Introduction to Surgical Technology
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Surgical Technology offers students a comprehensive overview of the roles, responsibilities, and skills required of a surgical technologist in the modern operating room. The course covers the principles of aseptic technique, patient safety, surgical instrumentation, and operating room procedures. Students will explore the phases of perioperative care, understand the setup and maintenance of sterile environments, and become familiar with the teamwork essential in surgical settings.
Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and hands-on skills, this course prepares students for advanced study and clinical experiences within the field of surgical technology.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many phases of surgical case management are there?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B
Q2) What does the acronym DRG stand for in the hospital setting?
A) doctor of gynecology
B) department of radiography
C) drug reference guide
D) diagnosis related groups
Answer: D
Q3) A private surgical technologist is usually employed by which of the following?
A) surgeon or physician group
B) ambulatory surgery center
C) instrument sales company
D) traveling staffing agency
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) HIPAA
D) OSHA
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct that results in harm to another"?
A) allegation
B) liability
C) malpractice
D) negligence
Answer: C
Q3) General consent is obtained by patients admitted to the hospital and covers all routine services and medical treatment in broad terms but not invasive procedures such as surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr Hans Selye defines stress as a "nonspecific response of the body a demand" (2006)
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to anatomy and physiology, genetics, and pathology?
A) physical
B) psychological
C) social
D) spiritual
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following procedures would be surgical treatment for an elderly patient's psychological dissatisfaction with his or her appearance?
A) blepharoplasty and rhytidectomy
B) laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C) transurethral resection of prostate
D) extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical forces of deceleration, acceleration, compression, and shearing are factors in which type of injuries?
A) blunt
B) electrical
C) hypothermia
D) penetrating
Q2) What is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children?
A) cardiogenic
B) hypervolemic
C) hypovolemic
D) septic
Q3) Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?
A) cephalosporins
B) penicillins
C) sulfonamides
D) tetracyclins
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 10 cm
Q2) Which type of electricity is generated primarily by friction between two surfaces?
A) alternating
B) bipolar
C) direct
D) static
Q3) A strategy to avoid intraoperative sharps injuries is to establish and use which type of a zone?
A) danger
B) exposure
C) free
D) neutral
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a safety mechanism engineered into the ESU that alerts the surgical team that the device is being activated?
A) audible tone
B) flashing light on pencil
C) smoke from generator
D) vibration of electrodes
Q2) What is the name of the visual indicator represented by an arrow, blinking line, or hand that appears when the mouse is used to point to something on the screen?
A) character
B) checker
C) clicker
D) cursor
Q3) The electromagnetic waves that create radio and television signals are measured in wave cycles per second termed:
A) frequency
B) resistance
C) voltage
D) wattage
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:
A) DART
B) Bowie-Dick
C) Bacillus atrophaeus
D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
Q2) Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
A)Prions
B)Helminths
C)Spores
D)Prokaryotes
E)Helicobacter pylori
F)Zygomycosis
G)Viruses
H)Clostridium perfringens
I)Flagella
J)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injuries associated with an exploded nuclear device include:
A) blast injuries
B) thermal/flash burns
C) retinal injuries
D) all of the above
Q2) What does the letter D stand for in reference to the chain-of-survival concept in cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A) death reduction
B) definitive treatment
C) depth of compression
D) destination planning
Q3) Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?
A) heat cramps
B) heat exhaustion
C) heat stroke
D) heat wave
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of anesthesia would be considered nontraditional in the United States?
A) acupuncture
B) Bier block
C) monitored
D) spinal block
Q2) What is the topical agent used by peripheral vascular and neurosurgeons to dilate blood vessels intraoperatively?
A) papaverine HCl
B) lidocaine HCl
C) epinephrine
D) heparin
Q3) What type of anesthesia nerve block involves injecting local anesthetics with Wydase around the optic nerves?
A) Bier
B) caudal
C) epidural
D) retrobulbar
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11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an anesthesia provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical structures?
A) bayonet ESU bipolar forceps
B) cryotherapy unit
C) nerve stimulator
D) phaco-emulsifier
Q2) Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?
A) phaco-emulsifier
B) pneumatic tourniquet
C) sequential compression device
D) suction system
Q3) Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:
A) dilators
B) dissectors
C) drains
D) dressings
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) To achieve the goal of leaving as little foreign material in a wound, the ideal suture selected should have:
A) a large diameter gauge
B) an antibacterial coating over it
C) tightly braided fibers with capillarity
D) high-tensile strength and small diameter
Q2) Ligatures are use to:
A) prevent evisceration
B) eliminate dead space
C) approximate tissue layers
D) occlude the lumen of a blood vessel
Q3) If tissue is approximated too tightly, it can result in:
A) adhesions
B) granulation
C) ischemia
D) keloids
Q4) Tourniquets provide permanent mechanical hemostasis and enhance visualization by creating a bloodless field.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?
A) double gloving
B) full coverage system
C) lead aprons/shields
D) splash guard mask
Q2) With what amount and which fluid is a 16 Fr., two-way Foley catheter with 5 cc balloon filled?
A) 5 mL of sterile water
B) 5 mL of sterile normal saline
C) 10 mL of sterile water
D) 10 mL of sterile normal saline
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?
