Introduction to Forensic Science
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Forensic Science provides a comprehensive overview of the scientific principles and techniques used in the investigation of crime. Students will explore the fundamentals of evidence collection, preservation, and analysis, as well as the role of forensic science in the criminal justice system. Key topics include crime scene processing, forensic biology, trace evidence, toxicology, fingerprint analysis, and the interpretation of findings in a courtroom setting. The course emphasizes critical thinking, ethical considerations, and real-world applications through case studies and hands-on activities, preparing students for further study or careers related to forensic investigation.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious
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Q1) Discuss why it might be difficult for a psychologist to maintain her impartiality as a scientist and still successfully fulfill her role as an expert testifying in court.
Answer: Main points:
The U.S. legal system is adversarial.
Often, experts are hired by either defense or prosecution, with the expectation of helping one side of the trial.
Lawyers tend to "shop around" for an expert who would testify the way the lawyer needs.
Expert herself may have ideals or convictions she wants to advocate for.
Being effective as an expert in court requires presenting a clear-cut, easy-to-understand picture.
At the same time, science is rarely clear-cut or simple, it requires objectivity and skepticism about your own findings; conflicting explanations for the same facts are not uncommon.
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) The knowledge and skills of developmental psychologists might be relevant for the legal system in which one of these cases?
A) When studying the dynamics of jury deliberation.
B) When assessing a mentally ill defendant for potential risk of violence.
C) When deciding whether the eyewitness is able to remember the scene of crime.
D) When evaluating the state of mind of a teenager who brought guns to school.
Answer: D
Q2) The Daubert trilogy of cases impacts trial courts by:
A) putting the burden of decisions about allowing expert testimony on trial judges.
B) demonstrating that judges understand social science research and methods.
C) making judges take statistics courses and regular refresher training.
D) proving scientific research is well understood by all key actors in the legal system.
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court make explicit use of research provided by social scientists for the first time?
A) Brown v. Board of Education.
B) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc.
C) General Electric Co. v. Joiner.
D) Brandeis v. United States.
Answer: A
Q2) _____ tells us how people actually behave, whereas _____ tells us how people are supposed to behave.
A) Law; psychology
B) Psychology; law
C) Science; nature
D) Nature; science
Answer: B
Q3) After Daubert, judges are more likely to:
A) permit expert testimony in federal cases.
B) exclude expert testimony even if it's based on valid science.
C) allow expert testimony, but only with regard to competency to stand trial.
D) be required to obtain education in social scientific research methods.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q2) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) According to the text, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
A) it may be impossible to know what percentage of all confessions are false.
B) studies prove that false confessions are extremely rare.
C) proven false confessions are only a small portion of all false confessions.
D) studies show that about 25% of wrongful convictions involve false confessions.
Q2) A robbery suspect is apprehended and being read his Miranda rights by the police woman arresting him. The suspect is most likely to _____ his Miranda rights.
A) exercise
B) waive
C) remember
D) enjoy
Q3) According to research studies described in the text, mock jurors who reported that they disregarded the confession as clearly coerced were _____ likely to convict the defendant.
A) somewhat less
B) significantly less
C) still more
D) not more
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT presented in Chapter 2 as a potential solution to the problem of false confessions?
A) Video recording of interrogations.
B) Retraining police departments on interrogation procedures.
C) Setting time limits on interrogations.
D) Having expert testimony on interrogations and confessions.
Q2) In the case of Colorado v. Connelly (1986), Supreme Court Justice Brennan considered _____ to be the strongest piece of evidence in a trial.
A) eyewitness testimony
B) scientific evidence
C) a confession
D) the defendant's prior record
Q3) Studies show that when jurors clearly understand that the confession was coerced, they:
A) are still more likely to convict the defendant.
B) discount the confession and tend to acquit the defendant.
C) take more time to deliberate and sometimes don't reach a verdict.
D) break the rules and talk to the press.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q2) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q3) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) Some promising low-tech methods of lie detection include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) asking the suspects to tell their stories backwards.
B) insisting that suspects maintain eye contact with the interrogator.
C) asking suspects to draw a picture.
D) making suspects listen to their own story recorded.
Q2) According to research completed by Bond and DePaulo (2006), people's ability to distinguish lies has a _____ rate of accuracy, and efforts to improve people's ability to discern lies have _____.
A) barely above chance; not been very successful
B) significantly above chance; been very successful
C) significantly above chance; not been very successful
D) barely above chance; been very successful
Q3) According to the text, an EEG reads neural impulses _____, whereas the fMRI reads brain activity _____.
