Introduction to Human Anatomy Exam Practice
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Anatomy provides a foundational overview of the structure and organization of the human body. The course covers major systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will explore anatomical terminology, spatial relationships among organs, and the basic principles of how the body functions. Through lectures, visual aids, and laboratory activities, this course prepares students for further study in health sciences, medicine, and related fields by emphasizing the practical and clinical relevance of human anatomy.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the metric system, a liter (L)is a unit that measures A)mass.
B)time.
C)length.
D)temperature.
E)volume.
Answer: E
Q2) In the metric system, 1 cm is equal to ________ mm.
A)100
B)1,000
C)0.1
D)10
E)0.01
Answer: D
Q3) When drawing a graph to display experimental data, the independent variable is plotted along the x-axis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are components of the lymphatic system, except the ________.
A)thymus
B)pineal gland
C)spleen
D)lymph nodes
E)lymphatic vessels
Answer: B
Q2) A ________ plane (section)divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
A)sagittal
B)transverse
C)horizontal
D)coronal
E)paramedian
Answer: D
Q3) A person in anatomical position is standing up straight, facing forward, with arms at the sides, and palms facing backward.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The building blocks of many lipids include
A)amino acids.
B)monosaccharides.
C)polypeptides.
D)fatty acids and glycerol.
E)polysaccharides.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are true of lipids, except A)amino acids are a type of lipid.
B)some lipids are used for cellular structure.
C)triglycerides are also called fats.
D)lipids provide some cellular energy.
E)phospholipids are a type of lipid.
Answer: A
Q3) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a microscopic lens is not clean, after cleaning it with lens paper or a cotton swab and lens cleaner, it should be cleaned with hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the typical magnification provided by the eyepiece (ocular)lens system?
A)100x
B)10x
C)4x
D)1,000x
E)0x (the eyepiece lens system does not provide any magnification)
Q3) Which part of the microscope is responsible for making small changes in focus when using the high-power objective lens?
A)Fine adjustment knob
B)Iris diaphragm lever
C)Rotating nosepiece
D)Coarse adjustment knob
E)Substage illuminator
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6
Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following structures are found in (or surrounding)the nucleus of a cell, except the ________.
A)centrioles
B)chromatin
C)nucleolus
D)nuclear envelope
E)nuclear pores
Q2) The plasma membrane of a cell can also be called the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nuclear envelope is a double-layered membrane, like the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are true of the centrioles, except
A)they are located within the centrosome.
B)they are part of the cytoskeleton.
C)they consist of microtubules.
D)they organize the mitotic spindle during cell division.
E)they are nonmembranous organelles.
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Q1) A 7% solution of glucose would be considered hypertonic to human cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following transport processes requires the energy of ATP to move substances across the plasma membrane?
A)Diffusion
B)Osmosis
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Active transport
E)Filtration
Q3) Passive transport processes, such as diffusion, are also called physiological processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When conducting the eggshell membrane experiment, what is vinegar used for?
A)To remove the shell
B)To turn the albumin white
C)To solidify the yolk
D)To make the shell turn a pinkish color
E)To separate the egg shell from the rest of the egg
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The major phases of the cell cycle are
A)prophase and metaphase.
B)anaphase and telophase.
C)interphase and mitosis.
D)telophase and interphase.
E)mitosis and cytokinesis.
Q3) A karyotype shows the gender of an individual, as well as many genetic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following events occurs in both the G and the G phases?
A)Mitosis
B)DNA replication
C)Cytokinesis
D)Spindle apparatus formation
E)Cell growth
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the basement membrane?
A)It is connected to the apical surface of epithelial tissues.
B)The cells closest to the basement membrane are dividing cells.
C)It is acellular.
D)It is composed of collagen and secretions from the cells.
E)It serves to anchor the epithelial tissues to the underlying connective tissue.
Q2) An epithelial tissue composed of several layers of tall, elongated cells would be called ________ epithelium.
A)stratified cuboidal
B)stratified columnar
C)transitional
D)simple columnar
E)stratified squamous
Q3) A group of cells that are alike in function and appearance is called a tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about areolar connective tissue except
A)it consists of cells in a fluid-gel matrix.
