Introduction to Dentistry
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Dentistry offers students an overview of the dental profession, exploring its history, scope, and the vital role oral health plays in overall well-being. This course introduces fundamental concepts in dental anatomy, oral diseases, preventive care, and common dental procedures. Students gain insight into the responsibilities and ethical standards of dental practitioners, the structure of dental teams, and the pathways to a career in dentistry. Emphasis is placed on patient communication, professional conduct, and advancements in dental technology, preparing students for further study and a deeper understanding of oral healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Illustrated Dental Embryology Histology and Anatomy 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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Chapter 1: Face and Neck Regions
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Q1) The chin is the major feature of the _____ region of the face.
A) zygomatic
B) infraorbital
C) mental
D) oral
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following orofacial structures is located in the midline of the face or neck?
A) Philtrum
B) Submandibular salivary gland
C) Naris and ala
D) Parotid salivary gland
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following structures can be palpated in the anterior midline of the neck?
A) Thyroid cartilage
B) Parathyroid glands
C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) Submandibular salivary gland
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Oral Cavity and Pharynx
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Q1) Which of the following folds or grooves of tissue are located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Plica fimbriatae
B) Labiomental groove
C) Sublingual folds
D) Labial commissure
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning Fordyce spots is correct?
A) Composed of salivary gland tissue
B) Located on the attached gingiva
C) Composed of sebum from sebaceous tissue
D) Indicate a disease state in the tissue
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following orofacial structures contains the alveolus of a tooth?
A) Vestibular fornix
B) Alveolar process
C) Zygomatic arch
D) Retromolar pad
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development
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Q1) Found in early prenatal development,the neural tube will form in the future which of the following structures?
A) Heart
B) Spinal cord
C) Face
D) Digestive tract
Answer: B
Q2) What is the prenatal organ that joins the pregnant woman and the developing embryo during the second week of prenatal development?
A) Placenta
B) Amniotic cavity
C) Yolk sac
D) Primitive streak
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Face and Neck Development
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Q1) The medial nasal processes are involved directly in the formation of the embryo's _____ of the nose during prenatal development.
A) bridge
B) sides
C) bridge and sides
D) nasal placodes
Q2) The mandibular arch during the embryonic period of prenatal development is the:
A) fusion of the two paired mandibular processes.
B) swelling found superior to the stomodeum.
C) structure that gives rise to the lateral nasal process.
D) posterior part of the hard palate.
Q3) What is the first event in the development of the face during the later part of the fourth week of prenatal development?
A) Disintegration of the oropharyngeal membrane
B) Paired mandibular processes fusion at the midline to form the mandibular arch
C) Folding of the embryonic structure into a tubal one
D) Thickening of the facial placodes
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Chapter 5: Orofacial Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the developmental disturbance of cleft palate,which of the following statements is correct?
A) May be isolated or associated with other abnormalities.
B) Isolated forms of cleft palate are more common than cleft lip.
C) Isolated forms are more common in males.
D) Cleft uvula is the most complicated example.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning tongue development is correct?
A) Tongue development begins as a triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar.
B) The copula is formed from the fusion of mesenchyme of mainly the second parts of the fourth branchial arches.
C) The foramen cecum is the beginning of the thymus.
D) The tongue develops during the eighth week of prenatal development.
Q3) Around the lingual swellings,the cells degenerate,forming a sulcus,which frees the body of the tongue from the floor of the mouth,except for the attachment of the:
A) nasal septum.
B) tuberculum impar.
C) copula.
D) lingual frenum.
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Chapter 6: Tooth Development and Eruption
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Q1) Lack of initiation within the dental lamina results in the absence of a single tooth or multiple teeth,producing:
A) supernumerary teeth.
B) anodontia.
C) dens in dente.
D) germination.
Q2) How many buds in the dental lamina appear along each dental arch during odontogenesis of the primary dentition?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q3) Which of the following embryonic structures becomes the dentinoenamel junction during completion of tooth development?
