Introduction to Medical Coding Study Guide Questions
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Medical Coding provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles, practices, and applications of medical coding in healthcare settings. The course covers essential topics such as the purpose and use of diagnostic (ICD-10-CM) and procedural (CPT, HCPCS) coding systems, health record documentation, code assignment guidelines, and the ethical and legal aspects of coding. Students will gain practical skills through hands-on exercises that simulate real-world coding scenarios, preparing them for entry-level positions or further study in health information management.
Recommended Textbook
The Complete Diagnosis Coding Solution 3rd Edition by Shelley Safian
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23 Chapters
1144 Verified Questions
1144 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician's notes state, "Chest congestion, possible pneumonia." The coder in the physician's office should:
A) code for pneumonia.
B) code for chest congestion.
C) query the physician.
D) All of these
Answer: B
Q2) Which position describes a patient lying on her stomach face downward?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Sitting
D) Lithotomy
Answer: A
Q3) The seven steps of accurate coding include:
A) coding only documented conditions.
B) coding the problems told to you by the nurse.
C) coding only the chief complaint.
D) coding the patient's history.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mark broke his left arm after he fell into an empty swimming pool, initial encounter. What is the correct external cause code that should be assigned?
A) W17.2XXA
B) W17.3XXA
C) W17.2XXD
D) W17.2XXD.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the first step in looking up an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code?
A) Look up the main term in the Alphabetic Index.
B) Look up the main term in the Tabular List.
C) Look up the code in the Alphabetic Index.
D) Look up the code in the Tabular List.
Answer: A
Q3) The Alphabetic Index lists diagnoses by:
A) anatomical site.
B) condition.
C) level of disease.
D) All of these
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Guidelines and Notations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would NOS be used?
A) The physician did not provide more details in his or her notes.
B) The physician only stated a sign in his or her notes.
C) The physician stated the detail, but there is not a code to match.
D) The physician stated the detail, but placeholders are needed.
Answer: A
Q2) A statement in which the physician uses the word versus between two diagnostic statements is known as a:
A) differential diagnosis.
B) possible diagnosis.
C) rule-out diagnosis.
D) suspected diagnosis.
Answer: A
Q3) Penny is diagnosed with retrovirus. Report this with code:
A) B97.3.
B) B97.30.
C) B97.31.
D) B99.9.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Coding Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chickenpox is a:
A) bacterial infection.
B) fungal infection.
C) parasitic infection.
D) viral infection.
Q2) What is the correct code for Molluscum contagiosum?
A) B08.010
B) B08.011
C) B08.1
D) B08.2
Q3) Malaria, a disease spread by mosquitoes, is an example of a:
A) bacterial infection.
B) fungal infection.
C) parasitic infestation.
D) viral infection.
Q4) Which of the following is the correct code for Wolhynian fever?
A) A78
B) A79.0
C) A79.9
D) A78.0, A79.0
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Coding Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neoplasms with overlapping boundaries are known as:
A) contiguous.
B) inclusive.
C) metastatic.
D) None of these
Q2) What is the correct code assignment for a 40-year-old patient who is admitted for prophylactic removal of both breasts due to a strong family history of breast cancer?
A) Z40.01, Z80.3
B) Z40.01, Z85.3
C) Z80.3, Z40.01
D) Z85.3, Z40.01
Q3) Which of the following codes is used to report a patient with a secondary malignancy in his right kidney and renal pelvis?
A) C79.00
B) C79.01
C) C79.02
D) C64.1
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Chapter 6: Coding Diseases of the Blood and Immune Mechanism
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interruption of bleeding is known as:
A) agglutination.
B) hemolysis.
C) hemostasis.
D) hematopoiesis.
Q2) Which common blood test is used to identify anemia?
A) Creatinine
B) Glucose
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D) Hematocrit
Q3) Antigens are __________ that sit on the surface of red blood cells.
A) proteins
B) sugars
C) markers
D) chromosomes
Q4) How many white blood cells does a healthy body need?
A) 4-11 thousand
B) 4-6 million
C) 11-15 thousand
D) 7-9 million
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Chapter 7: Coding Conditions of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are the correct code(s) for a patient who has not been taking her insulin because she is unable to afford the medicine?
A) Z91.120
B) Z91.120, T38.3X6A
C) T38.3X6A, Z91.120
D) Z91.128
Q2) Which hormone is released during labor and delivery to help contract the uterus?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) Vasopressin
Q3) Which of the following means weighing too much?