B)it sustains tissue tension.
C)it holds tissue fluids.
D)it binds organs loosely together.
E)All of these are true of areolar connective tissue.
Q2) The type of connective tissue fiber that stretches is reticular fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of blood?
A)It helps to defend the body against disease.
B)It is identical to lymph.
C)It is a liquid connective tissue.
D)It transports substances that conduct clotting.
E)All of these are true of blood.
Q4) Most tendons and ligaments consist of hyaline cartilage.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?
A)Skeletal only
B)Smooth only
C)Skeletal and cardiac
D)Skeletal and smooth
E)Cardiac only
Q2) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dendrites, an axon, and a soma are all components of ________.
A)smooth muscle cells
B)neuroglia
C)cardiac muscle cells
D)neurons
E)skeletal muscle cells
Q4) Cardiac muscle is found in the walls of the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland?
A)Apocrine sweat glands
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Mammary glands
D)Ceruminous glands
E)All of these are considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland.
Q2) Which layer of the skin is found directly superficial to the hypodermis?
A)Stratum basale
B)Reticular region of the dermis
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
E)Papillary region of the dermis
Q3) Which structure of the hair follicle supplies the capillaries that provide the growing hair with oxygen and nutrients?
A)Hair papilla
B)Hair root
C)Hair shaft
D)Hair matrix
E)Hair bulb
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concentric, interstitial, and circumferential lamellae all consist of ________.
A)spongy bone
B)hematopoietic cells
C)yellow bone marrow
D)layers of matrix
E)trabeculae
Q2) A bone is considered to be a tissue of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton?
A)The proximal epiphyses of the femurs
B)The radius and ulna
C)The tibia and fibula
D)The phalanges of the hands and feet
E)None of these structures contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton.
Q4) By the time a person reaches adulthood, all of his/her red bone marrow has been converted to yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articulations are bone markings that occur where bones fit together in a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of carpals in the wrists is equal to the number of tarsals in the ankles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ribs are attached posteriorly to the ________.
A)vertebrae
B)sacrum
C)scapula
D)coccyx
E)sternum
Q4) A cavity in a bone, especially in a bone of the skull, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)tuberosity
C)meatus
D)foramen
E)sinus
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is classified as a cranial bone?
A)Ethmoid bone
B)Zygomatic bone
C)Palatine bone
D)Lacrimal bone
E)Inferior nasal concha
Q2) The vertebral arteries, accessory nerve, and the connections between the brainstem and spinal cord are all transmitted through the ________.
A)vertebral foramen
B)foramen magnum
C)mental foramen
D)stylomastoid foramen
E)foramen ovale
Q3) The coronoid process, mental foramen, and ramus are all found on the A)maxilla.
B)mandible.
C)ethmoid bone.
D)sphenoid bone.
E)parietal bone.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the thoracic cage?
A)Ribs
B)Costal cartilages
C)Sternum
D)Thoracic vertebrae
E)All of these are included in the thoracic cage.
Q2) On the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae, which structures are thin plates that form the posterior portion of the vertebral foramen?
A)Laminae
B)Transverse processes
C)Pedicles
D)Spinous processes
E)Facets
Q3) Which vertebrae contain transverse foramina?
A)Thoracic vertebrae only
B)Lumbar vertebrae only
C)Cervical vertebrae only
D)Cervical and thoracic vertebrae
E)All vertebrae in the vertebral column contain transverse foramina.
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Q1) The heads of the radius and ulna are found on the proximal end of their respective bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the ________ of the humerus.
A)olecranon fossa
B)trochlea
C)head
D)capitulum
E)intertubercular sulcus
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the humerus?
A)Coronoid process
B)Intertubercular sulcus
C)Surgical neck
D)Deltoid tuberosity
E)Capitulum
Q4) The bones of the pectoral girdle are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) The bones and muscles of the lower limb have more stable joints than those of the upper limb.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an alternate name for the hip bone?
A)Os coxa
B)Pelvic bone
C)Innominate bone
D)Coxal bone
E)All of these are alternate names for the hip bone.
