Introduction to Microbiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology offers a foundational exploration of the microscopic world, focusing on the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will study microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, as well as the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, biotechnology, and the environment. The course emphasizes laboratory techniques for cultivating, identifying, and controlling microbes, providing essential hands-on experience for students pursuing careers in biology, healthcare, or related fields.
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Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following are true statements about the development of antibiotics,except:
A) most bacteria that stopped the growth of other bacteria by producing antibiotics were soil bacteria
B) Fleming noticed that a contaminant mold (Penicillium) prevented the growth of bacteria adjacent to itself
C) an antibiotic was discovered in the sea after a scientist noted the absence of disease causing organisms in the seawater where the sewage entered D) sulfa drugs did not prove to be useful as the body converted them into inactive molecules
Answer: D
Q2) The field of ___________ involves studying how a person defends herself against microbial infection.
A) molecular biology
B) virology
C) mycology
D) immunology
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) Chemical bonds found in living organisms do not normally include
A) ionic bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) covalent bonds
D) magnetic bonds
Answer: D
Q2) Atoms take part in bond formation to
A) form polypeptides
B) attain a stable electron configuration
C) increase their charge density
D) increase their energy
Answer: B
Q3) When pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms,the result is a _______ bond.
A) ionic
B) covalent
C) hydrogen
D) carbonic
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) Atomic force microscope
A) allows 3 dimensional imaging and measurement of structures as small as nucleotides in DNA
B) is not yet capable of measuring small forces
C) involves ultraviolet light exciting molecules so that they release light of a longer wavelength
D) has a special condenser and objective lens
Answer: A
Q2) In a Gram stain,the mordant is
A) crystal violet
B) iodine
C) water
D) alcohol
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not a differential stain?
A) Gram stain
B) Schaeffer-Fulton
C) acid-fast stain
D) flagellar stain
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q2) The most important component of bacterial cell walls is
A) teicoic acid
B) lipotechoic acid
C) peptidoglycan
D) glutamic acid
Q3) Three bags,permeable to water but not salt,are placed in beakers containing an isotonic,hypotonic and hypertonic solution. Describe how you could determine which beaker was which. If the bag were a cell what would happen to it if it was placed in each beaker.
Q4) Genetic information in bacteria
A) is found in the nucleus
B) is found only in RNA
C) is found in chromatin (ie DNA condensed by histones)
D) is sometimes found in the form of plasmids
Q5) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) Electron transport chain
A) involves transfer of O to electrons in the substrate
B) results in a net consumption of ATP
C) can be thought of as electrons acting as fish increasing in energy as they jump up a waterfall
D) none of the above
Q2) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
Q3) A surfactant
A) lowers the surface tension at the bacterium's posterior end allowing Myxcoccus to glide
B) is metabolized to produce phosphoenolpyruvate
C) forms channels through the outer membrane
D) emits light as it returns to its unexcited state
Q4) Each acetyl-CoA molecule will eventually produce ________ in the Krebs cycle.
A) four pairs of electrons
B) three molecules of NAD
C) one molecule of GTP
D) two molecules of pyruvic acid
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Microbial growth
A) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell
B) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division
C) in a single generation's time leads to double the cell size
D) in a single generation's time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q2) An obligate psychrophile would produce a turbid culture at ________ degrees Celsius.
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q3) Which of the following statements about bacteria growth is false?
A) agar is used as a solidifying agent in some types of media
B) bacteria growing in a liquid culture will generate colonies
C) a turbid culture is indicative of bacterial growth
D) each bacterium plated will represent a colony-forming unit
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Organisms that have lost the ability to synthesize a particular enzyme and which require certain nutrients to be added to their medium to maintain growth are termed A) phototrophs
B) auxotrophs
C) prototrophs
D) autotrophs
Q2) A mRNA molecule can be broken down into three nucleotide units called A) amino acids
B) bases
C) codons
D) anticodons
Q3) Pyrimidine dimers are a type of mutation most commonly caused by A) alkylating agents
B) deaminating agents
C) ultraviolet light
D) acridine
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to
A) direct synthesis of conjugation pili
B) provide resistance to certain antibiotics
C) induce the formation of tumors in plants
D) two of the above
Q2) In Griffith's transformation experiments,which of the following did not take place?
A) live, smooth pneumococci killed mice
B) live rough bacteria were able to retrieve the DNA from dead, encapsulated bacteria and become virulent
C) DNA was transferred from smooth to rough bacteria using a bacteriophage
D) dead, smooth pneumococci had no effect on mice
Q3) Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because
A) they are larger than nonrecombinant bacteria
B) they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
C) they grow much faster than nonrecombinant bacteria
D) they are smaller than non-recombinant bacteria
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) Organisms are generally classified according to A) cell size
B) evolutionary relationships
C) colony color
D) alphabetically
Q2) According to the three domain classification system an organism with cells measuring more than 10 micrometers across would most likely belong to the A) eukarya
B) bacteria
C) archaea
D) eukarya, bacteria and archaea would be equally likely
Q3) Before bacteria received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with
A) plants
B) animals
C) fungi
D) viruses
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is A) retroviruses
B) proviruses
C) rhinovirus
D) rubella virus
Q2) Reactivation of chickenpox long after the initial infection leads to the disease
A) cancer
B) influenza
C) shingles
D) varicella
Q3) Viruses that have a single strand of RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as
A) retroviruses.
