Introduction to Nursing Practice Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nursing Practice offers students a comprehensive overview of the foundational principles and essential skills required for a successful nursing career. Emphasizing professional standards, ethical considerations, and evidence-based care, this course explores the roles and responsibilities of the nurse within the healthcare system. Students will learn about patient assessment, basic clinical procedures, infection control, communication techniques, and the importance of cultural competence. Through a combination of theoretical learning and hands-on clinical experiences, the course prepares students to deliver safe, compassionate, and effective nursing care to individuals and families across diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1949, the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) was founded by
Answer: Lillian Kuster
In 1949 the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) was founded by Lillian Kuster. This association is the official membership organization for licensed practical nurses/licensed vocational nurses (LPN/LVNs), and membership is limited to LPNs and LVNs.
Q2) What is the most effective process to ensure that the care plan is meeting the needs of the patient?
A) Documentation
B) Communication
C) Evaluation
D) Planning
Answer: B
Q3) What is the purpose of licensing laws for LPN/LVNs?
A) To limit the number of LPN/LVNs.
B) Prevention of malpractice
C) Protection of the public from unqualified people
D) To increase revenue for the state board of nursing
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way for a nurse to avoid a lawsuit?
A) Carry malpractice insurance
B) Spend time with the patient
C) Provide compassionate, competent care
D) Answer all call lights quickly
Answer: C
Q2) During a lunch break, an emergency department (ED) nurse truthfully tells another nurse about the condition of a patient who came to the ED last night. What is the ED nurse guilty of? (Select all that apply.)
A) HIPAA violation
B) Slander
C) Libel
D) Invasion of privacy
E) Defamation
Answer: A, D
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) The best defense against malpractice claims associated with nursing care is accurate _____________.
Answer: documentation
Accurate documentation can guard against malpractice claims because it should describe when, what, and how events occurred.
Q2) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
Q3) Who is the legal owner of the patient's medical record?
A) Patient
B) Physician
C) Institution
D) State
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a patient that based on the description of "personal space," the area within 18 inches of the patient is designated as the ____________ zone.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing excruciating pain and requires frequent administration of analgesics. What statement would be an example of the nurse demonstrating aggressive communication?
A) "Please let me know when you start to have pain."
B) "Let's practice some guided imagery."
C) "Let's try repositioning you."
D) "I will only medicate you every 4 hours."
Q3) What therapeutic communication technique requires a great deal of skill and is not used as frequently as other communication techniques?
A) Touch
B) Silence
C) Listening
D) Summarizing
Q4) The ___________ is the person conveying the message, whereas the ____________ is the individual or individuals to whom the message is conveyed.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as ___________.
Q2) What is an appropriate outcome statement for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions?
A) The patient will increase intake to 1000 mL daily to liquefy secretions.
B) The patient will cough more frequently within 3 days.
C) The patient will breathe better within 3 days.
D) The patient will perform deep-breathing exercises four times daily.
Q3) What type of assessment is performed continuously throughout nurse-patient contact?
A) Complete
B) Body systems
C) Focused
D) Subjective
Q4) The document that outlines a multidisciplinary plan for care interventions over a specified time frame is a _______ ________.
Q5) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) Which health belief system focuses on restoring balance with physical, social, and metaphysical worlds?
A) Folk health belief system
B) Holistic health belief system
C) Biomedical health belief system
D) Alternative/complementary belief system
Q2) A nurse is caring for a neonate born to observant Orthodox Jewish parents. Who can the nurse anticipate will name the neonate?
A) Father
B) Mother
C) Grandfather
D) Grandmother
Q3) The nurse is caring for a Mexican American patient who is in labor. How can this nurse best demonstrate cultural sensitivity?
A) Encouraging female family members to be present for the delivery
B) Encouraging the patient's spouse to be present for the delivery
C) Asking the patient's spouse to see his baby before cutting the umbilical cord
D) Asking the patient's spouse to hold the neonate before bathing the neonate
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) What can result from the nurse consistently performing hand hygiene and using sterile supplies when caring for patients in the hospital setting?
A) Hospital stay is shortened
B) Sense of self-worth is improved
C) Risk of infection is reduced
D) Nursing care needed is reduced
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about the most important preventive technique for breaking the chain of infection. What technique is the patient learning about?
A) Sterilization
B) Standard Precautions
C) Hand hygiene
D) Medical asepsis
Q3) The infection control practitioner plans an in-service on control of health care-associated infections. What should be the focus of this program?