A) anatomical timed
B) brushless/waterless
C) counted strokes
D) medical hand wash
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14
Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients?
A) iodine
B) sodium
C) calcium salts
D) radionuclides
Q2) A type of organism that dies quickly when exposed to air is called:
A) aerophilic
B) anaerobic
C) neoplastic
D) oxidative
Q3) B-cells and T-cells are types of:
A) platelets
B) hemoglobin
C) lymphocytes
D) red blood cells
Q4) Hemoglobin is measured in grams per deciliter, and hematocrit is measured in percentages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which surgical procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used?
A) appendectomy
B) breast biopsy
C) cholecystectomy
D) hemorrhoidectomy
Q2) What is the incision routinely used for open cholecystectomy?
A) McBurney
B) Pfannenstiel
C) left subcostal
D) right subcostal
Q3) Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females?
A) femoral
B) epigastric
C) direct inguinal
D) indirect inguinal
Q4) Conversion from a laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure is always a possibility that the surgical technologist should be prepared for.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fallopian tubes are located bilaterally in the mesosalpinx of which uterine-pelvic ligaments?
A) broad
B) cardinal
C) round
D) uterosacral
Q2) Which of the following is routinely done first in a basic gynecologic laparoscopy that may require a small separate setup and glove change before proceeding?
A) cervical conization
B) pelvic ultrasonography
C) insertion of uterine manipulator
D) injection of methylene blue into IV
Q3) What color is the abnormal tissue after staining with acetic acid in a cervical biopsy?
A) blue
B) white
C) brown
D) no color change
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for a cystic structure caused by an inflammatory response to material trapped in a meibomian gland?
A) cataract
B) chalazion
C) ectropian
D) entropian
Q2) Hereditary, progressive, noninflammatory disease of the anterior surface of the eye; diagnostic indication for keratoplasty
A)Diopter
B)Beaver
C)Aperture
D)Canthus
E)Vitrector
F)Split
G)Diplopia
H)Corneal dystrophy
I)Tarsal plate
J)Trabecular meshwork
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?
A) adenoiditis
B) mastoiditis
C) rhinitis
D) tonsillitis
Q2) What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burs on a pneumatic drill?
A) place drill in reverse position
B) place drill in forward position
C) put hand piece on safety
D) disconnect hand piece from hose
Q3) Why is a scapular or shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx?
A) prevent pressure necrosis
B) tilt head to increase exposure
C) reduce intraoperative bleeding
D) provide comfort for awake patient
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19
Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sequence of steps for plate fixation is CORRECT?
A) Drill all holes, place plate, tap, measure with depth gauge, and insert screws.
B) Drill all holes, place plate, measure with depth gauge, tap, and insert screws.
C) Place plate, drill one hole at a time, tap, measure with depth gauge, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.
D) Place plate, drill one hole at a time, measure with depth gauge, tap, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.
Q2) Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion?
A) jaw
B) nose
C) orbit
D) palate
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure?
A) centralization of radial dysplasia
B) cheiloplasty
C) mastopexy
D) rhinoplasty
Q2) Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the graft remains intact?
A) Doppler probe
B) manometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) stethoscope
Q3) Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?
A) to prevent confusion because multiple surgeons will work simultaneously
B) to prevent potential for retained foreign objects in the wounds
C) to prevent overcrowding of the back table with multiple trays
D) to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
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21
Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis
A)Epididymis
B)Balanitis
C)Hyperplasia
D)Palladium
E)Torsion
F)Hypospadias
G)Robotic
H)Geiger counter
I)Chordee
J)Tunica vaginalis
Q2) Where is the hilum of the kidney located?
A) superior pole
B) inferior pole
C) lateral midsection
D) medial midsection
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:
A) bone screws with spiked washers
B) bioabsorbable screws
C) Steinman pins
D) staples
Q2) Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Bankart
B) Bristow
C) Colles'
D) Putti-Platt
Q3) The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:
A) pelvic girdle
B) rotator cuff
C) sternal notch
D) thoracic cage
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass?
A) intra-aortic balloon pump
B) left ventricular vent
C) cardiac pacemaker
D) vena cava filter
Q2) Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system?
A) ventricular assist device
B) left ventricular vent
C) cardiac pacemaker
D) vena cava filter
Q3) What is the medical term for coughing up blood?
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) hemoptysis
D) pneumonitis
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transient cerebral ischemic episodes are treated surgically by:
A) angioplasty
B) atriovenous fistula and shunt
C) carotid endarterectomy
D) coronary artery bypass
Q2) Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids?
A) Argyle
B) Fogarty
C) Groshong
D) Javid
Q3) A #11 blade and forward angle or reverse angle Potts-Smith scissors are frequently used for:
A) arteriotomy
B) embolectomy
C) skin incisions
D) suture cutting
Q4) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?
A) astrocytoma
B) ependymoma
C) glioma
D) meningioma
Q2) In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?
A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
B) fronto-temporal craniotomy for aneurysm
C) placement of ventriculo-atrial shunt
D) rhizotomy for intractable trigeminal neuralgia
Q3) Which portion of the normal spinal column has five (5) vertebrae?
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) coccygeal
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