A) continuously; every two seconds
B) every two seconds; continuously
C) every hour; every minute
D) every minute; every hour
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) Bond and DePaulo (2006) analyzed the results from 384 studies that tested the lie-detecting ability of more than 24,000 people and found that:
A) most people can rather accurately guess whether they are told the truth or a lie.
B) the accuracy rate of most people is barely above the 50% guessing level.
C) about 50% of people are especially clairvoyant and able to discern truths from lies.
D) training people can substantially increase their lie-detecting ability.
Q2) The theory behind the polygraph test is based on the assumption that:
A) the act of lying will cause increased brain activity.
B) telling the truth will cause increased gastrointestinal activity.
C) the act of lying will cause physiological arousal.
D) telling the truth will cause a decrease in neural impulse activity.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a comparison or control question?
A) "Did you kill Ms. Smith?"
B) "Were you at the bank on Thursday?"
C) "Have you ever taken something that did not belong to you?"
D) "Did you see Wendy Jones in the schoolyard yesterday morning?"
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Q1) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
Q2) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q3) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) A "simple match" statement:
A) uses statistical analysis.
B) applies probability categories.
C) defines specific features and their likelihood.
D) does not use statistical terms.
Q2) Physical evidence may include:
A) fingerprints, fabric threads, and tire prints.
B) tire prints, shoe prints, and saliva.
C) marks for a tool, fingerprints, and skin cells.
D) bite marks, semen, and blood.
Q3) A qualitative statement made by an expert when presenting evidence is:
A) a subjective statement corroborated by statistics.
B) a non-statistical statement about the strength of a match.
C) dependent on simple match standards of inquiry.
D) supported by extensive research with peer review.
Q4) Forensic evidence is almost always tested _____.
A) at the crime scene, and the results are available within minutes.
B) at the crime scene, and the suspect is identified in 50% of cases.
C) in labs independently financed by a neutral party.
D) in labs closely affiliated with the prosecution. Page 13
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) If a measure or observation consistently produces similar results through repeated measurements, it is known as:
A) validity.
B) reliability.
C) practicality.
D) accuracy.
Q2) Features of fingerprints are referred to as _____, and the prints found at the scene of a crime are called _____.
A) whorls; finite loops
B) loops; friction ridges
C) minutiae; latent prints
D) ridges; hidden metrics
Q3) What educational qualifications do most practitioners of forensic science have?
A) Bachelor's degree.
B) Master's degree.
C) Doctoral degree.
D) Medical degree.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q2) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q3) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) The reliance on maps and mathematics to develop predictions about possible locations of future crimes is referred to as:
A) criminal profiling.
B) characterization.
C) geographic profiling.
D) the NASH system.
Q2) Psychological profiling mostly relies on _____ of a particular profiler.
A) psychological education
B) clinical experience
C) intuition
D) psychic abilities
Q3) One of the most serious _____ of profiles is that _____ profiles may direct the police to look at the wrong suspects.
A) problems; misleading
B) uses; accurate
C) inconsistencies; correct
D) enhancements; additional
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) According to the text, easily observable characteristics such as race SHOULD NOT be used for the purpose of classifying people as suspects because:
A) large groups of innocent people are likely to be harassed as a result.
B) suspects may mask themselves to obscure or alter visible characteristics.
C) these characteristics can change over time.
D) these characteristics are listed in identifying documents.
Q2) Studies found that profilers were _____ than other people at guessing some characteristics of murder perpetrators. The overall accuracy rates of their profiles were _____.
A) slightly better; pretty low
B) slightly better; pretty high
C) less accurate; still high
D) significantly better; amazingly high
Q3) The distinctive, personal aspect of the crime that presumably reveals the personality of the killer is known as a(n):
A) attribution.
B) anchor.
C) biological marker.
D) signature.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain the voir dire process.
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) April displays conventional values, with relatively inflexible viewpoints, generally identifying with authority figures and finding weakness to be intolerable. One might consider her personality to be that of:
A) holding an internal locus of control.
B) maintaining an external focus of control.
C) believing in a just world.
D) being authoritarian.
Q2) According to the text, research completed by Olczak, Kaplan, and Penrod (1991) revealed that seasoned lawyers performed _____ students when selecting favorable juries.
A) slightly better than B) less well than C) no better than D) significantly better than
Q3) A judge _____ accept(s) the challenges put forth by attorneys regarding jury selection.
A) never
B) sometimes C) always D) is obligated to
Page 20
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Comparing two high-profile cases of "scientific jury selection" -- the "Harrisburg Seven" in Pennsylvania in 1972 and OJ Simpson in 1995 -- most people who know the cases can agree that:
A) both cases represent a triumph of scientific jury selection.