A) Observing nurses caring for patients
B) Screening patients who are admitted to the hospital
C) Educating hospital personnel about aseptic practices
D) Discharging infectious patients from the hospital
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Q1) The nurse is performing passive range-of-motion exercises on a patient following a traumatic injury. What is the number of times the nurse should move each joint when performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Q2) How should the nurse assist the patient with moving when pain is anticipated?
A) Be supportive
B) Apply heat before moving them
C) Administer medication before ambulation
D) Obtain assistance if the patient is heavy
Q3) What is considered to be the minimum number of hours of daily activity necessary to prevent the negative consequences of immobility?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q2) Where should a nurse performing a backrub begin?
A) Shoulder
B) Base of the neck
C) Sacral area
D) Lumbar area
Q3) The nurse is bathing a patient with a deep vein thrombosis in the left leg. What modification will the nurse make when attending to the left leg?
A) Washing the leg with long, firm strokes and drying with a towel
B) Omitting washing the leg at all
C) Gently washing the leg and patting dry with a towel
D) Applying lotion in long, smooth strokes
Q4) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
Q2) A disaster situation occurs and involves an explosion in a hospital laundry. What would this be classified as ?
A) Active
B) External
C) Life-threatening
D) Internal
Q3) The nurse manager is providing an in-service regarding a "safe hospital environment." What will this education mainly focus on preventing?
A) Falls
B) Exposure to contaminants
C) Injury
D) Electrical hazard
Q4) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) What is the pulse-the expansion and contraction of an artery- produced by?
A) Contraction of the right atrium
B) Contraction of the right ventricle
C) Contraction of the left atrium
D) Contraction of the left ventricle
Q2) A nurse assesses a patient's dorsalis pedis pulse. The pulse is not palpable when light pressure is applied. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Weak pulse
B) Normal pulse
C) Thready pulse
D) Bounding pulse
Q3) How should the nurse position the ear pinna when using the tympanic thermometer on a child?
A) Upward and back
B) Parallel
C) Downward and back
D) Upward and forward
Q4) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical assessment, the nurse observes a patient experiencing a sudden audible expulsion of air from the lungs. What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cyanosis
C) Coughing
D) Ecchymosis
Q2) A nurse is gathering objective data when admitting a patient. Which assessment finding reported by the patient is considered objective?
A) Complains of nausea
B) States, "I hurt all over."
C) Complains of feeling anxious
D) Appears to be anxious
Q3) The nurse is obtaining a history of a patient's present illness. The PQRST system is used for the interview. What does the R stand for in this system?
A) Random
B) Region
C) Result
D) Recent
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A) Withdrawal
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Regression
Q2) If a patient has an order for an interagency transfer where does the nurse explain that the patient will be moved?
A) A double room to a private room
B) One unit of the hospital to another
C) One room of the unit to another
D) One facility to another
Q3) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
Q4) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about the effects of smoking. What accurate information does the nurse provide?
A) Smoking increases the amount of tissue oxygenation.
B) Smoking increases the amount of functional hemoglobin in blood.
C) Smoking may decrease platelet aggregation and cause hypercoagulability.
D) Smoking interferes with normal cellular mechanisms that promote release of oxygen.
Q2) The nurse carefully measures drainage during the first 24 hours after surgery on a patient with a Jackson-Pratt drain. What is the maximum amount of drainage considered normal?
A) 50 mL
B) 100 mL
C) 200 mL
D) 300 mL
Q3) What is the classification for the Jackson-Pratt drainage removal system?
A) Sterile drainage system
B) Closed drainage system
C) Open drainage system
D) Self-measuring drainage system
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to be catheterized for residual urine. The nurse must perform this catheterization within how many minutes following voiding?
A) 40 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 10 minutes
Q2) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an amniocentesis?
A) Restrict food intake
B) Restrict fluid intake
C) Monitor fetal heart tones
D) Inform patient results will be available immediately
Q3) Anaerobic organisms tend to grow within body cavities. What will the nurse use to collect an anaerobic specimen?
A) Sterile cotton applicator
B) Sterile culture tube
C) Sterile syringe tip
D) Sterile glass rod
Q4) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been stung by a bee and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse observes the sting site and identifies that the stinger is still in the skin. What action should the nurse take?
