) A repeating group is a set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Entity integrity means each instance of an entity type must have a unique identifier that is not null.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ________ is the set of all data types and range of values that an attribute can assume.
Q6) Define domains for the following attributes: GPA,rank,and age.
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Q1) If a relationship exists among three or more entities,then:
A)recursive relationships must be established through the use of recursive foreign keys
B)a separate relation with a primary key that is the composite of the primary keys of each of the participating entities is created
C)separate relations are established for each class and for each of the subclasses
D)use the primary key of relation A as a foreign key in relations B and C
Q2) What is second normal form? What conditions determine if a relation is in second normal form?
Q3) Referencing a relation,the sequence of columns cannot be interchanged without changing the meaning or use of the relation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ uses an algorithm to determine the address for each row.
Q5) What are the four key physical database design decisions you will make?
Q6) A null value is used to represent the zero digit in a relation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Often,the initial prototypes of forms and reports are mock screens that are not working modules or systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When designing the layout of Web pages,making sure your site is continuously updated so that users feel that the site is regularly maintained and updated is the recommendation for the ________ error.
Q3) When designing forms and reports,the system characteristic addresses:
A)issues related to experience,skills,motivation,education,and personality
B)social issues such as the user's status and role,lighting,sound,task interruptions,temperature,and humidity
C)job activities that differ in the amount of information that must be obtained from or provided to the user
D)the platform in which the system is constructed influencing interaction styles and devices
Q4) XML icons are templates that display and process common attributes of higher-level,more abstract items.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An ________ is a record of the sequence of data entries and the date of those entries.
Q2) The sequence of interaction between a user and a system is called a ________.
Q3) When structuring data entry fields,captions are not always necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Interface design focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users. A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly discuss the SOS guidelines.
Q6) As a Web site designer,how can you avoid errors caused by links that do not provide enough information?
Q7) The participatory design approach is the most widely used approach for designing interfaces and dialogues. A)True
B)False
Q8) ________ is the type of data error that adds additional characters to a field.
Q9) Identify four sources of data errors.
Q10) ________ is the type of data error that loses characters from a field.
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Q1) A major difference between two-level and three-level data warehouses is the creation of an enterprise data warehouse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a data warehouse? What are the four steps to building a two-level data warehouse architecture?
Q3) Which of the following client/server architectures places all functionality on the client,except data storage and management,which is divided between client and server?
A)distributed function
B)distributed database
C)remote data management
D)distributed processing
Q4) How do operational and informational systems differ?
Q5) An ________ is a centralized,integrated data warehouse that is the control point and single source of all data made available to end users for decision-support applications throughout the entire organization.
Q6) ________ is the immediate automated responses to the request of users.
Q7) What is a database engine? What is a client?
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Q1) A symbolic debugger allows a program to be run online,allowing the programmer to observe how different areas of data are affected as the instructions are executed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The systems administration plan answers such questions as when and where the new system will be installed,what people and resources are required,which data will be converted and cleansed,and how long the installation process will take.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basis for ________ is that individuals who work in an organization have their own self-interested goals.
Q4) During stress testing,the analysts try to determine how the system performs on the range of possible environments on which it may be used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the six factors,identified by Lucas,that influence the extent to which a system is used?
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Q1) A primary objective of using CASE and other automated tools for systems development and maintenance is to change radically how code and documentation are modified and updated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ and ________ are two special-purpose tools that are primarily used to maintain older systems that have incomplete documentation or that were developed prior to CASE use.
Q3) Identify two methods for maintaining a Web site 24x7x365?
Q4) ________ refers to changes made to a system to fix or enhance its functionality.
Q5) ________ refers to changes made to a system to evolve its functionality to changing business needs or technologies.
Q6) Adaptive maintenance is a significant part of an organization's maintenance effort. A)True B)False
Q7) ________ are special software systems that manage system configuration and version control activities.
Q8) To measure maintenance effectiveness,what three factors must be measured?
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Q1) An ________ is an association between two use cases where one adds new behaviors or actions to the other.
Q2) A ________ is a picture showing system behavior along with the key actors that interact with the system.
Q3) What are the five different levels of detail suggested by Cockburn? Describe each one and how it is used.
Q4) All of the following are Use Case levels of detail except:
A)blue
B)white
C)kite
D)sand
Q5) The set of functions or behaviors in a use case that follow exceptions to the main success scenario are called ________.
Q6) Use cases written at the blue,or sea,level focus on ________ goals.
Q7) Both the ________ and ________ levels provide a summary of the use case goals.
Q9) A use case is initiated by a ________. Page 18
Q8) People who have a vested interest in the system being developed are called ________.
Q10) ________ is the least amount promised to a stakeholder by a use case.
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Q1) An activity diagram clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An activity diagram should only be used when it adds value to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An activity diagram can be used for all of the following except:
A)to show the links between objects
B)to depict the flow of control from activity to activity
C)model work flow and business processes
D)help in use case analysis
Q4) Discuss when it is appropriate to use activity diagrams in a project.
Q5) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True
B)False Page 20
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Q1) Sequence diagrams can be presented in:
A)instance or generic form
B)logical or physical form
C)sequential or nonsequential form
D)specific or nonspecific form
Q2) Which of the following depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time?
A)class diagrams
B)data flow diagrams
C)sequence diagrams
D)collaboration diagrams
Q3) Objects communicate with one another by sending messages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A message in which the sender does not have to wait for the recipient to handle the message best describes:
A)synchronous message
B)simple message
C)asynchronous message
D)half-duplex message
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Q1) Business Process Modeling Notation is much more simple than data flow diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The more complex a business process is,the harder it is to automate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gateway can be exclusive or inclusive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In business process modeling,a gateway is a decision point.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An event is a trigger that starts a process in business process modeling.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Gateways are typically ________.
Q7) A business process can only come from certain business functions.
A)True
B)False
Q8) A flow shows the ________ of action in a process.
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Q1) Multiplicity indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is an operation? Briefly describe three types of operations.
Q3) In UML,a class is represented by:
A)a rectangle with three compartments separated by horizontal lines
B)a circle in which the activity name is recorded
C)a double-lined ellipse in which the activity name is recorded
D)a diamond in which the activity name is recorded
Q4) Which of the following represents how an object acts and reacts?
A)behavior
B)class
C)state
D)encapsulation
Q5) An aggregation expresses a Part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
A)True
B)False

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Q6) An ________ is a class that has no direct instances,but whose descendants may have direct instances.
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