Introduction to Pathology for Physical Therapist Assistants
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course introduces physical therapist assistant students to the fundamental principles of pathology as they relate to physical therapy practice. Topics include the nature and causes of diseases, general and systemic pathological processes, tissue response to injury, and mechanisms of healing and repair. Students learn how various pathological conditions affect movement, function, and the bodys response to physical therapy interventions. Emphasis is placed on recognizing common diseases and disorders encountered in physical therapy settings, understanding medical terminology, and collaborating effectively with the healthcare team in managing patients with pathological conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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37 Chapters
741 Verified Questions
741 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In utero gene therapy (IUGT)is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is performed _________.
A) immediately after conception
B) before symptoms have manifested
C) after symptoms have manifested, but before birth
D) after birth
Answer: B
Q2) The nucleus of nearly every cell in the human body contains _________.
A) amino acids
B) DNA
C) proteins
D) ribosomes
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following was not a purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) to identify all human genes
B) to map the genes' locations on chromosomes
C) to determine the origins of humans on the planet
D) to provide detailed information on genes function
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Problems Affecting Multiple Systems
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Q1) A patient has experienced a grade 2 reaction to radiation in the axilla.Which of the following would be an inappropriate treatment for a patient with this diagnosis?
A) active and passive range motion from the shoulder
B) skin cream to the area
C) use of antiperspirants
D) washing the area daily with water and gentle soap
Answer: C
Q2) Serious side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)are usually not seen in which part of the body?
A) gastrointestinal (GI) tract
B) kidneys
C) cardiovascular system
D) skin
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Injury, Inflammation, and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein poor fluid leaking from the vasculature into a joint cavity is called ________.
A) transudate
B) exudate
C) effusion
D) edema
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following disorders is the result of an alteration in the chromosome?
A) sickle cell anemia
B) low density lipoprotein
C) alpha-antitrypsin deficiency
D) Down syndrome
Answer: D
Q3) Ischemia at the cellular level will lead to all of the following except:
A) loss of aerobic metabolism
B) release of exotoxin
C) cell swelling
D) decreased delivery of nutrients
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: The Immune System
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Q1) What leukocytes engulf any bacterium,enabling the body to begin a specific immune response to bacteria?
A) neutrophils
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) macrophages
Q2) Which of the following activities would have a detrimental effect on the immune system?
A) marathon running
B) 5K run
C) exercise bike for 30 minutes
D) playing a baseball game
Q3) What is the most common cancer associated with HIV?
A) Hodgkin's lymphoma
B) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
D) Burkitt's lymphomas
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Chapter 5: Infectious Disease
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Q1) Virulence is defined as __________.
A) the ability of the organism to induce disease
B) pathogens that cause disease in people with intact defense systems
C) pathogens that cause disease in people with impaired immune systems
D) the potency of the pathogen in producing severe disease
Q2) Individuals with what disease are at risk for splenic rupture?
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) herpes simplex type 1
C) herpes simplex type 2
D) varicella zoster
Q3) In general,which of the following conditions will most likely elevate the body's temperature above 102° F?
A) pulmonary emboli
B) dehydration
C) myocardial infarction
D) HIV infection
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Chapter 6: Oncology
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Q1) Why is metastasis more likely to occur via veins as opposed to arteries?
A) Cancer cells prefer deoxygenated blood.
B) Cancer cells cannot survive in arteries.
C) Cancer cells cannot pass through the heart and lungs.
D) Cancer cells cannot penetrate the arterial wall.
Q2) A cancerous tumor that is characterized as stage 1 can be defined as _______.
A) premalignant
B) early stage
C) increased risk of spreading because of tumor size
D) cancer has spread to other sites
Q3) A physical therapist assistant (PTA)begins intervention for a patient diagnosed with liver cancer.Which of the following choices is a normal complication of liver cancer and would not require the PTA to contact the referring physician or the supervising physical therapist?
A) chest pain
B) unusual pain
C) night pain
D) shoulder pain
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8
Chapter 7: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following recommendations regarding the use of sunscreen is the most accurate?
A) Do not use on infants under 6 months of age.
B) Do not use to prevent squamous cell carcinoma.
C) Sunscreen is ineffective if riding inside an automobile.
D) Sunscreen is best applied immediately before exposure to the sun.
Q2) Which of the following skin disorders is least likely to develop into a malignant melanoma?
A) seborrheic keratosis
B) basal cell carcinoma
C) squamous cell carcinoma
D) actinic keratosis
Q3) What does the physical therapist assistant (PTA)really need to know about lice?
A) Lice are transmitted by pets.
