Introduction to Networking Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Networking provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts and principles underlying computer networks. The course covers key topics such as network topologies, protocols, models (OSI and TCP/IP), network hardware, IP addressing, and the basics of routing and switching. Students will learn how data is transmitted across networks, explore the roles of various network devices, and examine basic security principles. Practical assignments and labs reinforce understanding by offering hands-on experience in configuring and troubleshooting simple networks, preparing students for more advanced networking studies or entry-level roles in network administration.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?
A) POP3
B) IMAP4
C) SMTP
D) HTTPS
Answer: C
Q2) What is a remote application, and how can remote applications be implemented on Windows Server?
Answer: A remote application is an application that is installed and executed on a server and is presented to a user working at a client computer. Windows Server 2008 and later versions include Remote Desktop Services to manage remote applications, and versions of Windows Server prior to 2008 provided Terminal Services. Both use RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to present the remote application and its data to the client.
Q3) Static electricity is an electrical charge in motion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?
A) at least 3 inches
B) at least 3 feet
C) at least 6 feet
D) at least 12 feet
Answer: B
Q2) Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?
A) Exposing more cable than necessary can cause corrosion of the copper wire.
B) The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.
C) The cable will lose its conductive properties.
D) The termination will fail over time due to oxidation.
Answer: B
Q3) In a rack setup, a device called a KVM allows multiple consoles to connect to a single device on the rack.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information?
A) SRV record
B) CNAME record
C) TXT record
D) PTR record
Answer: C
Q2) You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this?
A) dig --server 8.8.8.8 --type=mx mycompany.com
B) dig -s 8.8.8.8 -t mx mycompany.com
C) dig query 8.8.8.8 domain mycompany.com type mx
D) dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX
Answer: D
Q3) A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?
A) 1492 bytes
B) 1500 bytes
C) 1518 bytes
D) 1522 bytes
Q3) What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate?
A) Only tracert can send UDP messages for tracing a path.
B) By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages.
C) The Windows tracert utility does not place limits on the TTL of repeated trial messages.
D) The tracert utility expects an ICMP port unreachable error message as the final reply to a trace.
Q4) What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q2) The 1000Base-LX utilizes light with what wavelength?
A) 850 nanometers
B) 1200 nanometers
C) 1300 nanometers
D) 1550 nanometers
Q3) Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?
A) A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.
B) A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination.
C) A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.
D) A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to.
Q4) Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?
A) RG-59
B) RG-6
C) RG-20
D) LRG-50
Q5) What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol?
A) ZigBee
B) Bluetooth
C) Z-Wave
D) ANT+
Q2) The LLC sublayer is primarily concerned with managing MAC addresses in message frames.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following?
A) extended service set
B) basic service set
C) modified service set
D) generic service set
Q4) When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable?
Q5) Why should an access point not always utilize all the power it has for broadcasting wireless signals?
Page 8
Q6) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?
A) VPN proxy
B) VPN server
C) VPN transport
D) VPN gateway
Q2) Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?
A) Dynamic Multipoint VPN
B) Dynamic SmartVPN
C) Symmetric VPN Autodial
D) Auto Switched VPN Service
Q4) All types of remote access techniques connecting to a network require at least one of what two different types of remote access server?
Q5) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?
A) The usable host portion of the network.
B) The site prefix or global routing prefix.
C) The broadcast domain for the configured host ID.
D) The MAC address of the router assigning the host ID.
Q2) When a hacker attempts to perform a VLAN hopping attack, what are the two approaches likely to be used?
Q3) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
Q4) How do unmanaged switches and managed switches differ from each other?
Q5) Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs?
A) router-on-a-stick
B) branched router
C) router overloading
D) router-on-a-branch
Q6) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
Q7) What is the difference between a default VLAN and a native VLAN?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit?
Q2) What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption?
Q3) Which of the following scenarios represents a phishing attempt?
A) An employee at your company has received a malware-infected file in their e-mail.
B) A person posing as an employee tried to access a secured area at your organization.
C) A gift was offered to an employee with access to secured information in exchange for details.
D) An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access.
Q4) The original version of the Secure Hash Algorithm was developed by MIT.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sudden unexplained increases in file sizes and unusual error messages with no apparent cause are both potential symptoms of a viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished?
A) Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.
B) Use the mac-limit command to prevent more than one MAC from being accepted.
C) Use the allowed-mac command to filter by MAC address.
D) Use the secure port mac-address command to limit the port to learned addresses only.
Q2) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
Q3) Proxy servers and ACLs on network devices are examples of non-security devices with security features, while firewalls and IDS/IPS systems are the network's specialized security devices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q5) The storm-control command is a type of flood guard that is available on most major network switch vendor platforms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use?
A) uptime
B) show runtime
C) lastboot
D) display stats
Q2) A network TAP serves what purpose on a network?
A) It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.
B) It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis.
C) It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network.
D) It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection.
Q3) When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on?
A) 161
B) 162
C) 10161
D) 10162
Q4) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?
Q5) What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
Q2) In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite?
A) 8 to 16
B) 16 to 24
C) 24 to 32
D) 32 to 48
Q4) What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?
A) 48 bytes
B) 53 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 84 bytes
Q5) Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame?
A) between the layer 3 header and the data payload
B) between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer
C) between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header
D) at the end of the layer 2 trailer
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