A) Remove it with sterile tweezers
B) Soak the area with a cold compress
C) Scrape the stinger with the side of a knife
D) Squeeze the surrounding tissue to expel the stinger
Q2) When assessing the adult victim for pulselessness, the CPR rescuer should palpate the most reliable and accessible pulse. Which pulse will be palpated?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Carotid
D) Femoral
Q3) If a spinal injury is suspected, before the rescuer starts CPR, the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Q4) When two nurses perform two-person CPR, there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) The nurse recommends that a patient have animal-assisted therapy sessions (AAT) because this therapy has been found to have what effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement in mood
B) Decrease in blood pressure
C) Decrease in blood sugar
D) Reduction of allergies
E) Increase in socialization skills
Q2) An older adult patient tells the home health nurse, "My doctor hasn't helped my arthritis at all. I am using the chiropractor now." What change has the patient made?
A) Western medicine to complementary therapy
B) Complementary therapy to alternative therapy
C) Alternative therapy to allopathic medicine
D) Allopathic medicine to alternative therapy
Q3) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Acupressure
B) Yoga
C) Therapeutic massage
D) Tai chi
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) The nurse reassures a patient that most acute pain is intense and of short duration. How long does can acute pain usually last?
A) 1 week
B) Less than 6 months
C) At least 9 months
D) More than 1 year
Q2) The nurse explains that transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) provides a continuous mild electrical current to the skin. How does the TENS unit act to reduce pain?
A) Distracts the patient
B) Blocks endorphin production
C) Warms the skin
D) Blocks pain impulses
Q3) A patient is receiving epidural analgesics. What should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?
A) Temperature elevation to 99.2° F from 98° F
B) Increase in pulse rate from 88 to 99
C) Decrease in respirations from 16 to 14
D) Decrease in blood pressure from 120/80 to 110/68
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) _____________________softens stools, speeds transit of foods through the digestive tract, and reduces pressure in the colon.
Q2) What has replaced the USDA's Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?
A) Nutrition Recommended Allowance (NRA)
B) National Bionutritional Allowance (NBA)
C) Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)
D) Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA)
Q3) The nurse has assessed a patient's body mass index (BMI) to be 19.6. This assessment of weight versus height indicates that this patient's weight category is in which category?
A) Low health risk
B) Overweight
C) Obese
D) Morbidly obese
Q4) How many kcal/g does 1 g of alcohol provide?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 6 kcal/g
D) 7 kcal/g
Q5) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) Electrolytes are not measured by weight; their chemical activity is expressed in milliequivalents. What does 1 milliequivalent of potassium have the same combining power as?
A) 1 mEq of nitrogen
B) 1 mEq of oxygen
C) 1 mEq of hydrogen
D) 1 mEq of magnesium
Q2) What should the nurse focus on when creating a nursing care plan for a patient with metabolic acidosis?
A) Frequent periods of ambulation
B) Increasing fluid intake
C) Decreasing fluid intake
D) Deep-breathing exercises
Q3) What percentage of an adult's body weight consists of water?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 30% to 40%
C) 50% to 60%
D) 70% to 80%
Q4) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
22
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct conversion for the improper fraction \(\frac { 77 } { 9 }\) ?
A)7 \(\frac{7}{9}\)
B)8 \(\frac{5}{9}\)
C) 7.79
D) 79.7
Q2) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
Q3) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
Q4) What is 0.9% expressed as a decimal?
A) 9
B) 0.9
C) 0.09
D) 0.009
Q5) What is the fraction 80/100 when reduced to lowest terms?
A) \(\frac { 8 } { 10 }\)
B) \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\)
C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
D) \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\)
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) Before inserting a nasogastric tube, what measurement should the nurse take?
A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B) Bridge of the nose to the xiphoid process
C) Nose to the top of the ear to the stomach
D) Clavicular notch to the stomach
Q2) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A) 95° F
B) 110° F
C) 115° F
D) 120° F
Q3) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
Q4) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) Which theory of aging suggests that the older person who is more socially active is more likely to adjust well to aging?
A) Activity theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Disengagement theory
Q2) The mother of a 5-month-old child is concerned because the child cannot sit by himself. The nurse explains that sitting alone is not expected until the baby reaches what age?
A) 6 months
B) 7 months
C) 8 months
D) 9 months
Q3) Which theory of aging suggests that the body becomes less able to tolerate the "self"?
A) Free radical theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Biologic programming theory
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) When the nurse is developing a care plan for a terminally ill patient, what might be a realistic goal?
A) The patient will remain pain-free.
B) The patient will function optimally.
