Introduction to Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a foundational understanding of the microbial world, focusing on the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores the role of microorganisms in human health, disease, the environment, and various industries. Students will gain insights into microbial genetics, metabolism, and the immune response, as well as techniques for culturing, identifying, and controlling microorganisms. Through lectures and laboratory exercises, the course emphasizes both theoretical concepts and practical skills essential for further studies in biological and health-related sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______.
A) biotechnology
B) bioremediation
C) decomposition
D) epidemiology
E) immunology
Answer: B
Q2) The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called ______.
A) experimentation
B) biotechnology
C) classification
D) identification
E) nomenclature
Answer: C
Q3) Archaeal cells are about ______ bacterial cells.
A) ten times smaller than
B) the same size as
C) ten times larger than
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) NASA has published a list of criteria for identifying fossil bacteria in samples from Mars,as part of a search for evidence of life. Which of the following is good evidence for the presence of bacterial cells?
A) Three-dimensional organization of cells in a starburst pattern
B) No evidence of water in the surrounding mineral
C) Cell size of 0.5 to 2 microns
D) Absence of carbon in the material
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following pertain to the atom Carbon-14 except it
A) has 14 neutrons.
B) is an isotope of carbon.
C) has 6 protons.
D) has 6 electrons.
Answer: A
Q3) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens?
A) Differential interference
B) Bright-field
C) Electron
D) Dark-field
E) Phase-contrast
Answer: C
Q2) The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is ______.
A) dark-field
B) confocal
C) fluorescence
D) phase-contrast
E) electron
Answer: A
Q3) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The chromosome in bacteria and archaea
A) contains all the cell's plasmids.
B) is located in the cell membrane.
C) forms a single linear strand of DNA.
D) is part of the nucleoid.
Q2) The cell envelope or its parts can interact with human tissue and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is ______.
A) a spheroplast
B) acid-fast
C) gram-negative
D) gram-positive
E) a protoplast
Q4) A nutrient binds to receptors near the flagellar basal body.This will result in
A) inhibition of flagella rotation.
B) numerous tumbles.
C) clockwise rotation of flagella.
D) counterclockwise rotation of flagella.
6
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) A group of protozoa that are not motile are the ______.
A) Plasmodium sp.
B) ciliates
C) amoebas
D) dimorphics
E) trophozoites
Q2) In the condition called athlete's foot,the fungus Trichophyton consumes the keratin protein found in hair,nails,and dead skin.Which of the following descriptors does not apply to Trichophyton?
A) Eukaryote
B) Parasite
C) Saprobe
D) Heterotroph
Q3) Protists include ______.
A) yeasts and molds
B) algae and protozoa
C) helminths
D) viruses
E) bacteria
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) Viruses are simple,noncellular,and lack mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______.
A) viroids
B) phages
C) prions
D) oncogenic viruses
E) spikes
Q4) All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except
A) gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B) gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C) contain special virus proteins.
D) help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E) located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a(n)_____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow its movement across the membrane.
A) porin
B) lipid
C) protein
D) enzyme
Q3) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell,this endocytosis is specifically termed ______.
A) facilitated diffusion
B) pinocytosis
C) facilitated transport
D) phagocytosis
E) exocytosis
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Q1) In bacterial cells,the electron transport system is located in the ______.
A) cell membrane
B) mitochondria
C) chloroplasts
D) ribosomes
E) cytoplasm
Q2) The step involving ATP,hexokinase,and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
A) the final step of the Krebs cycle.
B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system.
C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation.
D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
E) an example of photophosphorylation.
Q3) Enzymes that function inside a cell are ______.
A) apoenzymes
B) exoenzymes
C) constitutive enzymes
D) regulated enzymes
E) endoenzymes
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?
A) tRNA
B) miRNA
C) Antisense RNA
D) Riboswitch
E) siRNA
Q2) A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide.As a result of this,the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC.Interestingly,there is no change to the protein being made.Why not?
A) This is a silent mutation.
B) The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so no change to the protein.
C) The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for the normal protein.
D) This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) After three replication cycles in PCR,there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.