B) proviruses.
C) viroids.
D) bacteriophages.
E) lytic phages.
Q4) How are computer viruses similar to and different from biological viruses? Are computer viruses alive? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Outline or illustrate in detail form the life cycle of the malaria parasite,naming the stages and the various host organisms involved. Describe another protozoa that causes human diseases.
Q2) Undercooked pork is most likely to pass along
A) Schistosoma
B) Tania
C) Wuchereria
D) Trichinella
Q3) The major characteristic used to divide protozoans into four major groups is
A) type of feeding behavior
B) habitat
C) reproduction strategies
D) type of motility
Q4) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a
A) primary host
B) definitive host
C) intermediate host
D) reservoir host
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Which of the following statements about detergents is true?
A) detergents act as chemical mutagens of DNA or RNA
B) germicidal soaps are just as effective disinfectants as surgical scrubs
C) cationic detergents are effective in killing endospores
D) anionic detergents used for laundering clothes are less effective than cationic detergents
Q2) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents except
A) iodine
B) merthiolate
C) selenium sulfate
D) copper sulfate
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is not considered a halogen?
A) hypochlorous acid
B) copper sulfate
C) bromine
D) betadine
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Clear area on agar that surrounds a filter paper disk on the disk diffusion tests and represents inhibited growth of a test microorganism is called:
A) minimum inhibitory concentration
B) minimum bactericidal concentration
C) zone of inhibition
D) serum killing power
Q2) Why are resistant organisms found often in hospitalized patients?
A) stringent efforts maintain sanitary conditions
B) many infections in patients are being treated with different antibiotics
C) doctors are treating outpatients with multiple antibiotics
D) two of the above
Q3) A patient comes to you from a nursing home with a high fever. Is it better to start the patient on a broad spectrum drug or a narrow spectrum drug? Is it better to start the patient on one antibiotic or multiple antibiotics? Defend your decision.
Q4) Describe the targets or action for 3 of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Eradication of a given infectious disease
A) has never been achieved
B) only occurs with infectious agents that are adaptable
C) is made easier when there is a lack of medical care
D) is difficult due to political, economic and scientific barriers
Q2) Which of the factors below is not considered to be an example of a virulence factor?
A) prodrome
B) leukostatin
C) streptokinase
D) adhesions
Q3) A viral infection that involves continued and prolonged production of viruses in a host is referred to as a/an
A) abortive infection
B) productive infection
C) latent infection
D) persistent infection
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Waterborne transmission of pathogens involving water contaminated by raw sewage is an example of what mode of transmission?
A) indirect fecal-oral
B) direct fecal-oral
C) vertical
D) droplet nuclei
Q2) Pathogenic microorganisms that enter the body via contaminated food or water typically infect
A) the respiratory system
B) the skin
C) only vertebrate animals
D) the digestive system
Q3) An infectious disease that occurs in a random and unpredictable manner:
A) sporadic
B) pandemic
C) epidemic
D) propagated epidemic
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Antiviral proteins (AVPs)interfere with the replication of which of the following viruses?
A) DNA viruses
B) enveloped viruses
C) phages
D) RNA viruses
Q2) Tissue debris,remains of digested microorganisms,injured cells and dead phagocytes are the content of
A) pus
B) plasma
C) opsonin
D) tonsils
Q3) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut?
Q4) What area of the body is drained by the right lymphatic duct?
A) upper right torso
B) right leg
C) left leg
D) upper left torso
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) An area on an antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds is called:
A) Fc fragment
B) Fab fragment
C) Fab and Fc fragment
D) epitope or antigenic determinant
Q2) Which of the following is false about haptens?
A) a hapten alone can not act as an antigen
B) a large protein (to which a hapten can bind) alone cannot act as an antigen
C) only the combination of a hapten and a large protein can act as an antigen
D) haptens bind to antibodies preventing them from binding to a large protein
Q3) Cross reactions occur in all of the following cases except
A) when an antibody reacts with structurally similar antigens
B) when syphilis has the same haptens as human cells
C) between a hapten and a carrier molecule
D) between two strains of bacteria
Q4) Adaptive immunity is
A) the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent
B) only acquired artificially
C) only acquired naturally
D) immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Antigenic or molecular mimicry
A) occurs when T cells attack tissue antigens similar to bacterial antigens
B) involves self reactive T cells hiding in the thymus
C) leads to an increase in the number of regulatory T cells
D) none of the above
Q2) Choose one immunological test - either a precipitin test,agglutination reaction or a tagged antibody test -- diagram how it is used to detect antibodies or antigens. In your diagram be sure to show what allows for the visualization of either the precipitin ring,the agglutination or the antigen on a cells surface.
