IT Infrastructure Security Exam Bank
Course Introduction
IT Infrastructure Security explores foundational concepts, principles, and practices for protecting the critical components of information technology environments, including networks, servers, endpoints, and cloud services. The course examines the architecture and vulnerabilities of IT infrastructures, threat detection and mitigation strategies, risk assessment, compliance requirements, and incident response procedures. Students learn hands-on techniques for securing hardware and software resources, deploying security tools such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems, and adhering to best practices in infrastructure monitoring and management. By the end of the course, students gain practical skills to secure enterprise systems against evolving cyber threats and ensure the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of organizational assets.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 6th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of security access should a computer user have to do their job?
A)password protected
B)least amount
C)limiting amount
D)authorized access
Answer: B
Q2) Which term below is frequently used to describe the tasks of securing information that is in a digital format?
A)network security
B)information security
C)physical security
D)logical security
Answer: B
Q3) What are script kiddies?
Answer: Script kiddies are individuals who want to break into computers to create damage yet lack the advanced knowledge of computers and networks needed to do so.Instead,script kiddies do their work by downloading automated attack software (scripts)from Web sites and using it to perform malicious acts.
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3
Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe adware.
Answer: Adware delivers advertising content in a manner that is unexpected and unwanted by the user.Once it becomes installed,it typically displays advertising banners,pop-up ads,or opens new web browser windows at random intervals.
Q2) A rootkit can hide its presence,but not the presence of other malware.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is a backdoor and what is it used for?
Answer: A backdoor gives access to a computer,program,or service that circumvents any normal security protections.Backdoors that are installed on a computer allow th attacker to return at a later time and bypass security settings.
Q4) Explain how an appender infection works.
Answer: The virus first appends itself to the end of a file.It then moves the first three bytes of the original file to the virus code and replaces them with a "jump" instruction pointing to the virus code.When the program is launched,the jump instruction redirects control to the virus.
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Chapter 3: Basic Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cryptographic algorithm takes an input string of any length,and returns a string of any requested variable length?
A)substitution
B)block
C)loop
D)sponge
Answer: D
Q2) Asymmetric cryptographic algorithms are also known as private key cryptography.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the difference between a stream cipher and a block cipher?
Answer: When comparing the amount of data a cryptographic algorithm process,a stream cipher works on one character at a time and a block cipher manipulates an entire block of plaintext at one time.
Q4) Ciphertext is the scrambled and unreadable output of encryption.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Advanced Cryptography and PKI
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of trust model is used as the basis for most digital certificates used on the Internet?
A)third-party trust
B)related trust
C)managed trust
D)distributed trust
Q2) What is the S/MIME protocol used for?
Q3) A Subject Alternative Name (SAN)digital certificate,is also known as a Unified Communications Certificate (UCC).
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the three PKI trust models that use a CA.
Q5) What block cipher mode of operation encrypts plaintext and computes a message authentication code to ensure that the message was created by the sender and that it was not tampered with during transmission?
A)Electronic Code Book
B)Galois/Counter
C)Cipher Block Chaining
D)Counter
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Chapter 5: Networking and Server Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are zero-day attacks?
Q2) An attack that takes advantage of the procedures for initiating a session is known as what type of attack?
A)DNS amplification attack
B)IP spoofing
C)smurf attack
D)SYN flood attack
Q3) What type of web server application attacks introduce new input to exploit a vulnerability?
A)language attacks
B)cross-site request attacks
C)hijacking attacks
D)injection attacks
Q4) What are the two types of cross-site attacks? (Choose all that apply. )
A)cross-site input attacks
B)cross-site scripting attacks
C)cross-site request forgery attacks
D)cross-site flood attacks
Q5) What are some of the typical server attacks used by attackers?
Q6) How is a network-based MITM attack executed?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Network Security Devices, Design, and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how Network Access Control (NAC)works.
Q2) Which of the following is a software-based application that runs on a local host computer that can detect an attack as?it occurs?
A)local-based intrusion detection system
B)host-based intrusion detection system
C)host-based application protection
D)local-based application protection
Q3) What kind of networking device forwards packets across different computer networks by reading destination addresses?
A)switch
B)router
C)bridge
D)firewall
Q4) Which network address below is not a private IP address network?
A)10.4.5.0
B)172.63.255.0
C)192.168.255.0
D)172.17.16.0
Q5) Describe the difference between subnetting and VLANs.
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Chapter 7: Administering a Secure Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the problems associated with storing the entire database of names and IP addresses in one location.
Q2) Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)uses a more memory when compared to FTP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When using SNMPv1 or SNMPv2,what piece of information is needed to view information from an agent?
A)entity
B)community string
C)MIB
D)OID
Q4) Discuss at least two security advantages of a host running virtualization.