B) Soap containing permethrin is used in the treatment of head lice.
C) Any clothes that come in contact should be washed in cold water.
D) Patients infected with head lice will complain of pain.
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Chapter 8: The Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following areas is the most common location for a diabetic ulcer?
A) plantar surface of the metatarsal head
B) dorsal surface of the metatarsals
C) lateral malleolus
D) medial malleolus
Q2) Parathyroid hormone _____________.
A) decreases the release of calcium and phosphate from bone
B) increases the rate of absorption of calcium by the kidneys
C) decreases calcium absorption in the GI tract
D) promotes absorption of phosphate by the kidneys
Q3) An individual with hyperthyroidism is beginning outpatient physical therapy.What would you expect to observe clinically in this patient?
A) fatigue
B) a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute
C) proximal muscle spasticity
D) normal or enhanced cardiac output during exercise
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Chapter 9: The Cardiovascular System
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Q1) What disease is associated with thickening of the walls of the small arteries?
A) atherosclerosis
B) Mönckeberg's arteriosclerosis
C) arteriosclerosis
D) coronary artery disease
Q2) A physical therapist assistant (PTA)is treating a patient on cardiac medication in the home health setting.What are the effects of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitor on the heart and cardiovascular system?
A) prevents constriction of blood vessels and retention of sodium and fluid
B) constricts arterioles and increases retention of sodium and fluid
C) alters conduction patterns in the heart
D) prevents blood clot formation
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of coronary microvascular disease?
A) crushing chest pain
B) depression
C) cold sweat
D) nausea
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Chapter 10: The Hematologic System
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Q1) __________________ is a malignancy that increases the rate of cell division of plasma cells produced in bone marrow.
A) Hodgkin's lymphoma
B) multiple myeloma
C) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) leukocytosis
Q2) Which of the following would not be a cause of anemia?
A) significant trauma
B) bleeding within the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C) decreased leukocyte production
D) sickle cell disease
Q3) Which of the following activities would be considered dangerous for someone diagnosed with hemophilia?
A) swimming
B) bicycling
C) racquetball
D) martial arts
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12
Chapter 11: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cough indicates airway irritation and infection?
A) nonproductive cough
B) dry cough
C) productive cough with purulent sputum
D) productive cough with nonpurulent sputum
Q2) Obese people are most likely to have what type of sleep apnea?
A) central sleep apnea
B) mixed sleep apnea
C) obstructive sleep apnea
D) restrictive sleep apnea
Q3) All of the following can be described as a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)except?
A) asthma
B) acute bronchitis
C) obstructive bronchiolitis
D) emphysema
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13
Chapter 12: The Hepatic, Pancreatic, and Biliary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the site of referred pain from the hepatic and biliary systems?
A) right hip
B) left hip
C) right shoulder
D) left shoulder
Q2) What is the most common location of obstruction by gall stones?
A) cystic duct
B) tail of pancreas
C) duct of Wirsung
D) common bile duct
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom associated with acute cholangitis and Charcot's triad?
A) pain
B) fever
C) jaundice
D) nausea
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Pathology of the
Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding differences between adults and children during exercise?
A) The child has a larger heart size than the adult.
B) The child has a larger stroke volume than the adult.
C) Children should be watched closely for poor form and posture during exercises.
D) A child's heart rate is lower during maximal exercise than the adult.
Q2) Which of the following is a correct exercise prescription for a 90-year-old individual beginning an exercise program?
A) frequency of 2 to 3 days per week, intensity of 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve, duration of 20 minutes
B) frequency of 2 to 3 days per week, intensity of 60% to 80% of heart rate reserve, duration of 45 minutes
C) frequency of 1 day per week, intensity of 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve, duration of 20 minutes
D) frequency of 5 days per week, intensity of 60% to 80% of heart rate reserve, duration of 30 minutes
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15
Chapter 14: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of muscular dystrophy has the most rapid progression?
A) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
B) Becker's muscular dystrophy
C) facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D) limb-girdle muscular dystrophy
Q2) Posterior dislocation of the radial head is usually a sign of what type of brachial plexus injury at birth?
A) Erb-Duchenne palsy
B) Klumpke's palsy
C) proximal plexus palsy
D) cerebral palsy
Q3) What is often the first sign of facioscapulohumeral dystrophy (FSHD)?
A) forward shoulders and scapular winging
B) difficulty raising the arms overhead
C) tibialis anterior weakness
D) inability to close the eyes
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16
Chapter 15: Infectious Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does osteomyelitis in the adult population lead to pathologic fracture?