A) Inner cells of the dental papilla
B) Outer cells of the dental papilla
C) Outer enamel epithelium of the enamel organ
D) Basement membrane between the enamel organ and dental papilla
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Chapter 7: Cells
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Q1) How many phases are within mitosis or cell division?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q2) During what phase of mitosis does the chromatin condense within the cell?
A) Metaphase
B) Prophase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
Q3) Which of the following organelles in a cell can appear microscopically either smooth or rough?
A) Golgi complex
B) Lysosomes
C) Cytoskeleton
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 8: Basic Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following tissue types covers and lines both the external and internal body surfaces?
A) Adipose
B) Connective tissue
C) Cartilage
D) Epithelium
Q2) Anchoring collagen fibers are found:
A) between the lamina densa and the lamina lucida.
B) between the epithelial cell surface and lamina lucida.
C) in the connective tissue adjacent to the lamina densa.
D) in the epithelium adjacent to the lamina densa.
Q3) Which of the following are chemical mediators of the immune response produced by B and T cells?
A) Platelets
B) Immunoglobulins
C) Immunogens
D) Cytokines
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Chapter 9: Oral Mucosa
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Q1) Which is the most superficial layer of the lamina propria of oral mucosa?
A) Dense layer
B) Capillary plexus
C) Submucosa
D) Papillary layer
Q2) What is the most common cell in the lamina propria of oral mucosa?
A) Mast cell
B) Fibroblast
C) Macrophages
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) The mucogingival junction is absent from which of the following oral surfaces?
A) Buccal surface of the maxillary arch
B) Palatal surface of the maxillary arch
C) Facial surface of the mandibular arch
D) Lingual surface of the mandibular arch
Q4) The attached gingiva of the oral cavity consists of which type of oral mucosa?
A) Alveolar mucosa
B) Masticatory mucosa
C) Specialized mucosa
D) Lining mucosa
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Chapter 10: Gingival and Dentogingival Junctional Tissue
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Q1) The interdental gingiva assumes a nonvisible concave form between the facial and lingual gingival surfaces called the:
A) col.
B) papilla.
C) free gingival crest.
D) gingival apex of the contour.
Q2) Which of the following gingival tissue lines the floor of the gingival sulcus in a healthy situation?
A) Sulcular epithelium
B) Junctional epithelium
C) Attached gingiva
D) Marginal gingiva
Q3) When the deeper tissue of the periodontium is affected by periodontal disease,what is this condition now considered to be?
A) Gingival hyperplasia
B) Gingival recession
C) Gingivitis
D) Periodontitis
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck Structures
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Q1) Which of the following can never be palpated during an extraoral examination of a patient?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Lymph nodes
C) Parathyroid glands
D) Parotid gland
Q2) Which of the following marks the periodontopathogens for destruction by white blood cells?
A) Basal striations
B) Cross-reactive protein
C) Myoepithelial cell
D) Thyroxine
Q3) Which of the following ducts are connected to the intercalated ducts in the lobules of the salivary gland?
A) Intercalated
B) Striated
C) Excretory
D) Both the intercalated and striated ducts
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Chapter 12: Enamel
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Q1) Enamel _____form the crystalline structural unit of enamel.
A) tubules
B) cuticles
C) granules
D) rods
Q2) The ______ refer(s) to incremental lines that stain brown in preparations of mature enamel.
A) Tomes granular layer
B) Hunter-Schreger bands
C) lines of Retzius
D) imbrication lines of von Ebner
Q3) What is the approximate amount of inorganic material in mature enamel?
A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 70%
D) 96%
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Chapter 13: Dentin and Pulp
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Q1) Dentin in the mature tooth is produced as a result of secretion by:
A) cementoblasts.
B) fibroblasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) odontoblasts.
Q2) Which of the following pulp structures is formed when Hertwig epithelial root sheath encounters a blood vessel?
A) Pulp horn
B) Pulp chamber
C) Apical foramen
D) Accessory canal
Q3) Secondary dentin usually forms within the tooth:
A) after the completion of the apical foramen.
B) before the completion of the apical foramen.
C) nearest to the dentinoenamel junction.