Q3) Type IV hypersensitivity includes
A) contact dermatitis
B) granulomatous hypersensitivity
C) allergy to metals
D) all of the above
Q4) Immunodeficiency refers to the immune system responding
A) in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance
B) so that there is too much of a good thing
C) inadequately to an antigen
D) to its own tissues as if they were foreign
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) What is the relationship between genital warts and cervical cancer?
A) Cervical cancer is caused by genital warts
B) Genital warts causes cervical cancer
C) Different strains of the same virus cause genital warts and cervical cancer
D) two of the above
Q2) Debridement
A) destroys much of the body's protective covering
B) is a surgical scraping technique that improves antibiotic efficacy
C) prevents nosicomal infections from occurring in severe burns
D) two of the above
Q3) The majority of organisms normal to the skin are
A) Gram-negative
B) Gram-positive
C) fungi
D) viruses
Q4) Which pair of fungal skin infections is matched incorrectly?
A) Tinea cruris-jock itch
B) Tinea unguium-ringworm of the nails
C) Tinea capitis-scalp ringworm
D) Tinea corporis-ringworm of the face
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Syphilis
A) is often detected in the primary stage as the symptoms don't go away
B) is easiest to treat in the tertiary stage as that is when there are the fewest organisms
C) can be spread by kissing in the secondary stage
D) two of the above
Q2) Human papilloma virus causes
A) condylomas
B) laryngeal papilloma
C) genital warts
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following viruses can lead to fever blisters (cold sores)on the mouth and lips?
A) HSV-1
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) HSV-2
D) all of the above
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Spelunkers are cave-exploring enthusiasts; to what fungal pathogen might they become exposed?
A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Aspergillus fumigatus
Q2) The etiology of whooping cough is
A) Rhinovirus
B) Bordatella pertussis
C) Corynebacterium
D) Haemophilus
Q3) The presence of Bordatella pertussis is confirmed by
A) beta colonies on a blood agar plate
B) sensitivity to penicillin
C) a reddish pigmented colony
D) a fluorescent antibody stain
Q4) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics? What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from?
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) How does fluoride help reduce dental decay?
A) absorbs the acid that seeps down between rods of enamel
B) mineralization of fluoride fills in the spaces between enamel rods
C) kills the bacteria that are responsible for dental decay
D) two of the above
Q2) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
Q3) Which statement about host susceptibility is incorrect?
A) hepatitis E has an exceptionally high mortality rate in pregnant women
B) only people who eat shellfish in the endemic regions ingest Fasciola hepatica
C) breast fed babies are less susceptible to Rotavirus infections
D) cryptosporidiosis causes disease only in immunocompromised individuals
Q4) Dental caries are most effectively controlled by
A) fluoride treatment
B) chloride treatment
C) sealant application.
D) two of the above
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is characterized by all of the following except
A) vector is the dog tick, Dermacentor variabilis
B) etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii
C) most cases reported are in the northwest U.S.
D) prominent rash on palms and soles
Q2) Which of the following statements does not refer to leishmaniasis?
A) transmitted by sandflies
B) has an affinity for the pericardium and myocardium
C) is limited to tropical and subtropical countries where the vector is available
D) symptoms include high irregular fever, progressive wasting and protrusion of abdomen
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to red streaks beneath the skin of legs and arms?
A) bacteremia
B) septic shock
C) septicemia
D) lymphangitis
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Humans are naturally protected against nagana,a tsetse-fly-bourne cattle disease . What has been found to serve the protective role?
A) serum
B) high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
C) low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D) iron
Q2) Clostridium tetani can be characterized by all of the following except
A) Gram-positive spore former
B) resistant to drying, disinfection, and heat
C) endospores are killed by boiling for 20 minutes
D) common to soil and human intestines
Q3) What do kuru,scrapie and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease all have in common?
A) all are transmitted by arthropod vectors
B) same vaccine protects against all of them
C) caused by prions
D) two of the above
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The most problematic yet common form of tertiary treatment of water is A) chlorine
B) UV light
C) ozone
D) X-rays
Q2) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true?
A) not all living microbes require carbon
B) nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes
C) Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid
D) Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer
Q3) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include
A) chlorine
B) UV light
C) ozone
D) all of the above
Q4) The trickling filter system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with A) Sphaerotilus
B) Pseudomonas
C) Beggiatoa
D) two of the above
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Microorganisms have been proposed to produce ethanol for biofuel. Do you believe this will be a good alternative to petroleum or coal based energy? Does making energy from five-carbon or six-carbon sugars produce more energy? Justify your answer.
Q2) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally
A) Candida
B) Aspergillus
C) Saccharomyces
D) Mucor
Q3) Tuberculosis can be transmitted by
A) unpasteurized milk
B) unpasteurized cheeses
C) fomites in food
D) all of the above
Q4) Which term is matched correctly?
A) aflatoxin -- carcinogenic
B) ergot -- can be hallucinogenic
C) lysozyme - found in egg yolks
D) flat sours - occurs in cans left at room temperature
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