Q3) Which of the following tarsals articulates with the distal end of the tibia, and allows the foot to pivot up and down?
A)Navicular
B)Cuboid
C)Talus
D)Medial cuneiform
E)Calcaneus
Q4) The femur is the longest and strongest bone of the entire skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following fontanels involve(s)the occipital bone?
A)Posterior only
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid only
D)Sphenoidal only
E)Mastoid and posterior
Q2) Most bones of the skeleton develop by endochondral ossification.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the fontanels close by the end of the first year after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the fontanels of the fetal/infant skull involve the parietal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The posterior fontanel is surrounded by the parietal and occipital bones.
A)True B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) An intervertebral disc is composed of fibrocartilage, and is slightly moveable; this type of joint is classified as a A)syndesmosis.
B)symphysis.
C)gomphosis.
D)synchondrosis.
E)suture.
Q2) The only structural type of joint that contains synovial fluid in a joint cavity is a cartilaginous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following joints is/are capable of circumduction?
A)Elbow and knee
B)Shoulder and hip
C)Hip and knee
D)Shoulder, hip, elbow, and knee
E)Shoulder and elbow
Q4) An epiphyseal plate of a long bone is an example of a temporary joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) The connective tissue layer that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers is called the A)endomysium.
B)fascicle.
C)perimysium.
D)fascia.
E)epimysium.
Q2) Which of the following organelles stores calcium in skeletal muscle fibers for contraction?
A)Mitochondria
B)Transverse tubules
C)Sarcolemma
D)Sarcoplasm
E)Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q3) In a motor unit, each neuron innervates (controls)a single muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A skeletal muscle is considered to be an organ of the muscular system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The activation of additional motor units in a skeletal muscle, in order to increase muscle tension, is called motor unit recruitment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscle fatigue can be induced by sustaining maximum clench force on an object for several seconds.
A)True B)False
Q3) Electromyography is a recording of voltage on the skin surface, which is derived from the contraction of skeletal muscles under the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of muscle tissue that was used for electromyography in this lab exercise is ________ muscle.
A)mononucleated
B)cardiac
C)non-striated
D)skeletal
E)smooth
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following muscles of the head and neck originates on the sternum and clavicle, and inserts on the mastoid process?
A)Scalenes
B)Trapezius
C)Splenius capitis
D)Sternocleidomastoid
E)Semispinalis capitis
Q2) Which of the following muscles of facial expression is the only one that closes the eye when blinking?
A)Nasalis
B)Orbicularis oris
C)Risorius
D)Mentalis
E)Orbicularis oculi
Q3) The group of muscles that moves the hyoid bone and larynx helps with the processes of speech and swallowing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) Due to its name and position in the forearm (posterior medial side of the forearm), the actions of the extensor carpi ulnaris are most likely to
A)flex the wrist and abduct the thumb.
B)flex the wrist and adduct the hand.
C)flex the wrist and abduct the hand.
D)extend the wrist and abduct the hand.
E)extend the wrist and adduct the hand.
Q2) A muscle that runs down the arm, and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna, would cause
A)extension of the elbow.
B)abduction of the arm.
C)extension of the fingers.
D)flexion of the elbow.
E)flexion of the fingers.
Q3) Which of the following muscles is located on the anterior side of the scapula?
A)Supraspinatus
B)Teres major
C)Subscapularis
D)Teres minor
E)Infraspinatus
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
Q2) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the
A)anal triangle.
B)genital opening.
C)urogenital triangle.
D)external anal sphincter.
E)pelvic diaphragm.
Q3) Which of the pelvic floor muscles inserts only on the coccyx?
A)Ischiocavernosus
B)Coccygeus
C)Levator ani
D)Bulbospongiosus
E)Superficial transverse perineal muscle
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the gastrocnemius muscle?
A)It has origins on the lateral and medial condyles of the femur
B)Its functions in dorsiflexion of the foot.
C)It inserts on the calcaneus by way of the calcaneal tendon
D)It functions in flexion of the knee.
E)All of these are true of the gastrocnemius muscle.