C) The patient will spend time out of bed.
D) The patient will demonstrate improved nutritional status.
Q2) A young nurse caring for a dying patient hastens through the care and leaves the room as quickly as possible. What common reaction to the care of the dying is the nurse exhibiting?
A) Efficiency
B) Anger
C) Withdrawal
D) Anxiety
Q3) Which of the following would lead the home health nurse to make a nursing diagnosis of unresolved grief for a patient who was widowed 5 months ago?
A) Seeing that the patient keeps a picture of the husband by her bed
B) The patient said tearfully, "I can't believe he is gone."
C) Assessing that the patient eats out frequently rather than cooking at home
D) The patient says that she attends church three times a week.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) A pregnant teenager presents with the following complaints. Which complaint could be an indicator of a serious complication?
A) Painful hemorrhoids
B) Linea nigra
C) Visual disturbances
D) Low back pain
Q2) Smoking by the mother can have what effect in the fetus?
A) Hearing deficits
B) Neuromuscular deformities
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Low birth weight
Q3) A woman who has just discovered she is pregnant states that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 10. What will be her expected date of birth (EDB)?
A) April 10
B) April 17
C) May 10
D) October 17
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) Using Leopold maneuvers to assess fetal position, the nurse finds a soft rounded prominence at the level of the fundus, a hard round prominence just above the symphysis pubis, and nodulations on the left side of the uterus. How should the nurse document the fetal position?
A) Right occiput anterior (ROA), vertex
B) Left occiput anterior (LOA), vertex
C) Right occiput transverse (ROT), breech
D) Left occiput anterior (LOA), breech
Q2) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
Q3) A woman is admitted in active labor, and the nurse assesses the fetal heart rate (FHR) at 124 bpm. What action should the nurse take based on the assessment?
A) Position patient on her left side
B) Start oxygen per nasal cannula
C) Reassure the mother the rate is normal
D) Notify the physician at once
Q4) The nurse explains to the patient whose membranes ruptured an hour ago that delivery is usually accomplished in ____ to _____ hours postrupture.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) The new mother has decided not to breastfeed the baby. How should the nurse correctly instruct the mother to suppress her milk supply?
A) Pump the breasts to remove milk
B) Apply warm, moist compresses
C) Restrict oral fluids
D) Apply a firm bra and ice packs
Q2) When assessing a mother 12 hours following the delivery of a baby, where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
A) 2 cm below the umbilicus
B) At the umbilicus
C) 1 cm below the umbilicus
D) Halfway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis
Q3) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
Q4) After delivery of a 9-lb baby, the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum. The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A 14-year-old pregnant adolescent arrives at the hospital in early labor. The nurse should recognize that the adolescent is at a greater risk for which problem?
A) Calcium deficit
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Low hemoglobin levels
Q2) The newborn infant has oxygenation problems and a lack of subcutaneous fat. What should the nurse determine as the gestational age of this infant?
A) 20 to 37 completed weeks of pregnancy
B) 38 to 41 completed weeks of pregnancy
C) 14 to 36 completed weeks of pregnancy
D) 42 or more completed weeks of pregnancy
Q3) Compared to older infants of comparable weight, how much higher is the morbidity and mortality rate for preterm infants?
A) 1 to 2 times
B) 2 to 3 times
C) 3 to 4 times
D) 4 to 5 times
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major dental problem among very young children is bottle mouth caries. What is a preventative measure the nurse should suggest?
A) Juice at bedtime
B) Milk at bedtime
C) A sugar-coated pacifier
D) Water at bedtime
Q2) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child, where should medications be placed in the home?
A) In a dresser drawer
B) In the medicine cabinet
C) In a locked cupboard
D) On a high shelf
Q3) The school nurse recognizes that lack of physical activity and increased consumption of fast food by children are causative factors contributing to which of the following problems?
A) Nutritional disorders
B) Weight gain
C) Type I diabetes
D) Dental caries
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When attempting to provide information to the parents of a child undergoing surgery, the nurse notes that the parents appear confused and do not seem to remember what they are being told. What is the most probable cause of the parents' forgetfulness?
A) Noisy environment
B) Serious nature of surgery
C) Increased level of parents' anxiety
D) Developmental age of the child
Q2) Why does obtaining the respirations of an infant require a modified approach from that of an adult?
A) Infants breathe through their noses
B) Infants have very rapid respirations
C) Infants' respirations are thoracic in nature
D) Infants' respiratory movements are abdominal
Q3) A disfiguring facial wound would have the most significant developmental impact on which child?
