

IT Support and Administration Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
IT Support and Administration provides students with the foundational knowledge and hands-on skills required to troubleshoot, maintain, and support computer systems and networks within an organization. The course covers essential topics such as operating system installation and configuration, hardware and software troubleshooting, user account management, security best practices, and network administration. Students will also learn effective communication techniques for technical support roles, understand IT service management frameworks, and explore remote support tools. By the end of the course, participants will be prepared for entry-level IT support positions and possess a strong understanding of the principles that underlie effective IT administration in modern workplaces.
Recommended Textbook
MCTS Guide to Configuring Microsoft Windows Server 2008 Active Directory 1st Edition by
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Page 2
Greg Tomsho

Chapter 1: Introducing Windows Server 2008
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Q1) ____________________ are services that can be installed in Server Manager to add functions to the main server role.
Answer: role services
Q2) You need to support a large disk volume of 200 GB or more and apply permissions to various sensitive files and folders that will be hosted on the volume.The FAT file system is ideal for this purpose.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What Windows Server 2008 edition lacks many of the features present in other editions,and is more suited to a small business that doesn't require Active Directory?
Answer: Windows Web Server 2008
Q4) Enter the term that corresponds to the following description: A group of Windows computers that share common management and are subject to rules and policies that an administrator defines.
Answer: Windows domain
Q5) What is the recommended memory requirement for Windows Server 2008?
Answer: 2 GB RAM or more
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Chapter 2: Installing Windows Server 2008
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Q1) Select below a valid requirement for the installation of Hyper-V: ____.
A)Windows Server 2008 Datacenter must be installed to use Hyper-V
B)Your CPU must support virtualization extensions
C)You require a Hyper-V license key
D)You must have at least 128 MB of RAM installed
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a valid upgrade path for Windows Server 2008?
A)Windows Server 2003 32-bit Standard Edition to Windows Server 2008 32-bit Enterprise Edition
B)Windows Server 2003 64-bit Standard Edition to Windows Server 2008 32-bit Standard Edition
C)Windows Server 2003 32-bit Enterprise Edition to Windows Server 2008 32-bit Enterprise Edition
D)Windows Server 2003 32-bit Datacenter Edition to Windows Server 2008 32-bit Datacenter Edition
Answer: B
Q3) The ____________________ command allows you to join a Windows Server 2008 server to a domain as a member server.
Answer: netdom
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Introducing Active Directory
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Q1) When is the installation of the Global Catalog server option mandatory?
A)When a domain controller is being added to a domain with other domain controllers that do not have Global Catalog installed
B)It is required when adding the first domain controller in a forest
C)When Active Directory detects you have installed the DNS Server role
D)Only when the server is going to support older versions of Windows OSs,such as Windows 95
Answer: B
Q2) What term best matches the following description?
A category of schema information that defines what type of information is stored in each object.
Answer: schema attribute
Q3) At about what interval are GPOs updated on domain controllers?
A)5 seconds
B)5 minutes
C)50 minutes
D)5 hours
Answer: B
Q4) What acronym describes the order in which GPOs are applied?
Answer: LSDOU
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Chapter 4: Active Directory Design and Security Concepts
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Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of running a dedicated forest root domain?
A)security
B)manageability
C)flexibility
D)reliability
Q2) A process called ____ runs on every domain controller to determine the replication topology which defines the domain controller path that Active Directory changes flow through.
A)Replication
B)AD Route
C)Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC)
D)trust relationship
Q3) What term best fits this description: An open-standard security protocol used to secure authentication and identification between parties in a network
Q4) ______________________________ defines the settings for auditing access to an object.
Q5) What MMC is used to create sites?
Q6) What can you do to reduce the delay caused by authentication referral?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Account Management
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Q1) The ____________________ command displays an object's properties onscreen by default,but the output can be redirected to a file.
Q2) Which command line tool displays an object's properties onscreen by default,but can redirect output to a file?
A)DSADD
B)DSGET
C)DSMOD
D)DSMOVE
Q3) A group type that's the main Active Directory object administrators use to manage network resource access and grant rights to users
A)contact
B)roaming profile
C)security groups
D)user template
E)group scope
F)piping
G)distribution list
H)super mandatory profile
I)distribution group
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Windows File and Print Services
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Q1) By default,shadow copies are created when they are first enabled on a volume and then two times a day at 7:00 a.m. ,and 12:00 p.m. ,Monday through Friday.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a reason to use volume mount points?
A)To extend the apparent amount of free space on an existing FAT32 volume
B)Consolidate frequently accessed volumes
C)Consolidate several shared volumes
D)To avoid using a drive letter for a volume
Q3) This file system supports partitions up to 2GB in size (Windows NT allows up to 4 GB)and supports a maximum file size of 2GB.
Q4) What is the maximum partition size that FAT16 supports?
A)1GB
B)2GB
C)4GB
D)8GB
Q5) What command would you use to create a network drive mapping to \\example\shared,with a drive letter of Z?
Q6) ____________________ is the native file-sharing protocol in UNIX and Linux.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Configuring Group Policy
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Q1) The account lockout threshold contains a value between 0 and 1,000 that determines how many times a user's password can be entered incorrectly before the user's password must be reset by an administrator.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The folder that starts with these four characters is the GPT for the Default Domain Policy.
Q3) If a software package is assigned to a group of targeted computers via the Computer Configuration node,what happens?
A)Next time a user logs in to one of the targeted computers,they are prompted to install the package
B)The package is advertised in Add/Remove programs as an installation option
C)The package is placed on the computers but is not installed until a member of the Administrators group installs it
D)The package installation is mandatory and begins the next time the computer starts
Q4) A published application is installed automatically.
A)True
B)False
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9