A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases
Q3) An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E.coli cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of introducing a needed,normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) Heavy metals work by
A) binding to DNA.
B) mutating DNA.
C) rupturing the cell membrane.
D) inactivating proteins.
E) dissolving the cell wall.
Q2) Soaps and detergents are very effective as sterilants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
A) Iodine
B) Chlorine
C) Bromine
D) Fluorine
E) Betadine
Q4) Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Q1) An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
A) blocks penetration.
B) blocks transcription and translation.
C) inhibits DNA synthesis.
D) blocks maturation.
E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of polymyxins?
A) The source is Bacillus polymyxa.
B) They are narrow spectrum.
C) They are toxic to kidneys.
D) They target cell walls.
E) They can be used to treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity?
A) Tetracycline
B) Isoniazid
C) Erythromycin
D) Aminoglycosides
E) Cephalosporins
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Q1) Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers.
A)asymptomatic
B)passive
C)incubation
D)chronic
E)convalescent
Q2) Resident biota of the gastrointestinal tract include ______.
A) Streptococcus
B) Bacteroides
C) Lactobacillus
D) Haemophilus
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
A) the birth process through the birth canal.
B) bottle feeding.
C) breast feeding.
D) contact with hospital staff.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process?
A) Activation of complement
B) Vascular reactions
C) Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
D) Formation of pus and edema
E) Scar formation and/or resolution
Q2) A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections.Based upon their medical history,it appears they have been an active smoker for over 40 years.Select the statement that most accurately reflects how this information may reveal why the patient is highly susceptible to respiratory pathogens.
A) Smoking can paralyze the ciliary escalator.
B) Smoking decreases the formation and effectiveness of complement proteins.
C) Smoking directly inhibits B- and T-cell action.
D) Smoking decreases the activity of neutrophils.
Q3) Despite not being a physical barrier,the resident microbiota are considered part of the first line of defense since they stimulate inflammation and fever,enhancing pathogen removal.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A) Opsonization
B) Agglutination
C) Anamnestic response
D) Neutralization
E) Complement fixation
Q2) During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Q3) Lymphocyte maturation involves
A) hormonal signals that initiate development.
B) B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C) T cells maturing in the thymus.
D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) Histamine causes all of the following except
A) relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
B) pruritis and headache.
C) increased sensitivity to pain.
D) wheal and flare reaction in skin.
E) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine.
Q2) In the theory for allergic desensitization,which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?
A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgG
Q3) Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
A) Injectant
B) Ingestant
C) Inhalant
D) Contactant
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Scanning the whole genome of every infectious agent in a patient sample and comparing that to known genome sequences maintained in libraries would be the most accurate and efficient way to diagnose disease.We are moving closer to this becoming a reality largely because
A) gene libraries have greater accessibility.
B) more people are being trained in high throughput genetic analysis.
C) multiple organisms have the same genome so it will minimize the number of screenings necessary.
D) the cost of high throughput genetic analysis has plummeted in recent years and continues to decrease.
Q2) Phenotypic testing is often beneficial in identifying infectious agents from patient samples; however,some disadvantages include
A) organisms must be grown on the same culture media so it is difficult to distinguish them from each other.
B) lengthy culturing times and the inability to grow some bacteria in vitro.
C) difficulty in identifying motile organisms.
D) non-specificity of some biochemical tests since all pathogens utilize the same substrate as a fuel source.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Current recommendations in the United States for treatment of MRSA are to use
A) more than one antibiotic.
B) no antibiotics to allow the immune system to function.
C) any antibiotic other than methicillin.
D) no antibiotics to curb the development of resistance.
E) erythromycin and a second antibiotic.
Q3) Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ______.
A) croup
B) measles
C) influenza
D) rubella
E) mumps
Q4) Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions,fomites,and sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) A group of men make an annual week-long hunting trip for deer season in West Virginia.This year,they had to chase a family of squirrels out of the cabin,and during the week,they killed several deer and processed the meat,eating venison steaks most nights.All of the men had a few mosquito bites,and two cases of beer were consumed.The following week,they all developed symptoms of fever,headache,confusion,and seizures.Which of the following organisms can be ruled out as the cause of this encephalitis?