A) 4-year-old
B) 6-year-old
C) 10-year-old
D) 14-year-old
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated?
A) By making the infant NPO
B) By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
C) By placing the infant to sleep on the side
D) By switching the infant to cow's milk
Q2) A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "No. When the lesions have gone you may stop the nystatin."
B) "Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days."
C) "No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder and nystatin is given for comfort only."
D) "Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy."
Q3) When the nurse performs the initial assessment of an adolescent with depression, what is the most important question to ask?
A) "What is making you depressed?"
B) "Have you ever thought about suicide?"
C) "What could we do to make you happy?"
D) "Would you like your friends to visit?"
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help prevent falls related to muscle weakness, what type of exercises should be selected for the aging patient?
A) Daily
B) Running
C) Weight-bearing
D) Aerobic
Q2) Which approaches should be included when teaching medication safety to an older, homebound adult? (Select all that apply.)
A) Always dispose of expired medications in the toilet or the sink; never throw them in the trash can.
B) Never share medications with others.
C) If a medication is not finished as prescribed, save it for future use.
D) Keep medications in their original containers.
E) Always request child-proof containers, even if the patient has trouble opening the lids.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that a term referring to mechanical difficulty of swallowing is
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q2) What is the most likely result when an attempt at adaptation fails?
A) Depression
B) Anger
C) Frustration
D) Anxiety
Q3) Which theorist believed that personality development was based on task mastery?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) Friedrich Nietzsche
Q4) What is the basis for classifying a person as having a mental illness?
A) Behavior exhibited and the context
B) Response of society to the behavior
C) Ability of the patient to conform
D) Patient's history and previous behavior
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term used for the beginning stage of schizophrenia, characterized by a lack of energy and complaints of multiple physical problems?
A) Prepsychotic
B) Residual
C) Acute
D) Prodromal
Q2) The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Psychiatric Disorders, V (DSM-V), is used by most hospitals and is the current tool used to examine mental health and illness. What approach does the DSM-V use to classify mental disorders?
A) Holistic system
B) Hierarchical system
C) Multiaxial system
D) Evaluation system
Q3) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
Q4) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should assess a patient for which criteria of addiction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive use of the substance
B) Increase in social function
C) Uncontrollable consumption
D) Increase in economic function
E) Psychological disturbances
Q2) Which statement describes the impaired nurse who is in a peer assistance program?
A) The nurse has a revoked nursing license.
B) The nurse does not have to notify her employer.
C) The nurse will be allowed to work as a nurse under supervision.
D) The nurse will be reported to the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.
Q3) If the patient tells the nurse, "I'm not an alcoholic. I can stop whenever I want to," what should be the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A) "Well, why don't you?"
B) "Hasn't alcohol use interfered with your employment?"
C) "A positive attitude like that is a good start."
D) "What would you call alcoholism?"
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial evaluation and admission visit is made by an RN, who has been provided with general orders by a physician before the visit. This visit must be made within how many hours of the referral?
A) 4 to 8
B) 12 to 15
C) 18 to 24
D) 24 to 48
Q2) A major change to Medicare reimbursement was implemented in 1983. The new system paid a set rate according to diagnosis. What was the new payment system based upon?
A) Interim payment systems
B) Diagnosis-related groups
C) Title XVIII
D) Title XIX
Q3) When should discharge planning begin for a patient receiving home care services?
A) A week before discharge
B) Two days before discharge
C) The day of discharge
D) On admission
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal for services provided by home health care agencies?
A) Self-care
B) Assisted living
C) Rehabilitation
D) Improved function
Q2) What would be the most appropriate guidance the nurse could provide an older adult couple that is considering a continuing care retirement community (CCRC)?
A) Admittance is limited to people who are relatively unimpaired.
B) A contract is usually a lifetime commitment.
C) A contract is an acceptable tax shelter.
D) Contracts can be signed on a month-to-month basis.
Q3) The nurse explains to a patient that shopping, using a phone, and administering his own medications are classified as ____________ activities of daily living.
Q4) What is included when the LVN/LPN completes the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A) Minimum Data Set (MDS) and the signature of the physician
B) Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs) and the drug list
C) Minimum Data Set, Resident Assessment Protocols, and the RN's signature
D) Resident Assessment Protocols and the signature of the administrator
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to reduce the incidence of postural hypotension in a patient with a spinal cord injury?
