IT Security Management
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
IT Security Management explores the strategies, policies, and practices necessary for protecting an organizations information assets in todays digital landscape. The course covers core concepts such as risk assessment, security frameworks, regulatory compliance, incident response, and the development of comprehensive security policies. Students will learn how to identify vulnerabilities, implement security controls, and create effective security plans to mitigate threats. Additionally, the course examines the roles and responsibilities of IT security managers and emphasizes the importance of aligning security initiatives with organizational objectives. Through case studies and practical exercises, students gain the skills required to manage and lead security efforts within businesses and institutions.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures 3rd Edition by Randy Weaver
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Chapter 1: Network Security Fundamentals
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Q1) A network connection consisting of a port number combined with a computer's IP address
A)auditing
B)biometrics
C)DMZ
D)DDoS attack
E)packet filters
F)port
G)RBAC
H)signatures
I)socket
J)worm
Answer: I
Q2) ________________ events usually track the operations of the firewall or IDPS,making a log entry whenever it starts or shuts down.
Answer: System
Q3) A ______________ is reserved for a program that runs in the background to listen for requests for the service it offers.
Answer: port
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Chapter 2: TCP-IP
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Q1) a communication sent to all hosts on a specific network
A)broadcast
B)datagram
C)fragmentation
D)multicast
E)scopes
F)unicast
G)stateless autoconfiguration
H)network identifier
I)Multicast Listener Discovery
J)Network Address Translation
Answer: A
Q2) What does a sliding window do in a TCP packet?
A) ensures all packets are delivered
B) provides packet security
C) provides flow control
D) ensures transmission reliability
Answer: C
Q3) DNS operates at the _________________ layer of the OSI model.
Answer: Application
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Chapter 3: Network Traffic Signatures
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Q1) What is the term used when an IDPS doesn't recognize that an attack is underway?
A) false negative
B) true positive
C) negative activity
D) positive signature
Answer: A
Q2) the maximum packet size that can be transmitted
A)back door
B)MTU
C)ping sweep
D)scan throttling
E)packet injection
F)signature
G)vanilla scan
H)RPC
I)FIN packet
J)RST packet
Answer: B
Q3) A TCP packet with no flags set is referred to as a _________ packet.
Answer: null
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Chapter 4: Routing Fundamentals
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Q1) a network system tool that lists the MAC and IP address resolutions of other devices on the network,making the resolution process more efficient
A)ACE
B)ARP table
C)banner
D)console port
E)convergence
F)inverse mask
G)metrics
H)routing
I)stub router
j.virtual terminal
Q2) An ARP broadcast is sent to the local subnet in an attempt to discover the destination computer's ______________ address.
Q3) ____________ routes are manually configured routes that direct all packets not specifically configured in the routing table.
Q4) Current Microsoft OSs include IPv6,but to use it,you must enable it first.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a key derivation do?
Q2) Which component of IPsec enables computers to exchange keys to make an SA?
A) IKE
B) ISAKMP
C) Oakley
D) IPsec driver
Q3) a way to prevent keys from being discovered and used to decipher encrypted messages
A)AES
B)block cipher
C)ciphertext
D)cryptanalysis
E)DES
F)XOR function
G)IPsec
H)key management
I)plaintext
J)stream cipher
Q4) A ________________ occurs when computing the MD5 algorithm with two different initialization vectors produces the same hash value.
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Chapter 6: Wireless Network Fundamentals
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Q1) Which RF transmission method uses an expanded redundant chipping code to transmit each bit?
A) FHSS
B) OFDM
C) CDMA
D) DSSS
Q2) the bit pattern used in direct sequence spread spectrum
A)absorption
B)amplitude
C)antenna
D)chipping code
E)diffraction
F)fading
G)free space path loss
H)Fresnel zone
I)hopping code
J)polarization
Q3) Describe multipath interference.
Q4) Describe two of the four methods of digital signal modulation.
Q5) Why should you use caution when using multiple APs?
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Chapter 7: Understanding Wireless Security
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Q1) A RTS frame is the first step of the two-way handshake before sending a data frame.
A)True
B)False
Q2) a type of control frame that gives a station clearance to begin transmitting packets
A)active attacks
B)association
C)clear to send
D)pairwise keys
E)penetration testing
F)request to send
G)site survey
H)sniffing
I)TKIP
J)WPA2
Q3) List four issues that a wireless security policy should address.
Q4) Each access point has a(n)______________ that essentially functions as the name of the network.