A) Obesity
B) Morbid obesity
C) Overweight
D) None of these
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Chapter 8: Coding Mental and Behavioral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code for withdrawal from inhalant abuse with inhalant-induced anxiety disorder?
A) F18.18
B) F18.180
C) F18.188
D) F18.19
Q2) Consumption of a substance without significant clinical manifestations is called: A) abuse.
B) dependence.
C) use.
D) None of these
Q3) The control center of the human body is the: A) brain.
B) spinal cord.
C) neurons.
D) synapses.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Coding Nervous System Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the correct codes for a patient with glossopharyngeal neuralgia and bilateral CTS?
A) G52.0, G56.00
B) G52.1, G56.00
C) G52.0, G56.01, G56.02
D) G52.1, G56.01, G56.02
Q2) Which lobes process visual impulses?
A) Frontal lobes
B) Parietal lobes
C) Temporal lobes
D) Occipital lobes
Q3) hich of the following is not part of the brainstem?
A) Midbrain
B) Pons
C) Cerebral meninges
D) Medulla oblongata
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11
Chapter 10: Coding Diseases of the Eye and Adnexa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is also known as the posterior chamber of the eye?
A) Anterior chamber
B) Extraocular muscles
C) Trochlea
D) Vitreous chamber
Q2) What are the correct codes for a patient who has myopathy of the extraocular muscles of the right orbit and a cyst and atrophy of the left orbit?
A) H05.821, H05.811, H05.312
B) H05.821, H05.812, H05.312
C) H05.822, H05.811, H05.312
D) H05.822, H05.812, H05.312
Q3) What does the abbreviation PERRLA stand for?
A) Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
B) Pupils even, round, reactive to light and accommodation
C) Pupils equal, round, responsive to light and accommodation
D) Pupils even, round, responsive to light and accommodation
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Chapter 11: Coding Diseases of the Auditory System Ears
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with aural vertigo, left ear?
A) H81.311
B) H81.312
C) H81.391
D) H81.392
Q2) What is the correct code assigned for a patient diagnosed with an ear disorder?
A) H93.90
B) H93.91
C) H93.92
D) H93.93
Q3) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with impacted cerumen of the left ear?
A) H61.20
B) H61.21
C) H61.22
D) H61.23
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13
Chapter 12: Coding Circulatory Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these conditions means that the patient is having trouble breathing?
A) Angina
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Dyspnea
D) Arrhythmia
Q2) According to the CDC, what is the percentage of American adults with hypertension?
A) 15 percent
B) 22 percent
C) 31 percent
D) 40 percent
Q3) Which of the following tests might be used to determine the involvement of renal disease as an underlying cause of hypertension?
A) Blood tests
B) Excretory urography
C) Urinalysis
D) All of these
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Chapter 13: Coding Respiratory Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A) Lungs
B) Bronchi
C) Epiglottis
D) Pharynx
Q2) How many parts does the breathing process include?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) How many hemispheres are in the lung?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) Getting rid of carbon dioxide is known as:
A) expiration.
B) inspiration.
C) aspiration.
D) respiration.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Coding Diseases of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direct path through the body from the mouth to the anus is the:
A) alimentary canal.
B) oral cavity.
C) pharynx.
D) esophagus.
Q2) An endoscope can be introduced into the body via:
A) an artificial opening.
B) a natural opening.
C) a small incision.
D) All of these
Q3) What is the correct code for sclerosing cholangitis?
A) K82.9
B) K83.0
C) K83.1
D) K85.0
Q4) Which of the following is responsible for creating digestive enzymes?
A) Common bile duct
B) Gallbladder
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Coding Diseases of the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following layers of skin is also known as the hypodermis?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Fat
Q2) Which of the following types of dermatitis is also known as Besnier's prurigo?
A) Atopic dermatitis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Allergic contact dermatitis
D) Exfoliative dermatitis
Q3) Which of the following layers of the skin does not contain any blood vessels?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Fat
Q4) What is the correct code for flexural psoriasis?
A) L40.2
B) L40.3
C) L40.8
D) L40.9
17
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Chapter 16: Coding Muscular Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the movable end of the muscle?
A) Ligament
B) Tendon
C) Point of origin
D) Point of insertion
Q2) Which of the following is not a muscle in the tongue, palate, or pharynx?
A) Chondroglossus
B) Levator veli palatine
C) Oblique muscle, inferior
D) Stylopharyngeus
Q3) Which of the following is not a lower leg muscle?