A) Monitor diastolic blood pressure closely
B) Encourage the patient to remain in the bed
C) Raise the head of the bed for 15 to 20 minutes before transfer to a wheelchair
D) Encourage adequate intake of fluids to expand fluid volume
Q2) The nurse is caring for a victim of post-traumatic stress syndrome. The nurse identifies which techniques as examples of therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Listening
B) Reframing
C) Characterizing
D) Normalizing responses
E) Working to develop trust
Q3) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5493
Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse recommends that the patient prepare the document that provides guidance to the family concerning the patient's wishes regarding life-support measures and organ donation. What is this document called?
A) Power of attorney
B) Living will
C) Advance directive
D) Conservatorship
Q2) When air hunger is assessed in the dying patient, the nurse can perform which intervention(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Circulate the air with a fan
B) Use a tranquilizer to decrease anxiety
C) Provide good oral hygiene
D) Perform careful suctioning
E) Raise the head of the bed 30 degrees
Q3) What is the role of the hospice medical director?
A) To design and direct the plan of care
B) To evaluate the appropriateness of the care
C) To function as mediator between the team and the attending physician
D) To take the place of the patient's attending physician
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration?
A) Absorption
B) Filtration
C) Diffusion
D) Osmosis
Q2) The nurse explains that pinocytosis is a process by which cells:
A) divide.
B) take in extracellular fluid.
C) use a chemical pump.
D) convert mitochondria.
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the dorsal cavity is composed of the (select all that apply) :
A) Descending colon
B) Kidneys
C) Gallbladder
D) Brain
E) Pancreas
F) Spinal cavities
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42
Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the nurse offer prescribed analgesics to a patient who is 24 hours postoperative?
A) Only when the patient asks.
B) When the onset of pain is assessed.
C) Sparingly to avoid drug dependence.
D) Only when severe pain is assessed.
Q2) The patient who had a nephrectomy yesterday has not used the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) delivery system but admits to being in pain but fearful of addiction. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Modern analgesic drugs do not cause addiction."
B) "Pain relief is worth a short period of addiction."
C) "Addiction rarely occurs in the brief time postsurgical analgesia is required."
D) "Addiction could be a real concern."
Q3) What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis?
A) Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor
C) Assist with early ambulation
D) Perform gentle leg massage
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43
Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the deaths from burn trauma in the emergent phase that require a referral to a burn center result from:
A) infection.
B) arrhythmias with cardiac arrest.
C) hypovolemic shock and renal failure.
D) adrenal failure.
Q2) What is the initial intervention for relief of the pruritus of dermatitis venenata?
A) Apply baking soda to lesions
B) Wash area with copious amounts of water
C) Apply cool compresses continuously
D) Expose area to air
Q3) A patient has been admitted to the hospital with burns to the upper chest. The nurse notes singed nasal hairs. The nurse needs to assess this patient frequently for which condition?
A) Decreased activity
B) Bradycardia
C) Respiratory complications
D) Hypertension
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient had an open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) for a compound fracture of the left tibia and has been placed in a long leg cast. The assessments by the nurse are: left foot warm/pink, pedal pulse weaker than right, capillary refill 3 seconds, and small 1 cm area of blood on cast. What should the nurse do?
A) Notify charge nurse of impending compartment syndrome
B) Document that all assessments are within normal limits
C) Inform charge nurse about probable hemorrhage
D) Place warm compresses on left foot
Q2) In order for a patient to flex the lower leg, which muscle must be contracted?
A) Quadriceps
B) Gastrocnemius
C) Biceps femoris
D) Rectus femoris
Q3) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) 43-year-old African American woman
B) 57-year-old white woman
C) 48-year-old African American man
D) 62-year-old Latino woman
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse counsel the 34-year-old woman who has been prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for Crohn disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expose her to sunlight at least 30 minutes a day for vitamin D synthesis
B) Tell her to drink at least 1500 mL of fluid a day
C) Advise assessing self for rash
D) Use alternate birth control methods to oral contraception
E) Take drug on an empty stomach
Q2) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q3) The nurse explains that ___________, the chief enzyme of gastric juice, is activated by hydrochloric acid to begin digestion of protein.
Q4) Which of the following are indicators of colorectal cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constant diarrhea
B) Excessive flatulence
C) Cachexia
D) Cramps
E) Rectal bleeding
F) Anemia
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Chapter
45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that an elevated serum amylase is diagnostic of pancreatitis at an early stage as an elevation can be assessed as early as _____ after the onset of pancreatic disease.