B) both cases demonstrate a failure of scientific jury selection.
C) scientific jury selection failed in one case and triumphed in the other.
D) neither case is a good example of scientific jury selection.
Q2) According to the text, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) Different jurors exposed to the same evidence might interpret it differently and come to opposite conclusions.
B) If evidence alone decided the disposition of the case, jury selection would not be important.
C) There are clear and strong correlations between juror personality characteristics and their verdicts.
D) Trial consultants use social scientific methods to help attorneys with jury selection.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Research is an important part of understanding how eyewitness accounts are derived. As such, a range of factors are often considered. Those factors that are within the control of the justice system are:
A) system variables.
B) dependent variables.
C) independent variables.
D) estimator variables.
Q2) According to the text, what we generally see and remember is impacted by what we expect to see. This tendency to maintain widely held beliefs about a sequence of expected behaviors is referred to as:
A) retrieval inhibition.
B) scripts.
C) meta-analysis.
D) unconscious transference.
Q3) As described in the text, techniques for refreshing witness memories include:
A) hypnosis and cognitive interview.
B) hypnosis and hypnotic hypernesia.
C) lineups and photo spreads.
D) lineups and meta-analysis.
23
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Cutler, Penrod, and Dexter (1990) conducted several experiments exposing mock jurors to expert testimony about the accuracy of eyewitnesses. The authors of this study found that participants who were NOT exposed to the expert testimony:
A) underestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
B) tended to side with the prosecution.
C) overestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
D) tended to side with the defense.
Q2) When an eyewitness is really confident about what he or she saw, this confidence:
A) has no effect on jurors.
B) is strongly correlated with accuracy.
C) is likely to increase over time.
D) has no effect on judges.
Q3) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Phillip is standing trial for robbery. His overall ability to adequately take care of himself and his ability to understand what is going on at trial has come into question. Before he goes to trial, it is important to assess whether he is:
A) mentally unstable.
B) too poor to pay for an attorney.
C) competent to stand trial.
D) has realistic chances for an acquittal.
Q2) Competence to stand trial demands that the accused:
A) cannot have a severe mental disorder.
B) cannot suffer from a psychosis.
C) cannot be intellectually disabled.
D) meets minimum standards to cooperate with their attorney.
Q3) According to the text, even if the accused is deemed incompetent to stand trial, he or she may receive treatment to become competent, in the legal sense. Restoration to competency happens for _____ of incompetent defendants.
A) about half
B) a moderate number
C) the vast majority
D) the rare few
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) In the case of _____, the Supreme Court held that separate psychological evaluations of competency to waive one's rights to counsel or plead guilty are not required once a defendant has been found competent to stand trial.
A) Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
B) United States v. Charters (1988)
C) Dusky v. United States (1960)
D) Godinez v. Moran (1993)
Q2) According to the information presented in Chapter 8, which of the following is FALSE regarding competency to stand trial?
A) A majority of incompetent defendants are eventually restored to competency.
B) Judges agree with the decisions of competence evaluators most of the time.
C) A majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent.
D) Defendants can be medicated against their will in order to restore competence.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Mens rea refers to _____, whereas actus reus refers to _____.
A) committing a crime; a guilty mind
B) vicarious learning; a criminal act
C) specific deterrence; general deterrence
D) a guilty mind; a criminal act
Q2) According to the text, those found not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) generally spend _____ time in secure mental hospitals than they would have served in prison had they been found guilty.
A) less to equal
B) equal to more
C) less
D) more
Q3) When determining insanity, the courts rely on:
A) clinical psychologists.
B) expert testimony.
C) expert witnesses.
D) defense attorneys.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Insanity refers to the defendant's state of mind:
A) during the trial process.
B) at the time the crime was committed.
C) between the time of the crime and the time of trial.
D) before the crime was committed.
Q2) In a majority of states that allow the use of the insanity defense, the burden of proof is placed on the _____ by the _____ standard.
A) defense; preponderance of the evidence
B) prosecution; clear and convincing evidence
C) prosecution; preponderance of the evidence
D) defense; beyond a reasonable doubt
Q3) Malingering refers to:
A) an inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) exaggerating or faking a mental disorder.
C) having a mental illness and using it as a basis for an insanity defense.
D) having a mental illness and not raising this fact at trial.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) The text indicates that one possible useful application of batterer typology is to:
A) develop targeted interventions.
B) engage victim advocacy groups.
C) write a self-help manual for victims.
D) None of the above are useful applications.
Q2) Statistics noted in the text indicate that serious violence perpetrated by intimate partners is _____ to happen against women.