Q2) Looking at the names of these muscles, which one would you expect to insert on the distal phalanges of toes 2-5?
A)Flexor digitorum longus
B)Tibialis anterior
C)Flexor hallucis longus
D)Extensor pollicis longus
E)Fibularis longus
Q3) The quadriceps femoris group of muscles is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A)common fibular
B)tibial
C)superior gluteal
D)obturator
E)femoral
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) External landmarks (surface anatomy)on the body not only allow for examination of surface features, but also offer an opportunity to locate certain internal structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a posterior surface feature?
A)Calcaneal tendon
B)Popliteal fossa
C)External occipital protuberance
D)Head of the fibula
E)All of these are posterior surface features.
Q3) All of the following features could be palpated in the posterior head and neck region except the
A)hyoid bone.
B)vertebra prominens.
C)trapezius.
D)occipital ridge.
E)mastoid process.
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is true of interneurons?
A)They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.
B)They are also called efferent neurons.
C)They often connect sensory neurons to motor neurons.
D)They are directly connected to sensory receptors.
E)None of the choices is true of interneurons.
Q2) A peripheral process is a structure found only in ________ neurons.
A)bipolar
B)motor
C)multipolar
D)association
E)unipolar
Q3) Which type of neuron conducts nerve impulses from the central nervous system to muscles or glands?
A)Afferent neurons
B)Association neurons
C)Sensory neurons
D)Interneurons
E)Motor neurons
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the epidural space?
A)It lies between the vertebrae and the dura mater.
B)It contains connective tissue and blood vessels.
C)It contains cerebrospinal fluid.
D)It is the site for epidural injections of anesthetics.
E)All of these are true of the epidural space.
Q2) Which of the following nerves is part of the cervical plexus?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Femoral nerve
D)Phrenic nerve
E)Pudendal nerve
Q3) The filum terminale anchors the inferior end of the spinal cord to the A)L1 vertebra.
B)sacrum.
C)L2 vertebra.
D)S5 vertebra.
E)coccyx.
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) The stretch receptors of the biceps reflex are located in the biceps brachii muscle and tendon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reflexes involving skeletal muscles are called ________ reflexes.
A)autonomic
B)spinal
C)somatic
D)skeletal
E)subconscious
Q3) Which portion of a reflex arc is the only portion that is found entirely within the CNS?
A)The motor neuron
B)The integration center
C)The receptor
D)The effector
E)The sensory neuron
Q4) A reflex arc is the simplest kind of neural pathway in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is the main area of the brain that receives information from skin receptors and proprioceptors?
A)Wernicke's area
B)Motor association area
C)Primary somatosensory cortex
D)Insula
E)Somatosensory association cortex
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial nerves?
A)There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
B)They are part of the CNS.
C)Most arise from the brainstem.
D)Most, but not all, are mixed nerves.
E)All of these are true of the cranial nerves.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the ventricles of the brain?
A)They are blood-filled chambers.
B)They are all interconnected.
C)There are 2 lateral ventricles.
D)The fourth ventricle lies between the pons and the cerebellum.
E)All of these are true of the ventricles of the brain.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q2) In general, it would be expected that reaction time would get shorter between the first and the tenth stimuli in each condition that was tested, due to a learning process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the class as a whole, which condition would you expect to display the shortest average reaction time?
A)Random interval, dominant hand
B)Fixed interval, dominant hand
C)Random interval, non-dominant hand
D)Fixed interval, non-dominant hand
E)All 4 of the conditions tested showed the same reaction times.
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33
Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which type(s)of EEG waves become(s)dominant in sleeping adults, but also in some forms of brain disease?
A)Delta
B)Alpha and beta
C)Beta
D)Theta
E)Delta and theta
Q2) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves?
A)Personality
B)Gender
C)Age
D)Type of activity the person is engaged in
E)All of these factors contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves.
Q3) Alpha block occurs when a person closes his/her eyes, and changes from a state of concentration to a state of relaxation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) The corpora quadrigemina, cerebral peduncles, and cerebral aqueduct are all parts of the A)midbrain.
B)diencephalon.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)thalamus.
E)pons.