Chapter 8: Introduction to Windows Networking
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Q1) An icon in the Network Connections window that shows the components needed for the computer to connect to a network
A)dual-IP layer architecture
B)link-local address
C)metric
D)network connection
E)network discovery
F)network map
G)network provider
H)octet
I)subnet mask
Q2) This command,when typed,will display the routing table on a computer.
Q3) When a computer or router must deliver a packet of data to another computer or router in the same network,ARP can be used to request the destination device's MAC address.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This protocol is used by the ping program to test whether a computer can communicate with another computer.
Q5) IPv6 addresses that start with fe80 are called ____________________ addresses
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Chapter 9: Configuring DNS for Active Directory
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Q1) An A record used to resolve the name in an NS record to its IP address
A)authoritative server
B)conditional forwarder
C)forwarder
D)glue A record
E)iterative query
F)resolver
G)root servers
H)root hints
I)recursive query
Q2) What does round robin do?
A)Allows an administrator to configure multiple routes that user must make "rounds" through in order to reach a service,improving security
B)Causes network performance issues by continuously rotating the IP addresses associated with services
C)Creates invalid DNS records by disabling DNS timestamp scavenging
D)Creates a load sharing / balancing mechanism for servers that have identical services,such as two servers that host the same website
Q3) This DNS resource record type is used for reverse DNS lookups.
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Chapter 10: Configuring and Maintaining the Active
Directory Infrastructure
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Q1) What does the SMTP acronym stand for?
Q2) Which MMC is used to transfer the RID master,PDC emulator master,and infrastructure master operations master roles?
A)Active Directory Users and Computers
B)Active Directory Schema
C)Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D)Active Directory FSMO Transfer
Q3) An Active Directory object created in Active Directory Sites and Services that defines the connection parameters between two replication partners
A)Alternate UPN name suffixes
B)connection object
C)forest-wide authentication
D)interforest migration
E)intraforest migration
F)selective authentication
G)SID filtering
H)site link bridging
I)universal group membership caching
Q4) Operations master roles are seized using what command?
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Chapter 11: Active Directory Certificate Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) CA Autoenrollment can only be enabled on enterprise CAs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What component of a PKI is held by a person or system and is unknown to anyone else?
A)Public key
B)Ciphertext
C)Secret key
D)Private key
Q3) By setting up autoenrollment for EFS certificates,a user's EFS certificate is created...
A)When the user encrypts a file
B)After the user restarts his or her computer
C)The first time he or she logs on to the domain after autoenrollment is configured
D)After requesting the certificate within the Certificate snap-in
Q4) Under normal circumstances,a client must download a certificate revocation list in order to check a certificate's revocation status,unless the ____________________ role service is available.
Q5) This is the name for the first CA installed in a network.
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Chapter 12: Additional Active Directory Server Roles
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Q1) A collection of attribute data used to specify domain objects that aren't replicated to RODCs,thereby increasing the security of sensitive information
A)credential caching
B)claim
C)delegated installation
D)ADFS-enabled Web server
E)federation trust
F)filtered attribute set
G)resource partner
H)Web SSO
I)federation servers
Q2) Federation servers,federation proxy servers,and Web servers hosting AD FS Web agents must be configured with _____________________________________________,which is used by the HTTPS protocol.
Q3) Where must custom LDIF files be placed to be available for import?
A)%systemroot%\ldif
B)%systemroot%\Adam
C)%systemroot%\ldifadam
D)%systemroot%\ldsadam
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Chapter 13: Server Management and Monitoring
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Q1) You make use of a third party virtualization program on a server that is also an Active Directory domain controller.The virtualization program is hosting a web server on the server,but the web server is usually accessed more in the afternoon than in the morning.Due to the increased resource usage caused by early morning users logging in to the domain,you want to find a way to manage CPU utilization. What should you do?
A)Use the Equal_Per_Process policy in Windows System Resource Manager
B)Use the Equal_Per_User policy in Windows System Resource Manager
C)Configure the Active Directory process as "High Priority" in Task Manager every morning
D)Configure a custom Windows System Resource Manager policy for the third party virtualization program,and set its resource allocation to be lowered during morning hours only
Q2) This command is used to display and modify the boot configuration data store.
A)edit boot.ini
B)edit bcd
C)bcdmod
D)bcdedit
Q3) This command performs database maintenance on AD DS and AD LDS data stores.
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