A) Abductor hallucis
B) Extensor digitorium longus
C) Popliteus
D) Soleus
Q4) Which of the following is not an upper leg muscle?
A) Gemellus
B) Pectineus
C) Quadriceps
D) Rectus femoris
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Chapter 17: Coding Skeletal Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vertebrae do the ribs attach to?
A) Cervical
B) Lumbar
C) Thoracic
D) Sacral
Q2) What is the correct code for adolescent postural kyphosis in the thoracolumbar region?
A) M40.00
B) M40.03
C) M40.04
D) M40.05
Q3) How many bones are in the adult human skull?
A) 8
B) 14
C) 22
D) 40
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Coding Diseases of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What shape is the prostate?
A) Almond
B) Chestnut
C) Pistachio
D) Peanut
Q2) Which of the following statements is true when coding UTIs?
A) A coder will use one code that identifies both the location and organism causing the infection.
B) A coder will code the UTI and then use an additional code to code the causative organism, if known.
C) A coder only needs to report the code for the UTI even if the causative organism is known.
D) A coder only needs to report the causative organism if it is known.
Q3) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with urethrotrigonitis?
A) N30.3
B) N30.30
C) N30.31
D) N30.9
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20
Chapter 19: Coding for Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many chromosomes does each oocyte contain?
A) 12
B) 13
C) 23
D) 46
Q2) To identify that a woman has been pregnant twice and given birth once, use:
A) G1 P1.
B) G1 P2.
C) G2 P1.
D) G2 P2.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a pregnancy complication?
A) If it threatens the pregnant state
B) If it threatens the health of the woman
C) If it influences the manner in which the woman is treated
D) All of these
Q4) How long does the postpartum period last after delivery?
A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 8 weeks
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Coding Congenital and Pediatric Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is an Apgar test performed?
A) 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth
B) 1 minute and 10 minutes after birth
C) 5 minutes and 10 minutes after birth
D) 5 minutes and 8 minutes after birth
Q2) Josh Jumper was born in the hospital today via vaginal delivery. Josh's Apgar scores are 8 and 9. During Josh's examination, the physician noted a penile hypospadias. What are the correct codes to assign?
A) Z38.00, Q54.0
B) Z38.00, Q54.1
C) Z38.01, Q54.0
D) Z38.01, Q54.1
Q3) What is the correct code for a healthy newborn infant who was born vaginally at a birthing center?
A) Z38.00
B) Z38.01
C) Z38.1
D) Z38.2
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22
Chapter 21: Coding Injuries, Poisonings, and Certain Other
Consequences of External Causes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are the correct code(s) for a corrosion of the breast, third degree due to accidental spillage of concentrated lye?
A) T21.1XA
B) T54.3X1A, T21.71XA
C) T21.71XA, T54.3X1A
D) T54.3X1A
Q2) What are the correct codes for acute pain from a recently implanted cardiac defibrillator?
A) T82.897A, G89.18
B) T82.897D, G89.18
C) T82.897A, G89.28
D) T82.897D, G89.28
Q3) What is the correct code for a patient seen today for a left index fingernail avulsion?
A) S61.201A
B) S61.301A
C) S61.200A
D) S61.300A
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact
With Health Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Victor Viper was transferred to the ICU from a community hospital. Victor is put on a ventilator because he has sepsis due to Pseudomonas. Victor was not able to be weaned from the ventilator, so he was transferred to a skilled nursing center. What is the correct code assignment?
A) A49.02
B) A49.02, Z99.11
C) A41.52
D) A41.52, Z99.11
Q2) A patient has a genetic susceptibility to multiple endocrine neoplasia. What code is assigned?
A) Z15.02
B) Z15.03
C) Z15.04
D) Z15.81
Q3) What is the correct code for sepsis due to Enterococcus?
A) A41.51
B) A41.52
C) A41.81
D) A41.82
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Chapter 23: Hospital Inpatient Diagnosis Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) In inpatient coding, which of the following are you permitted to code?
A) Rule out
B) Probable
C) Suspected
D) All of these
Q2) In outpatient coding, which of the following are you permitted to code?
A) Rule out
B) Probable
C) Suspected
D) None of these
Q3) Sandy Summitt delivered a healthy female live-born infant without any complications. What are the correct codes and POA assignments?
A) O80-1, Z37.0-1
B) O80-Y, Z37.0-Y
C) O82-1, Z37.0-1
D) O82-Y, Z37.0-Y
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