A) 2 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 36 hours
Q2) The patient with cirrhosis has an albumin of 2.8 g/dL. The nurse is aware that normal is 3.5 g/dL to 5 g/dL. Based on these findings, what would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A) Jaundice
B) Edema
C) Copious urine output
D) Pallor
Q3) What should the nurse avoid contamination from to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A?
A) Food or water
B) Blood transfusion
C) Needles
D) Sexual contact
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mandatory practice is the most effective and significant nursing practice to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Strict and frequent handwashing by all people having contact with the patient
B) Placement of patients in private rooms with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration
C) Administration of combinations of prophylactic antibiotics
D) Creation of a "sterile" environment for the patient with the use of laminar airflow rooms
Q2) The nurse examines the complete blood count (CBC) to assess (select all that apply):
A) hematocrit.
B) red cell count.
C) differential white cell count.
D) plasma level.
E) blood type.
F) hemoglobin.
Q3) The Reed-Sternberg cell is the hallmark diagnostic indicator for
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that the symptoms of an impending myocardial infarction (MI) differ in women because acute chest pain is not present. Women are frequently misdiagnosed as having:
A) hepatitis A.
B) indigestion.
C) urinary infection.
D) menopausal complications.
Q2) Following an angiogram with the insertion site of the left groin, the nurse will include in the plan of care provisions for (select all that apply):
A) checking pedal pulses.
B) ambulating with assistance 2 hours after recovery.
C) checking color and warmth of left leg frequently.
D) sandbagging over insertion site.
E) placing patient in semi-Fowler position.
Q3) The cardiac marker ___________ rises 3 hours after a myocardial infarct and measures myocardial contractile protein.
Q4) The nurse explains that the heart has the ability to contract in a rhythmic pattern that is called ____________.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The older adult patient with long-term emphysema complains of a sharp pleuritic pain after a severe period of coughing. The patient's heart rate and respiratory rate have increased. Auscultation reveals no breath sounds on the left side. These are signs and symptoms of what condition?
A) Pulmonary embolus
B) Spontaneous pneumothorax
C) Early signs of unilateral pneumonia
D) An attack of asthma
Q2) Which preoperative teaching should a nurse include for a person scheduled for a partial laryngectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tracheal suction will be frequent
B) The presence of a temporary tracheotomy
C) That isolation will be required for 24 hours
D) The surgery involves removal of a diseased vocal cord
E) Some speech will be retained
F) Starting mucolytic agents
Q3) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What portion of the nephron is involved with filtration?
A) Glomerulus of the Bowman capsule
B) Henle loop
C) Proximal convoluted tubule
D) Distal convoluted tubule
Q2) The patient with nephrosis complains about the need for bed rest. How would the nurse explain the benefit of bed rest?
A) The recumbent position may initiate diuresis.
B) It preserves the skin integrity.
C) It lowers the level of albuminuria.
D) It saves stress on joints.
Q3) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q4) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q5) A patient is receiving chlorothiazide (Diuril), a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. What nursing action is most important for prevention of complications?
A) Measure output
B) Increase fluid intake
C) Assess for hypokalemia
D) Assess for hypernatremia
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Chapter
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day, which provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
Q2) A patient has returned to his room after a thyroidectomy with signs of thyroid crisis. During thyroid crisis, exaggerated hyperthyroid manifestations may lead to the development of the potentially lethal complication of:
A) severe nausea and vomiting.
B) bradycardia.
C) delirium with restlessness.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q3) A patient with a history of Graves disease is admitted to the unit with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the patient's vital signs: T 103° F, P 160, R 24, BP 160/80. The nurse also notes distended neck veins. What does the patient most likely have?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Thyroid storm
D) Cushing crisis
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q5) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 41, has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometriosis. She asks the nurse if she will have "hot flashes." What knowledge will guide the nurse's response?
A) Only the uterus was removed, and the ovaries are still producing estrogen and she will not have hot flashes.
B) The patient is too young to have hot flashes associated with menopause.
C) The uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes were removed, and she will have surgically induced menopause and may have hot flashes.
D) The uterus and fallopian tubes were removed, and she will not experience "hot flashes."
Q2) The patient, age 52, is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. Why is postoperative elevation of the patient's arm important after this procedure?