Q2) The optic nerves extend posteriorly and medially from the eyes, and merge at the A)optic chiasma.
B)infundibulum.
C)corpus callosum.
D)fornix.
E)cerebral peduncle.
Q3) Even though the human brain is larger than the sheep brain, the sheep brain has more gyri and sulci than the human brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The brains of mammals have many common structural features. A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) The form in which receptors send sensory information to the brain is called perception.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For tactile localization, the brain interprets information from touch receptor fields in the
A)primary motor cortex.
B)brainstem.
C)primary somatosensory cortex.
D)diencephalon.
E)cerebellum.
Q3) Which of the following receptors do not consist of free nerve endings?
A)Warm receptors
B)Meissner's corpuscles
C)Cold receptors
D)Nociceptors
E)All of these receptors consist of free nerve endings.
Q4) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Both the primary olfactory cortex and the primary gustatory cortex are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of cells are olfactory receptor cells?
A)Squamous epithelial cells
B)Columnar epithelial cells
C)Bipolar neurons
D)Cuboidal epithelial cells
E)Multipolar neurons
Q3) What is the function of the basal cells of the taste buds?
A)They are the taste receptor cells.
B)They transmit sensory impulses from the taste receptor cells to the 3 cranial nerves associated with gustation.
C)They surround and protect the taste buds.
D)They replace damaged taste cells every 7-10 days.
E)They provide physical support to the taste receptor cells.
Q4) Olfactory and gustatory receptors are both chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) Why is the optic disc sometimes called the blind spot of the eye?
A)There are no rods and cones there.
B)There are no nerve fibers there.
C)There are no blood vessels there.
D)There are rods there, but no cones, so color vision is not possible in that area.
E)There are cones there, but no rods, so black and white vision is not possible in that area.
Q2) What is the function of the ciliary muscles?
A)They change the shape of the lens to accommodate near or far vision.
B)They change pupil diameter when lighting conditions change.
C)They close the upper eyelid.
D)They abduct the eye.
E)They open the upper eyelid.
Q3) Vision is one of the special senses, because its receptors are found within complex sensory organs in the head.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) Which of the following structures refract(s)light to focus it on to the proper area of the retina?
A)Iris
B)Ciliary body
C)Cornea and lens
D)Pupil
E)Optic disc and ciliary body
Q2) As people age, the lenses of the eye thicken and lose elasticity, a condition called A)hyperopia.
B)emmetropia.
C)myopia.
D)hypoopia.
E)presbyopia.
Q3) The muscles of photopupillary reflex are innervated by the ________ nerve.
A)trochlear
B)oculomotor
C)optic
D)facial
E)abducens
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a chamber found in the cochlea?
A)Scala tympani
B)Vestibule
C)Cochlear duct
D)Scala vestibuli
E)All of these are chambers found in the cochlea.
Q2) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
Q3) Which of the following structures of the ear function(s)as (an)organ(s)in the sense of equilibrium?
A)Vestibule and semicircular ducts
B)Cochlea
C)Eustachian tube
D)Pinna
E)Bony labyrinth
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of otoliths?
A)They cause the stereocilia to bend, which is the stimulus for sending nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
B)They consist of magnesium chloride.
C)They add weight to the otolithic membrane as the head is tilted, which causes it to sag.
D)They are embedded in the gelatinous portion of the otolithic membrane.
E)All of these are true of otoliths.
Q2) Nystagmus is a normal response that occurs along with
A)horizontal acceleration.
B)rotational movements.
C)linear acceleration.
D)vertical acceleration.
E)any of these movements.
Q3) The inner ear houses the organs of both static and dynamic equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) The theca folliculi, which surrounds mature follicles in the ovary, produces androgens (male sex hormones).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exocrine glands secrete substances directly into the interstitial fluids of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the regulation of body processes, the effects or hormones last longer than those of neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hormones FSH and LH have no functions in the male. A)True
B)False
Q5) A major difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that endocrine glands are ductless.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of pancreatic polypeptide?