A) The epiphyseal growth plate is usually involved.
B) The periosteum is loosely attached to bone and moves away easily.
C) Osteomyelitis is rare in adults.
D) Infection disrupts and weakens the cortex inside the bone without pain.
Q2) What factor(s)increase the likelihood of infection in a prosthetic implanted joint?
A) prior surgery at the site of prosthesis
B) recent myocardial infarction
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) corticosteroid therapy
Q3) Which of the following tests is the most accurate in detecting early osteomyelitis?
A) x-ray
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) blood test for white blood count
D) culture of the suspected aspirate
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Chapter 16: Musculoskeletal Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the bone marrow?
A) osteoma
B) leukemia
C) chondroma
D) fibroma
Q2) Which of the following bones is least likely to develop osteosarcoma?
A) vertebra
B) femur
C) humerus
D) tibia
Q3) Which of the following is the current treatment of choice for osteosarcoma?
A) radiation
B) chemotherapy
C) amputation
D) surgical removal of the primary tumor
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding osteoblastoma?
A) It is smaller than osteoid osteoma.
B) Pain of osteoblastoma is relieved with aspirin.
C) Osteoblastoma is common in the spine, sacrum, and flat bones.
D) There is usually no tenderness over the lesion.
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Chapter 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does morning stiffness associated with osteoarthritis,typically last?
A) 5 to 10 minutes
B) 20 to 30 minutes
C) 2 to 3 hours
D) 4 to 6 hours
Q2) Which of the following is the least effective treatment for Osgood-Schlatter syndrome?
A) discontinuing the aggravating activity
B) icing the affected knee daily
C) stretching the hamstrings
D) immobilizing the knee
Q3) How soon after the initial trauma can heterotopic ossification be seen on radiographic examination?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 3 weeks
C) 3 to 4 weeks
D) 4 to 6 weeks
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is indicative of a metabolic or drug-induced coma?
A) severe headache with focal seizures
B) unequal or absent corneal reflex
C) decorticate or decerebrate posturing
D) intact deep tendon reflexes
Q2) If there is a lesion on one side of the spinal cord _________________.
A) there is a decrease in sensation to touch on the same side of the lesion and decrease in pain sensation on the same side of the lesion
B) there is a decrease in sensation to touch on the opposite side of the lesion and a decrease in pain on the opposite side of the lesion
C) there is a decrease in touch on the same side of the lesion and a decrease in pain sensation on the opposite side of the lesion
D) there is a decrease in touch on the opposite side of the lesion and a decrease in pain sensation on the same side of the lesion
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Chapter 19: Infectious Disorders of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Brain infection can cause which of the following to occur?
A) increased antibodies in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B) CSF will have more white blood cells than blood
C) brain infarction and decreased cerebral blood flow
D) an increase in the level of blood glucose in the CSF
Q2) Symptoms of encephalitis may include which of the following?
A) Symptoms of encephalitis always include coma.
B) Symptoms of encephalitis vary widely depending on the individual and degree of infection.
C) Symptoms of encephalitis always include aphasia.
D) Symptoms of encephalitis always include hemiparesis.
Q3) What structure in the cranium has the closest contact with the brain?
A) dura mater
B) arachnoid
C) subarachnoid space
D) pia matter
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21
Chapter 20: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with an improved prognosis of MS?
A) motor and cerebellar symptoms
B) disability after the first attack
C) short time interval between attacks
D) sensory symptoms
Q2) What is the most common initial manifestation of Parkinson's disease (PD)?
A) rigidity
B) bradykinesia
C) tremor
D) festinating gait
Q3) A patient with dystonia presents to the physician for a Botox injection.Where will the physician most likely inject the Botox?
A) in the affected muscle
B) in the synergistic muscle
C) in the contralateral muscle
D) in the hip
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Chapter 21: Stroke
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a cause of secondary intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?
A) impaired coagulation
B) trauma
C) hypertension
D) toxin exposure
Q2) Which artery is occluded if a patient has abnormal sensations of pain,temperature,proprioception,and touch?
A) middle cerebral artery syndrome
B) anterior cerebral artery syndrome
C) internal carotid artery syndrome
D) posterior cerebral artery syndrome
Q3) A patient has just suffered an embolic stroke.Blood pressure at the time of admission to the emergency department is 200/100 mm Hg.Which of the following is the correct intervention option for this patient's blood pressure?
A) Decrease blood pressure immediately.
B) Increase blood pressure immediately.
C) Allow blood pressure to maintain its current level and monitor.