A) To prevent vascular and lymph stasis, thus lymphedema
B) To prevent drainage accumulation at the incisional site
C) To prevent wound infection and dehiscence
D) To prevent pleural effusion and respiratory distress
Q3) _____________ are the most benign tumors of the uterus and arise from the uterine muscle tissue.
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Chapter
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is otitis media found more frequently in children 6 to 36 months?
A) Eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
B) Infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
C) Children's eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
D) Otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
Q2) What is the first indication of macular degeneration?
A) The loss of peripheral vision
B) The loss of central vision
C) The loss of color discrimination
D) Eye fatigue
Q3) The surgical incision into the eardrum with either a knife or a heated wire loop to relieve pressure in the middle ear is a(n) ___________.
Q4) When the patient in the emergency room complains of seeing flashing lights and a curtain down over his right eye, the nurse recognizes this as a symptom of which condition?
A) Detached retina
B) Macular degeneration
C) Early sign of cataract
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What Glasgow Coma Scale rating would a patient receive who opens the eyes spontaneously, but has incomprehensible speech and obeys commands for movement?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Q2) What is the nurse assessing when asking the patient, "Who is the president of the United States?" during a level of consciousness assessment?
A) Orientation
B) Memory
C) Calculation
D) Fund of knowledge
Q3) The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
Q4) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
Q5) _________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
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Chapter
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anxious patient enters the emergency room with angioedema of the lips and tongue, dyspnea, urticaria, and wheezing after having eaten a peanut butter sandwich. What should be the nurse's first intervention?
A) Apply cool compresses to urticaria
B) Provide oxygen per non-rebreathing mask
C) Cover patient with a warm blanket
D) Prepare for venipuncture for the delivery of IV medication
Q2) Which person is most at risk for a hypersensitivity reaction?
A) 26-year-old receiving his second desensitization injection
B) 35-year-old starting back on birth control tablets
C) The 52-year-old started on a new series of Pyridium for cystitis
D) The 84-year-old receiving penicillin for an annually recurring respiratory infection
Q3) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Q4) The nurse stresses that when a person produces his own antibodies against a specific antigen, that process of immunity is ______________ ________________ immunity
Q5) The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individual (twins) is a(n)
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of the AIDS wasting syndrome in a patient with an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Episodes of vomiting for 20 days
B) Appearance of Kaposi sarcoma
C) Loss of 10% of body mass
D) Marked hair loss
E) Episodes of diarrhea for 30 days
Q2) For most people who are HIV-positive, marker antibodies are usually present 10 to 12 weeks after exposure. What is the development of these antibodies called?
A) Immunocompetence
B) Seroconversion
C) Opportunistic infection
D) Immunodeficiency
Q3) The nurse should instruct the patient who is diagnosed with AIDS to report signs of Kaposi sarcoma, which include:
A) Reddish-purple skin lesions
B) Open, bleeding skin lesions
C) Blood-tinged sputum
D) Watery diarrhea
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the TNM staging classification system, what does a tumor staged as T4N3M2 mean?
A) No evidence of primary tumor, lymph node involvement, or distant metastasis
B) Carcinoma in situ, regional lymph node involvement, and metastasis to one site
C) Enlarging tumor, increasing lymph node involvement, and distant metastasis
D) Enlarging tumor, no lymph node involvement, or distant metastasis
Q2) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
Q3) The patient receiving radiation therapy complains of the conspicuous markings on the skin. What can the nurse explain about these markings?
A) They are residues of the treatment and can be washed off.
B) They are caused by radiation and will fade in time.
C) They are indicators of the amount of radiation the patient is receiving.
D) They are gridlines for treatment and should be left on.
Q4) How do cancer cells differ from normal cells? (Select all that apply.)
A) They replicate in an organized manner.
B) They have larger nuclei.
C) They have an irregular shape.
D) They have a different number of chromosomes.
E) They have a different mitosis process.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which employment setting would likely involve a daytime schedule with weekends off, and would focus on prevention and patient teaching?
A) Long-term care
B) Physician's office
C) Hospice setting
D) Adult day care
Q2) Technical and scientific changes have resulted in a multiplicity and complexity of functions placed on nurses, and sometimes job descriptions have not been rewritten. What is true of the role of the LPN/LVN?
A) It is constantly enlarging
B) It is constantly changing
C) It is constantly improving
D) It is constantly growing
Q3) In what setting can the LPN/LVN's management and leadership skills be developed best?
A) Acute care hospital
B) Rehabilitation hospital
C) Trauma center
D) Long-term care facility
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