A)To promote somatostatin secretion
B)To increase the blood glucose level
C)To inhibit secretion of insulin and glucagon
D)To decrease the blood glucose level
E)To inhibit somatostatin and digestive enzyme secretion
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the hormone insulin?
A)It causes the synthesis of glycogen from glucose in the liver and skeletal muscles.
B)It causes facilitated diffusion of glucose across the plasma membranes of its target cells.
C)It lowers the blood sugar level.
D)It inhibits protein synthesis and fat storage.
E)All of these are true of the hormone insulin.
Q4) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) In a blood smear, the vast majority of formed elements are
A)white blood cells
B)neutrophils
C)platelets
D)leukocytes
E)red blood cells
Q2) Which of the following types of white blood cells is likely to increase in number in a person with cancer, chicken pox, or hypothyroidism?
A)Monocytes
B)Basophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Eosinophils
Q3) Most, but not all, of the formed elements are produced in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Formed elements make up about 55% of the volume of the blood, and plasma makes up 45%.
A)True
B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) All of the following factors could cause decreased hematocrit except A)anemia.
B)smoking or emphysema.
C)kidney disease with a decline in erythropoietin production.
D)a hemorrhage.
E)All of these could cause decreased hematocrit.
Q2) When a blood sample is spun down in a centrifuge tube, the blood plasma settles to the bottom, due it is high viscosity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anemia can be caused either by a low hematocrit, or by a low hemoglobin level even when the red blood cell count is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
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45
Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) If you mixed a person's red blood cells with anti-B antibodies, and the red blood cells agglutinated, what could you conclude?
A)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen B
B)That the person has type B blood
C)That the person has type AB blood
D)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen A
E)That the person's blood is Rh+
Q2) There are many different antigens found on red blood cell membranes, but only antigens A and B, and the Rh antigens are likely to cause agglutination reactions when transplanted into a person that lacks them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the least common blood type in the United States?
A)Type A
B)Type O
C)Type B
D)Type AB
E)All four blood types are found in almost equal percentages in the United States.
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) Which of the following structures anchor(s)the cusps of the AV valves to the wall of the heart, to prevent regurgitation of blood?
A)Papillary muscles
B)Interventricular septum
C)Pectinate muscles
D)Endocardium
E)Trabeculae carneae
Q2) The great cardiac vein runs through the same sulcus as the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a branch of the aortic arch?
A)Right subclavian artery
B)Left common carotid artery
C)Brachiocephalic trunk
D)Left subclavian artery
E)All of these are branches of the aortic arch.
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) In the cardiac cycle, the atria relax while the ventricles are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system transmits electrical signals directly to the Purkinje fibers?
A)AV node
B)Internodal fibers
C)Right and left bundle branches
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q3) The first and second heart sounds are derived from the opening of the heart valves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The AV bundle and the bundle branches are located in the ________ of the heart.
A)right atrium
B)interventricular septum
C)aorta
D)left atrium
E)interatrial septum
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The results of the ECG with various leads (arrangements of positive and negative electrodes)are identical, so it does not matter which lead is used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Functionally, how is cardiac muscle tissue controlled, compared to that of skeletal muscle tissue?
A)Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by somatic motor neurons.
B)Cardiac muscle tissue is controlled by pacemaker cells within the heart, while skeletal muscle tissue is regulated by somatic motor neurons.
C)Cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by both somatic motor neurons and by pacemaker cells within the respective tissues.
D)Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by pacemaker cells within the respective tissues.
E)Cardiac muscle tissue is controlled by somatic motor neurons, while skeletal muscle tissue is controlled by pacemaker cells within the tissue.
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) The first branches of the aorta are the
A)right and left subclavian arteries.
B)right and left pulmonary arteries.
C)common carotid arteries.
D)right and left coronary arteries.
E)brachiocephalic arteries.
Q2) All of the following are true of the differences between arteries and veins except A)veins have one-way valves, but arteries do not.
B)arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.
C)veins collapse when empty, but arteries remain rounded.
D)veins have a thicker tunica externa than arteries.
E)All of these are true of the differences between arteries and veins.
Q3) The function of the cerebral arterial circle is to provide alternate routes by which blood can reach different portions of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are individual differences in veins, but not in arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the effects of various factors on blood pressure?