D) The patient should be given diuretics immediately.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Traumatic Brain Injury
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Q1) What level of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning would be characterized by a client with the following signs and symptoms? The client reacts specifically but inconsistently to stimuli.Responses are directly related to the type of stimulus presented.The client follows simple commands in an inconsistent delayed manner such as closing the eyes or squeezing the hand.
A) level I
B) level II
C) level III
D) level IV
Q2) Posttraumatic aneurysms of what artery can be associated with delayed and sometimes lethal massive nose bleed?
A) middle cerebral artery
B) anterior cerebral artery
C) internal carotid artery
D) posterior cerebral artery
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Chapter 23: Traumatic Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate long-term goal associated with a C8 quadriplegic?
A) dependent in all dressing activities
B) dependent in all bathing activities
C) use of assisting devices for writing, page turning, and use of telephone
D) able to dress and undress in wheelchair with assistive devices
Q2) Ischemia and necrosis occur primarily where in the spinal cord after injury?
A) above T6
B) below T6
C) in the gray matter
D) in the white matter
Q3) What type of spinal cord injury is characterized by a more severe loss of upper extremity movement than lower extremity movement?
A) anterior cord syndrome
B) central cord syndrome
C) posterior cord syndrome
D) conus medullaris syndrome
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Chapter 24: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) A 14-year-old with cerebral palsy is able to participate in some physical activities and sports.What level has this child achieved according to the GMFCS?
A) level I
B) level II
C) level III
D) level IV
Q2) A client is receiving Botox injections into the gastrocnemius muscle secondary to spasticity associated with CP.In general,when will the symptoms of muscle spasms decrease?
A) immediately after injection
B) in 1 to 2 days
C) in 3 to 7 days
D) in 7 to 10 days
Q3) Which of the following is not seen on examination of children affected with CP on autopsy?
A) Hemorrhage below the lining of the ventricles
B) Hypoxia causing encephalopathy
C) Malformations of the central nervous system
D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
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Chapter 25: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding neuropathy?
A) There is hypertonia of muscles involved.
B) Motor symptoms tend to occur first distally.
C) Deep tendon reflexes are increased.
D) The most proximal deep tendon reflexes will be affected first.
Q2) The medication amiodarone is toxic to peripheral nerves.What is this medication prescribed for?
A) cancer
B) irregular heartbeat
C) skin diseases
D) seizures and pain
Q3) Prolonged compression of a nerve that produces an area of infarction and necrosis is defined as which of the following?
A) neurapraxia
B) myelinopathy
C) axonotmesis
D) neurotmesis
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27
Chapter 26: Behavioral, Social, and Environmental Factors
Contributing to Disease and Dysfunction
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Q1) Which model of health focuses on the disease process?
A) The social-ecologic model
B) The biopsychosocial model
C) The biomedical model
D) Family-based model
Q2) What was the leading cause of death in the United States in the year 2000?
A) heart disease
B) cancer
C) stroke
D) pneumonia
Q3) What hormone is released in women as a part of stress response that buffers the "fight-or-flight" response?
A) testosterone
B) parathyroid hormone
C) oxytocin
D) estrogen
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Chapter 27: The Psychosocial-Spiritual Impact on Health Care
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Q1) What portion of the brain becomes overactive in PTSD?
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) thalamus
D) cerebellum
Q2) What has a persistent long-term release in children who have undergone abuse?
A) adrenaline
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) cortisol
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of methamphetamine use on the central nervous system?
A) increased appetite
B) increased respirations
C) euphoria
D) anxiety
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Environmental and Occupational Medicine
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Q1) Which of the following is the federal research agency that conducts studies to develop safety and health standards?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C) Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
D) National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
Q2) Injury to what body part constitutes the majority of work-related cases?
A) upper extremity
B) back
C) lower extremity
D) neck
Q3) The effect of which of the following chemicals has been referred to as creating an estrogen-dominant environment?
A) asbestos
B) nitrous oxide
C) petrochemicals
D) mercury
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Chapter 29: The Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) What type of food should be avoided for an individual with a peptic ulcer?
A) fruit juice
B) coffee
C) milk
D) soft drinks
Q2) Which of the following conditions is considered a chronic inflammatory disorder of the mucosa and submucosa of the colon in a continuous manner?
A) Crohn's disease
B) regional enteritis
C) ulcerative colitis
D) terminal ileitis
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a major cause of upper GI bleeding?
A) major trauma or systemic illness
B) peptic ulcers
C) chronic alcohol abuse
D) failure of the lower esophageal sphincter
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Chapter 30: The Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) Which patient population is at risk for a urinary tract infection due to the dilation of the upper urinary system?