Q5) Describe forged deauthentication.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
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Q1) If you see a /16 in the header of a snort rule,what does it mean?
A) a maximum of 16 log entries should be kept
B) the size of the log file is 16 MB
C) the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0
D) the detected signature is 16 bits in length
Q2) Which of the following is true about an NIDPS versus an HIDPS?
A) an NIDPS can determine if a host attack was successful
B) an HIDPS can detect attacks not caught by an NIDPS
C) an HIDPS can detect intrusion attempts on the entire network
D) an NIDPS can compare audit log records
Q3) Which of the following is considered a problem with a passive,signature-based system?
A) profile updating
B) signature training
C) custom rules
D) false positives
Q4) Define stateful protocol analysis.Include in your answer the concept of the event horizon.
Q5) Contrast anomaly detection with signature detection.
Q6) Describe two advantages and two disadvantages of an anomaly-based system.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Firewalls
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Q1) What is a cleanup rule? Provide an example.
Q2) the end point of a computer-to-computer connection defined by an IP address and port address
A)cleanup rule
B)firewall
C)firewall appliance
D)firewall policy
E)proxy server
F)rule base
G)socket
H)state table
I)stateful packet filters
J)stateless packet filters
Q3) What is a suggested maximum size of a rule base?
A) 30 rules
B) 300 rules
C) 10 rules
D) 100 rules
Q4) The rule base should permit access to public servers in the _________ and enable users to access the Internet.
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Chapter 10: Firewall Design and Management
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Q1) the process of mapping one internal IP address to one external IP address
A)dual-homed host
B)load-balancing software
C)many-to-one NAT
D)one-to-one NAT
E)proxy server
F)reverse firewall
G)screened host
H)screening router
I)server farm
J)three-pronged firewall
Q2) What is a bastion host and how is one typically configured?
Q3) Which of the following is true about a dual-homed host?
A) serves as a single point of entry to the network
B) its main objective is to stop worms and viruses
C) uses a single NIC to manage two network connections
D) it is used as a remote access server in some configurations
Q4) A _______________ router determines whether to allow or deny packets based on their source and destination IP addresses.
Q5) How can using two firewalls help in protecting your network?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: VPN Concepts
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a VPN?
A) VPN server
B) tunnel
C) VPN client
D) authentication server
Q2) an IPsec-related protocol that enables two computers to agree on security settings and establish a Security Association so that they can use Internet Key Exchange
A)AH
B)ESP
C)GRE
D)IKE
E)IPsec
F)ISAKMP
G)Kerberos
H)KDC
I)SSL
J)TGT
Q3) What is an advantage of Kerberos authentication with respect to password security? Explain.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Internet and World Wide Web Security
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Q1) Which of the following is a highly secure public facility in which backbones have interconnected data lines and routers that exchange routing and traffic data?
A) ISP
B) POP
C) NAP
D) NSF
Q2) What is the origin and structure of the Internet? Include some of the services it provides and the protocols they use.
Q3) A _______________ applet is a small program sometimes used as embedded code in Web pages.
Q4) What feature of the 13 DNS root servers enables any group of servers to act as a root server?
A) multicast addressing
B) broadcast addressing
C) anycast addressing
D) unicast addressing
Q5) List three of the steps you should take to close potential holes against SQL injection attacks.
Q6) How can you harden a DNS server using the split DNS architecture?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Security Policy Design and Implementation
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Q1) What points should a third-party access policy include? List at least three.
Q2) Which is best defined as the ability of a system to continue operations despite a failure?
A) fault tolerance
B) survivability analysis
C) reliability audit
D) adaptation and evolution
Q3) Which of the following shows how devices are connected and includes an IP allocation register?
A) hardware inventory
B) topology map
C) asset table
D) security policy
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a phase in the system development life cycle?
A) needs assessment
B) security audit
C) system implementation
D) performance monitoring
Q5) What are the three levels of escalation of threat or security incidents? Describe them.
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Chapter 14: On-Going Security Management
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Q1) Change management should be used before making changes to firewall or IDPS rules that affect users.
A)True
B)False
Q2) a system in which an organization's event and security data is funneled to a management console in the main office
A)active defense in depth
B)centralized data collection
C)degaussing
D)distributed data collection
E)independent audit
F)operational audit
G)security event management program
H)social engineering
I)target-to-console ratio
J)Tinkerbell program
Q3) What is security auditing and what type of information should be analyzed?
Q4) Discuss the process of IDPS signature evaluation.
Q5) List four type of events you should monitor as part of a security event management program.
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