A)An increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure.
B)An increase in peripheral resistance decreases blood pressure.
C)An increase in blood volume increases blood pressure.
D)An increase in vasoconstriction of blood vessels increases blood pressure.
E)All of these are true of the effects of various factors on the blood pressure.
Q2) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a person who is lying down suddenly stands up, the pulse rate decreases, due to the effects of gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After blood flows through the capillaries, the blood pressure derived from the heart is insufficient to return blood to the heart through the veins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) In the spleen, the white pulp contains ________ and the red pulp contains
A)red blood cells; neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
B)neutrophils; monocytes
C)mostly macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
D)mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
E)mainly lymphocytes; mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages
Q2) Bacteria on a splinter in your shoulder would be filtered by lymph nodes in the ________ region.
A)axillary
B)inguinal
C)thoracic
D)supratrochlear
E)cervical
Q3) Most of the fluid that filters out of the blood plasma of the capillaries into the tissue spaces will become lymph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) In the bronchial tree, terminal bronchioles branch directly into A)alveolar sacs.
B)respiratory bronchioles.
C)alveoli.
D)large bronchioles.
E)alveolar ducts.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the pleura?
A)Surfactant in the pleural cavity prevents the parietal and visceral pleurae from sticking together.
B)The parietal pleura covers the inner surface of the thoracic wall and the superior surface of the diaphragm.
C)The pleural cavity contains serous fluid, which is a lubricant for the movements associated with breathing.
D)The visceral pleura covers the outer surface of each lung.
E)All of these are true of the pleura.
Q3) The walls of alveoli and their associated capillaries both consist of simple squamous epithelium.
A)True
B)False
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of inspiration?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume is much lower than expiratory reserve volume.
B)Inspiration results from contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles.
C)Enlargement of the thoracic cavity reduces the pressure in the lungs, leading to air entering the thoracic cavity.
D)The anatomic dead space is about 30% of the inhaled tidal volume.
E)All of these are true of inspiration.
Q2) Normal, quiet expiration does not require any muscle contraction; it is entirely a result of muscle relaxation and elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities has the highest volume?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Functional residual capacity
D)Inspiratory capacity
E)Expiratory reserve volume
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Expiratory capacity (EC)is the sum of ________ and ________.
A)expiratory reserve volume (ERV); residual volume (RV)
B)tidal volume (TV); expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
C)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV); expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
D)tidal volume (TV); inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
E)tidal volume (TV); residual volume (RV)
Q2) Inspiratory capacity (IC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the vital capacity (VC)?
A)It can be calculated by adding the inspiratory reserve volume and the expiratory reserve volume.
B)It can be measured on a spirometer by taking a maximal inspiration, and then maximally expiring into the spirometer mouthpiece.
C)Restrictive lung disease, such as pulmonary fibrosis, can cause a decrease in VC.
D)Vital capacity (VC)is a larger volume than functional residual capacity (FRC).
E)All of these are true of the vital capacity.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of respiratory alkalosis?
A)It exists when the blood pH is >7.45.
B)It can result from an increase in the CO level in the blood.
C)It can result in death, if the blood pH reaches 8.0 or above.
D)It causes vasoconstriction of the cerebral blood vessels, which decreases oxygen delivery to the brain.
E)All of these are true of respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) Which of the following is not detected by the peripheral chemoreceptors?
A)An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
B)A decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
C)An increase in the level of hydrogen ions in the blood
D)An increase in the level of sodium ions in the blood
E)The peripheral chemoreceptors detect all of these changes.
Q3) Which of the following structures does not send input to the dorsal respiratory group?
A)Central chemoreceptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)Peripheral chemoreceptors
D)Irritant receptors
E)All of these structures send input to the dorsal respiratory group.
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which substance, secreted by the stomach, destroys most microorganisms that enter the body in the food, and activates pepsin?
A)Hydrochloric acid
B)Trypsin
C)Amylase
D)Intrinsic factor
E)Bicarbonate ions
Q3) The splenic flexure of the large intestine is on the left side of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following organs secretes digestive enzymes to chemically break down food?