A) more likely
B) less likely
C) equally as likely
D) unlikely
Q3) Rape shield laws were put in place to prevent lawyers from delving into the sexual histories of _____ during the trial.
A) the defendant
B) the alleged victim
C) the alleged perpetrator
D) all parties involved
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with rape trauma syndrome?
A) Depression.
B) Anxiety.
C) Self-blame.
D) Impulsivity.
Q2) According to the text, nearly _____ of women who are raped will exhibit all of the clinical signs of PTSD.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
Q3) Studies that analyzed verdicts reached in cases of battered women who killed their husbands or partners, found that _____ of the women were convicted, and expert testimony on BWS _____.
A) very few; made a substantial impact on jurors
B) the vast majority; did not have much influence
C) about half; was crucial
D) none; made all the difference
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q3) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Elizabeth Loftus is well known for her research on false memories. In one experiment, she created a memory in participants of being lost within a mall. Of the participants in the experiment, _____ "remembered" most or all of the implanted event.
A) 5%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) It is important to avoid bias when interviewing a possible victim or witness. This is particularly true with children. One technique that may be used to avoid bias when interviewing children is the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) Investigative Interview Protocol. The NICHD Protocol aims to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:
A) guide interviewers away from biased questions.
B) guide interviewers toward questioning that may elicit more truthful responses from children.
C) use open-ended questions.
D) use closed-ended questions.
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) In the case of Maryland v. Craig (1990), the Supreme Court allowed the use of _____for child witnesses.
A) hearsay testimony
B) closed-circuit television (CCTV)
C) coercive questioning
D) NICHD Investigative Interview protocol
Q2) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.
A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively
B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently
C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently
D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively
Q3) In sexual abuse cases, jurors are more likely to believe _____ because younger children _____.
A) younger children than adolescents; are less likely to lie or make things up
B) younger children than adolescents; seem unsophisticated about sexual matters
C) adolescents than younger children; tend to easily mix reality and fantasy
D) adolescents than younger children; could have been easily misled by adults
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
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Q1) Matthew's parents divorced after a tumultuous marriage. It was difficult for him to understand what happened because he had become somewhat accustomed to all of the fighting. In addition, the divorce resulted in a difficult financial situation, and he had to change schools. Despite these circumstances, Matthew made great strides, finished high school with high grades, and completed college in three years. He possesses personality traits that help him overcome difficult situations. This group of personality traits is referred to as:
A) overcompensation.
B) overachieving.
C) resilience.
D) stability.
Q2) According to the text, custody arrangements reveal that sole physical custody is granted to the mother approximately _____ of the time.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of the best interest of the child standard (BICS)?
A) Vagueness of the criteria for custody decisions.
B) Possible escalation of conflicts and litigation between parents.
C) Asking courts to predict the future.
D) Presumption that mother is entitled to custody.
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that "custody decisions cannot turn on racial considerations?"
A) Painter v. Bannister
B) Palmore v. Sidoti
C) Myers v. Otto
D) Boswell v. Boswell
Q3) Under the doctrine Pater familias used in English common law prior to the nineteenth century:
A) fathers were automatically granted custody of their children.
B) mothers were automatically granted custody of their children.
C) the children of the divorcing parents decided what parent they preferred to live with.
D) best interests of the child were taken into account when deciding custody.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
Q2) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Research evidence suggests that, when judges and juries disagree on a verdict:
A) judges are more lenient.
B) juries are more lenient.
C) they agree to disagree.
D) These disagreements never happen.
Q2) According to the text, juries that required unanimity to reach a decision, deliberate _____, and are also more likely to _____.
A) faster; consider evidence more carefully
B) longer; hang
C) in closed quarters; allow videotaping of the deliberation process
D) faster; hang
Q3) Interestingly, if a defendant is injured in the course of committing a crime:
A) jurors are more likely to hand down a harsh sentence.
B) jurors are more likely to hand down a lenient sentence.
C) judges and jurors are more likely to disagree about a sentence.
D) judges and jurors are more likely to agree about a sentence.
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Compared with 12-person juries, 6-person juries:
A) deliberate longer.
B) generate more arguments.
C) are less predictable.
D) recall evidence more accurately.
Q2) For centuries, English law dictated that a jury should have _____ people. In the United States, the minimum constitutionally allowed number of jurors is _____.
A) 12; 6
B) 8; 12
C) 8; 6
D) 6; 12
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the deliberation process?
A) Closed conflict.
B) Orientation.
C) Reconciliation.
D) Open conflict.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) The strategy whereby psychologists predict future violence that does not entail specific rules of how to collect information is called:
A) unstructured clinical judgment.
B) scientific approach.
C) experimental approach.