A) young females
B) females in a long-term care setting
C) middle-age females
D) pregnant women
Q2) At what stage of chronic kidney disease is an individual most likely to exhibit asterixis?
A) stage II
B) stage III
C) stage IV
D) stage V
Q3) A patient is beginning a pelvic floor strengthening program secondary to urinary incontinence.Which of the following muscles is inappropriate to strengthen during this intervention?
A) gluteus medius
B) pelvic diaphragm
C) urogenital diaphragm
D) external sphincter muscle
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Chapter 31: Central Nervous System Neoplasms
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Q1) What type of tumor will provoke a local osteoblastic response?
A) pituitary adenoma
B) neuroma
C) meningioma
D) astrocytoma
Q2) What is the most common malignant primary CNS tumor in children?
A) ependymoma
B) medulloblastoma
C) astrocytoma
D) oligodendroglioma
Q3) Astrocytomas in children often present with which of the following symptoms first?
A) expressive dysphasia
B) lack of concentration
C) unilateral ataxia
D) nausea and vomiting
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Chapter 32: Epilepsy
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a cause of seizures in an infant?
A) hypoglycemia
B) breech delivery
C) hypoxic-ischemic brain insult
D) cerebral contusion
Q2) Which of the following will not increase seizure activity in people with epilepsy?
A) aspirin
B) caffeine
C) amphetamines
D) some asthma drugs
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a simple partial seizure?
A) jerking of muscles
B) paresthesias or tingling
C) illusions/hallucinations
D) loss of consciousness
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34
Chapter 33: Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cranial nerves is often associated with the distribution of pain during migraine headache?
A) cranial nerve V
B) cranial nerve VI
C) cranial nerve VII
D) cranial nerve VIII
Q2) Which of the following medications is least likely to increase tension headache symptoms?
A) overuse of analgesics
B) overuse of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) estrogenic hormones
D) -blockers
Q3) Why does disk disease in the lower neck contribute to cervicogenic headaches?
A) This leads to disk displacement.
B) This leads to abnormal increased muscle tone.
C) There is compensatory increase in upper cervical spine movement.
D) There is nerve root irritation in the lower cervical spine.
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Chapter 34: The Male Genital or Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of prostatitis has no recommendation for treatment?
A) acute bacterial prostatitis
B) chronic bacterial prostatitis
C) chronic prostatitis
D) asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
Q2) At what point after prostate surgery do virtually all individuals gain continence?
A) 3weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
Q3) Which of the following surgical interventions for BPH require the client to wear a catheter for 1 to 3 weeks afterward?
A) transurethral prostatectomy (TURP)
B) transurethral incision prostate (TUIP)
C) Transurethral ethanol ablation of the prostate (TEAP)
D) water-induced thermal therapy
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Chapter 35: The Female Genital or Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,which of the following cancers has the poorest prognosis?
A) cervical cancer
B) uterine cancer
C) fallopian tube cancer
D) ovarian cancer
Q2) Which of the following is not a side effect of the prescription of estrogen after menopause?
A) breast cancer
B) fractures
C) heart disease
D) stroke
Q3) Which of the following is a primary cause of cervical cancer?
A) herpes simplex virus
B) human papilloma virus
C) gonorrhea
D) smoking
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Chapter 36: Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is specific to dysfunction of the otolith?
A) vestibular-evoked myogenic potentials
B) electrocochleography
C) posturography
D) rotational chair testing
Q2) If the motor components of the visual-ocular system are damaged,which of the following would be true?
A) Visual and vestibular controlled eye movements would be normal.
B) Visual and vestibular controlled eye movements would be abnormal.
C) Visually controlled eye movements would be normal, but vestibular dependent eye movements would be abnormal.
D) Visually controlled eye movements would be abnormal, but vestibular dependent eye movements would be normal.
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom of the unilateral vestibular neuronitis?
A) nausea/vomiting
B) rotary vertigo
C) spontaneous horizontal nystagmus
D) pain
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Chapter 37: Laboratory Tests and Values
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type I diabetes presents to the outpatient physical therapy clinic.The client informs the PTA that they have not eaten all day and are feeling lightheaded.A blood glucose level of 54 mg/dL is found with hand held glucometer testing.What should the PTA do first?
A) Contact the supervising physical therapist
B) Initiate 911
C) Contact the referring physician
D) Administer fruit juice for the patient
Q2) What type of white blood cells present in the blood are normally the majority?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) What two body systems primarily regulate pH?
A) Cardiovascular and respiratory
B) Respiratory and renal
C) Renal and cardiovascular
D) Cardiovascular and neurological
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