A)The stomach
B)The esophagus
C)The large intestine
D)The pharynx
E)None of these organs secretes digestive enzymes.
Page 57
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Which digestive organ produces the enzyme maltase?
A)Small intestine
B)Pancreas
C)Salivary glands
D)Stomach
E)Liver
Q2) Salivary amylase is deactivated by ________ in the stomach.
A)pepsinogen
B)bile
C)bicarbonate ions
D)lipase
E)hydrochloric acid
Q3) In the amylase activity experiment, the development of a blue-black color upon the addition of iodine-potassium-iodide to the test tube indicates that
A)the starch has been broken down.
B)the starch has been denatured.
C)amylase is functioning at its optimum temperature.
D)the starch has not been broken down.
E)glucose is present in the test tube.
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) In the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients, which step(s)produce(s)no ATP?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)Glycolysis
E)ATP is produced in all of the steps in the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients.
Q2) Urea is derived from the breakdown of A)glycerol.
B)amino acids.
C)pyruvate.
D)fatty acids.
E)glucose.
Q3) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) A renal corpuscle consists of a capillary called a(n)________ and a cup-shaped structure called a ________.
A)efferent arteriole; proximal convoluted tubule
B)glomerulus; glomerular capsule
C)lacteal; Bowman's capsule
D)peritubular capillary; renal pelvis
E)glomerulus; nephron loop
Q2) Which of the following structures does not enter or exit the kidney at the hilum?
A)The renal column
B)The renal artery
C)The ureter
D)The renal vein
E)All of these structures enter or exit the kidney at the hilum.
Q3) What is the first process of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Active transport
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)Glomerular filtration
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) Which of the following factors does not affect the daily urine volume?
A)The environmental temperature
B)The respiratory rate
C)The relative humidity
D)The body temperature
E)All of these factors affect the daily urine volume.
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a nitrogenous waste, and is normally found in urine?
A)Urea
B)Ketones
C)Glucose
D)Hemoglobin
E)Bilirubin
Q3) Which of the following would not cause an increase in the protein content of urine?
A)Kidney disease involving glomerular damage
B)Hypotension (low blood pressure)
C)Very strenuous exercise
D)Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
E)All of these would cause an increase in the protein content of the urine.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46675
Sample Questions
Q1) The two ejaculatory ducts empty into the urethra within the A)corpus spongiosum.
B)seminal vesicles.
C)bulbourethral glands.
D)spermatic cord.
E)prostate gland.
Q2) Most of the fluid portion of the semen is produced by the A)seminal vesicles.
B)epididymis.
C)bulbourethral glands.
D)rete testis.
E)prostate gland.
Q3) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spermatogenesis occurs through the process of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primordial follicles are formed during ________ in a female.
A)the period between puberty and menopause
B)prenatal development
C)the entire lifetime
D)prenatal development and childhood
E)the period between childhood and menopause
Q2) Implantation of an embryo occurs in the A)cervix.
B)perimetrium.
C)myometrium.
D)endometrium.
E)ampulla.
Q3) Which of the following structures is not entirely within the perineum of the female?
A)The mons pubis
B)The anus
C)The labia minora
D)The labia majora
E)The vestibule
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63
Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q2) Which extraembryonic membrane encloses the embryo and contains protective fluid that cushions the embryo (and fetus)?
A)Allantois
B)Chorion
C)Ectoderm
D)Amnion
E)Yolk sac
Q3) During ovulation, which of the following structures is not expelled from the ovary?
A)All of the granulosa cells in the follicle
B)The secondary oocyte
C)The corona radiata
D)The zona pellucida
E)All of these are expelled from the ovary during ovulation.
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male with red-green colorblindness could have received the recessive gene for this condition from either parent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Colorblindness is an X chromosome-linked, recessive trait. None of the children of a normal mother (X X )and a colorblind father (X Y)could possibly be colorblind.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What blood types could the children have, if their mother was type A (I i)and their father was type B (I i)?
A)A or B
B)O
C)A, B, AB, or O
D)AB or O
E)A, B, or AB
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
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