Q5) Select the TCP/IP protocol that resolves a symbolic name to its corresponding IP address using a database consisting of an organized hierarchy tree.
A)WINS
B)NIS
C)TACACS+
D)DNS
Q6) Explain the basic operating principals used in software defined networking.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Wireless Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum number of characters that can exist within a SSID name?
A)10
B)12
C)26
D)32
Q2) The MAC address is a unique 64-bit number that is "burned" into the network interface card adapter when it is manufactured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the Message Integrity Check (MIC)within WPA used for?
Q4) How does the WPA Temporal Key Integrity Protocol encryption technology operate?
Q5) Authentication for WPA Personal is accomplished by using what type of key?
A)IV
B)PSK
C)TKIP
D)MIC
Q6) List and describe the major parts of an access point.
Q7) The current Bluetooth version is Bluetooth 6.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Client and Application Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) One tool for change management is version control software that allows changes to be automatically recorded and if necessary "rolled back" to a previous version of the software.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What security standard was introduced in conjunction with UEFI?
A)Unified Boot
B)BIOS
C)Secure Boot
D)Firmware Interface
Q3) In Microsoft Windows,what type of templates are a collection of security configuration settings?
A)security
B)user
C)system
D)administrator
Q4) The BIOS was software that was integrated into the computer's motherboard.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is provisioning?
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Chapter 10: Mobile and Embedded Device Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enterprise deployment model requires employees to choose from a selection of company owned and approved devices?
A)BYOD
B)COPE
C)VDI
D)CYOD
Q2) What is the Internet of Things (IoT)?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an Android Smart Lock configuration option?
A)Trusted places detection
B)On-body detection
C)User device detection
D)Trusted face
Q4) How might an attacker misuse a QR code?
Q5) Some mobile devices can be configured so that the device automatically unlocks and stays unlocked until a specific action occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the difference between a feature phone and a smartphone?
Q7) Describe a notebook computer in relation to a laptop computer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Authentication and Account Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brute force attacks can be very slow because every character combination must be generated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a dictionary attack?
Q3) The use of what item below involves the creation of a large pre-generated data set of candidate digests?
A)rainbow tables
B)randomized character list
C)word list
D)cascade tables
Q4) Which type of biometrics is based on the perception,thought process,and understanding of the user?
A)cognitive biometrics
B)reactive biometrics
C)standard biometrics
D)physical biometrics
Q5) A TOTP changes after a set period.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Access Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of computer can forward RADIUS messages between RADIUS clients and RADIUS servers?
A)intermediate proxy
B)remote proxy
C)RADIUS proxy
D)translation proxy
Q2) What policy is designed to ensure that all confidential or sensitive materials,either in paper form or electronic,are removed from a user's workspace and secured when the items not in use or when employees leave their workspace?
A)clean workspace
B)secure workspace
C)clean desk
D)secure desk
Q3) What authentication service commonly used on UNIX devices involves communicating user authentication information to a centralized server?
A)TACACS
B)RADIUS
C)Kerberos
D)FTP
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vulnerability Assessment and Data Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the purpose of a honeypot.
Q2) An administrator running a port scan wants to ensure that no processes are listening on port 23.What state should the port be in?
A)open port
B)secure port
C)hardened port
D)closed port
Q3) Realistically,risks can never be entirely eliminated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nslookup displays detailed information about how a device is communicating with other network devices.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe two common uses for a protocol analyzer.
Q6) Discuss one type of asset that an organization might have.
Q7) List two types of hardening techniques.
Q8) Describe a penetration testing report.
Q10) List at least four things that a vulnerability scanner can do. Page 15
Q9) List and describe the elements that make up a security posture.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Business Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term below describes a component or entity in a system which,if it no longer functions,will disable an entire system?
A)recovery site
B)recovery point
C)single point of failure
D)cascade point of failure
Q2) A legal stop order is a notification sent from the legal team to employees instructing them not to delete electronically stored information or paper documents that may be relevant to the incident.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A privacy impact assessment is used to identify and mitigate privacy risks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What specific way can disaster recovery plans be tested?
A)alternative processing
B)restoration simulation
C)tabletop exercises
D)alternative exercises
Q5) Discuss the purpose and importance of the chain of custody.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Risk Mitigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physical control attempts to discourage security violations before they occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the two risk calculation formulas commonly used to calculate expected losses?
Q3) Select the option that best describes an asset:
A)any item that is used by all employees
B)any item that is owned by an enterprise
C)any item that has a positive economic value
D)any item that is used by management
Q4) What kind of policy defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment?
A)VPN access policy
B)network use policy
C)privacy use policy
D)acceptable use policy
Q5) List and describe three of the six risk categories.
Q6) Contrast the difference between a pedagogical approach versus an andragogical approach to subject matter.
Q7) What is mean time to recovery (MTTR)?
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