A) Jamestown Canyon Virus
B) JC Virus
C) Powassan Virus
D) Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus
Q2) Meningitis can be caused by a number of microbes,and the causative organism is often identified by microscopic observation of the cerebrospinal fluid.Identify the mismatch in the following list of organisms and the description of the microscopic observation.
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram-positive flattened coccus
B) Cryptococcus neoformans; fungal cells with a thick capsule
C) Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella
D) Enterovirus; no bacteria appear to be present in CSF
E) Neisseria meningitidis; gram-negative diplococcus
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Q1) You just returned from a hiking/camping trip and are experiencing symptoms of an infection: high fever,swollen lymph nodes,and black-and-blue marks or hemorrhages under the skin.Your doctor asks if you have been in the four corners area of the U.S.(where the states of Arizona,Colorado,New Mexico,and Utah all meet).What does the doctor suspect?
A) Since there are many mosquitoes in that area, you might have been infected with Plasmodium.
B) Hemorrhagic fever is often associated with bats in that region of the U.S.
C) Those four states have high rates of Chikungunya, which is what the doctor suspects that you have.
D) You might have picked up the plague bacterium from fleas that normally feed on rodents in that area.
Q2) The cardiovascular system is highly protected from microbial infection because A) it is the only body system that is liquid-based, i.e., with blood.
B) it is the only body system that has no normal microbiota.
C) it is so close to the skin that even minor injuries could lead to major infection.
D) failure to do so will result in a systemic infection.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases of
A) diphtheria
B) pharyngitis
C) tuberculosis
D) pertussis
E) SARS
Q2) The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of ______.
A) neutrophils
B) basophils
C) mononuclear cells
D) polymorphonuclear leukocytes
E) antibodies
Q3) Tuberculin skin testing
A) involves the injection of PPD intradermally.
B) uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
D) will be positive in active TB.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding shiga toxin-producing E.coli is correct?
A)It synthesizes shiga exotoxin from a bacteriophage.
B)It synthesizes shiga exotoxin from the E.coli chromosome.
C)It synthesizes shiga endotoxin from a bacteriophage.
D)It synthesizes shiga endotoxin from the E.coli chromosome.
Q2) Which of the following pathogens has an infectious dose so low that a single infectious particle (cell,cyst,endospore,virus)can cause disease?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Hepatitis A virus
C) Shigella
D) Giardia
E) Norovirus
Q3) Outbreaks of which protozoan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries,fresh greens,and drinking water?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Cyclosporiasis
C) Trichinosis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Herpes simplex-1
A) is exclusive to oral mucosa.
B) is exclusive to genitourinary tract.
C) confers immunity to herpes simplex 2.
D) is cleared by praziquantel.
E) None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis causes
A) nongonococcal urethritis in males.
B) cervicitis in females.
C) congenital conjunctivitis.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease in females.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.
A) infertility
B) shingles
C) encephalitis
D) paralysis
E) kidney failure
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Considering the increase in tick-borne diseases in the context of "One Health," which of the following statements is correct?
A) Borrelia, Babesia, and Ehrlichia can rapidly adapt to changing insect vectors, thereby increasing their populations as they move from ticks to mosquitoes.
B) Ticks carrying multiple pathogens reproduce at a slower rate, rendering them less likely to infect humans.
C) Lyme disease has spread from deer to humans upon increasing development of the forested environments usually inhabited by deer.
D) Ticks carrying Borrelia are likely to encounter hosts already infected with Babesia or Ehrlichia, resulting in ticks that co-infect with multiple pathogens.
Q2) Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are very few viruses in aquatic environments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Which step in wine production involves crushing fruit?
A) Malting
B) Preparation of must
C) Aging
D) Storage
E) Fermentation
Q2) Which organisms are used to make salt pickles?
A) Propionibacterium and Spirulina
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D) Pediococcus cerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum
E) Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Spirulina
Q3) Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive,confirmatory,and completed tests that provide an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called the ______.
A) membrane filter method
B) coliform count
C) most probable number (MPN)
D) standard plate count
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