D) observational study.
Q2) Predictive markers that change over time are referred to as:
A) dynamic markers.
B) risk management markers.
C) historical markers.
D) case markers.
Q3) _____ was the first person to be subjected to the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws).
A) Michael Crane
B) Thomas Barefoot
C) Prosenjit Poddar
D) Leroy Hendricks
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Regarding risk assessment, which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out not to be violent.
B) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out not to be violent.
C) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out to be violent.
D) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out to be violent.
Q2) Actuarial instruments _____ clinical judgement in predicting violence, though scientists raised some concerns about _____.
A) clearly outperform; their impersonal nature
B) clearly outperform; their generalizability
C) do not outperform; the usefulness of either method
D) do not outperform; the questionable scientific techniques involved
Q3) The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:
A) humanitarian advocacy.
B) dehospitalization.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) legislative reforms.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) It has been found that in jobs dominated by men, women are _____ to experience sexual harassment when compared to other working groups.
A) less likely
B) more likely
C) equally as likely as men
D) similarly likely
Q2) How people actually think and behave is of utmost importance to psychologists. This is particularly true when considering how fairness is assessed. For example, Francisco worked twice as many hours as Ben did and so Francisco got paid twice what Ben got paid. This type of relationship between contributions to an effort and the obtained rewards refers to:
A) distributive justice.
B) procedural justice.
C) interpersonal justice.
D) equal-status contact.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies show some clear signs that modern forms of racism do exist. For example, one study finds that:
A) subjects report liking Black people slightly less than liking White people, and their facial muscles confirm this reality.
B) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
C) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that they like Black people significantly more than they report.
D) subjects report liking Black people much less than liking White people, but their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
Q2) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The United States currently incarcerates _____ for a _____ any other industrialized democracy in the world.
A) a larger percentage of individuals; longer period of time than B) a larger percentage of individuals but; shorter period of time than C) a smaller percentage of individuals; period approximately similar to that of D) a smaller percentage of individuals; much shorter period of time than
Q2) James was charged with committing a robbery with a group of his peers. He had never committed any crimes and was caught up in a situation that he could not see any way out of. The attributions that would represent the above scenario include_____ and
A) internal causes; controllability
B) internal causes; stability
C) external causes; controllability
D) external causes; uncontrollability
Q3) It was not until the _____ that prisons began to reflect the influence of medicine and social sciences.
A) 1800s
B) 1850s
C) 1900s
D) 2000s
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Studies find that there are several factors that lead to disparities in sentencing decisions. Which of the following is NOT one of these findings?
A) Male judges give significantly lighter sentences to women than to men.
B) For violent crimes, women receive shorter sentences than men.
C) African American male juveniles receive harsher sentences in politically conservative jurisdictions.
D) Young Hispanic men are least likely to be incarcerated for their crimes.
Q2) The largest single group of inmates in federal prisons, constituting almost half of all federal prisoners, consists of individuals who have been convicted of:
A) murder.
B) drug offenses.
C) bank robbery.
D) tax evasion.
Q3) The Supreme Court abandoned the rigidity of mandatory sentencing in the case of:
A) United States v. Booker.
B) United States v. Ruback.
C) United States v. McCarthy.
D) United States v. Wroblewksi.
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Mitigating factors in capital cases are characteristics that make:
A) sure the death penalty will be fast and painless.
B) the need for execution clear.
C) a case for humane execution.
D) execution less appropriate.
Q2) Following Gregg v. Georgia and its companion cases, all death sentences are:
A) upheld.
B) considered unconstitutional.
C) deemed appropriate.
D) reviewed by state supreme courts.
Q3) Research on the possibility of errors in death penalty cases has examined every capital case in the United States over a 22-year period (Liebman et al., 2000). It was found that _____ of death sentences were reversed because of serious errors during trial.
A) 28%
B) 48%
C) 68%
D) 88%
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The brutalization effect refers to the:
A) tendency of juries to give more weight to aggravating factors in capital cases.
B) conclusion that executions increase murder rates.
C) suggestion that brutal methods of execution like the electric chair decrease murder rates.
D) likelihood that repeat offenders are more likely to be sentenced to death.
Q2) Baldus, Woodworth, and Pulaski (1990) analyzed 594 homicides in Georgia and found that blacks convicted of killing whites were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases, while whites convicted of killing blacks were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases.
A) 100%; 25%
B) 22%; 3%
C) 31%; 52%
D) 50%; 63%
Q3) In Roper v. Simmons (2005), the Supreme Court abolished the death penalty for:
A) the severely mentally ill.
B) the mentally disabled.
C) women.
D) juvenile offenders.
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