D) in response to tooth trauma.
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Chapter 14: Periodontium: Cementum, Alveolar Process, and Periodontal Ligament
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Q1) Which of the following tissue types is most likely the source of cementogenic cells in adults who have undergone root planning?
A) Bone marrow
B) Periodontal ligament
C) Residual cementum patches
D) Alveolar process
Q2) Sharpey fibers are located in which of the following types of dental tissue?
A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Pulp
Q3) The most common cell in the periodontal ligament is the:
A) cementoblast.
B) fibroblast.
C) odontoclast.
D) osteoclast.
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Chapter 15: Overview of Dentitions
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is noted in a patient during the primary dentition period as compared with the permanent dentition period?
A) Larger overall crowns
B) Lighter enamel color
C) Longer roots
D) Greater number of teeth
Q2) Which are considered transitional teeth in the permanent dentition?
A) Incisors
B) Canines
C) First molars
D) Second molars
Q3) Which of the following surfaces of a tooth are not difficult to access during dental procedures as well as home care?
A) Facial or lingual surfaces
B) Line angles
C) Proximal surfaces
D) Interproximal space
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Chapter 16: Permanent Anterior Teeth
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Q1) A cingulum in varying developmental levels within the permanent dentition can be found on the lingual surfaces of:
A) only incisors.
B) only canines.
C) all anterior teeth.
D) all posterior teeth.
Q2) The incisal ridge of the permanent mandibular central incisors is usually at ____degrees to the labiolingual axis of the crown.
A) 20
B) 45
C) 60
D) 90
Q3) Which of the following can be a risk factor for periodontal disease on the permanent maxillary lateral incisors?
A) Diastema
B) Microdontia
C) Accessory cusps
D) Linguogingival groove
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Chapter 17: Permanent Posterior Teeth
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Q1) The eruption of tooth #29 usually occurs between _____ years.
A) 7 and 8
B) 8 and 9
C) 9 and 10
D) 11 and 12
Q2) Where are the root branches located on tooth #12?
A) Cervical third
B) Middle third
C) Apical third
D) This tooth does not have root branches
Q3) Which of the following features helps distinguish the permanent right permanent maxillary second premolar from the left?
A) Mesial marginal groove present
B) Differing position of contact areas
C) Lingual cusp offset to mesial
D) Central groove shorter on its mesial part
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Chapter 18: Primary Dentition
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Q1) How many erupted primary teeth does a 3-year-old child usually have?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 18
D) 20
Q2) What is the correct name given to the teeth designated as "C" and "H"?
A) Primary maxillary central incisors
B) Primary maxillary lateral incisors
C) Primary maxillary canines
D) Primary maxillary first molars
Q3) Which of the following features is found on a primary molar's roots as compared to the roots of a permanent molar?
A) Shorter than crown length
B) Wider mesiodistally
C) Flare is noted near the apex
D) Fewer accessory canals
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Chapter 19: Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) The articular eminence of the temporomandibular joint is a smooth,rounded protuberance on the inferior aspect of the zygomatic process and is positioned _____ to the articular fossa.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) lateral
Q2) The growth center of the temporomandibular joint consists of _____underneath the periosteum on the articulating surface of the mandibular condyle.
A) elastic cartilage
B) cancellous bone
C) hyaline cartilage
D) compact bone
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered a symptom or a sign of a temporomandibular disorder?
A) Limited mandibular opening
B) Chronic joint tenderness
C) Fever and sweating
D) Swelling and muscle spasms
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Chapter 20: Occlusion
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Q1) How would the maxillary incisors be described within a permanent dentition case of a Class III using the Angle classification of malocclusion?
A) Flared mesially
B) Complete crossbite
C) Inclined labially
D) Protrude facially
Q2) Which profile is present with a Class III malocclusion in a permanent dentition?
A) Prognathic
B) Mesognathic
C) Retrognathic
D) Mesognathic or retrognathic
Q3) Which of the following terms is the end point of closure of the mandible?
A) Lateral occlusion
B) Centric occlusion
C) Centric relation
D) Group function
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