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Introduction to Databases provides students with a foundational understanding of database systems, including core concepts such as data modeling, relational algebra, and the structure of relational databases. The course explores database design using Entity-Relationship (ER) models, and covers SQL (Structured Query Language) for data definition, manipulation, and query processing. Students will also be introduced to concepts of normalization, data integrity, and security, as well as a brief overview of alternative data models such as NoSQL databases. Practical assignments and projects are used to reinforce theoretical knowledge and develop hands-on skills in designing, implementing, and managing databases.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Database Management 12th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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Q1) A relational database establishes the relationships between entities by means of a common field.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT:
A) data definitions.
B) processing logic.
C) rules or constraints.
D) data structures.
Answer: B
Q3) Discuss why alternative IS development approaches have evolved, and provide an overview of a couple of these methodologies.
Answer: The SDLC is often criticized for being too long from the time of system start until a finished product is delivered. As such, organizations have begun to adopt rapid application development techniques. One technique is prototyping, where a system is designed as a prototype, given to the user for testing and then corrected as needed. This is an iterative process. Another methodology is Agile software development, which focuses more on people than processes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data, rather than processes, are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When systems are automatically generated and maintained, quality is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The maximum criminality of a relationship is the maximum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The most common types of entities are:
A) strong entities.
B) weak entities.
C) associative entities.
D) smush entities.
Answer: A

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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types is called:
A) generalization.
B) specialization.
C) normalization.
D) extrapulation.
Answer: A
Q2) Discuss how attributes are assigned in a supertype/subtype hierarchy.
Answer: Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level that is possible in the hierarchy. For example, in the following diagram, one would assign the name to the person supertype so that it could be shared by as many subtypes as possible.
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Q3) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes.
A) disjointedness constraint
B) disjoint rule
C) partial specialization
D) total specialization
Answer: A
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Q1) The relational data model does, at this time, directly support subtype/supertype relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a ________ dependency.
A) partial key-based
B) partial functional
C) cross key
D) merged relation
Q3) Discuss how to map a unary many-to-many relationship.
Q4) Understanding the steps involved in transforming EER diagrams into relations is important because:
A) one must be able to check the output of a CASE tool.
B) there are rarely legitimate alternatives from which to choose.
C) CASE tools can model any situation.
D) CASE tools model hypothetical business problems.
Q5) Discuss the two major occasions when you benefit from using normalization.
Q6) Discuss how to map a unary one-to-many relationship.
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Q1) Security is one advantage of partitioning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a sequential file, the records are stored in sequence according to a primary key value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that field is called a:
A) default value.
B) null value.
C) range control.
D) gurand.
Q4) A(n) ________ is a field of data used to locate a related field or record.
A) key
B) index
C) lock
D) pointer
Q5) Discuss the rationale behind data volume and usage analysis.
Q6) What is parallel query processing and how is it useful?
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Q1) Which of the following finds all groups meeting stated conditions?
A) Select
B) Where
C) Having
D) Find
Q2) What three clauses are contained in most SQL retrieval statements?
Q3) Count(*) tallies only those rows that contain a value, while Count counts all rows.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The following query totals sales for each salesperson. Select salesperson_id, sum(sales) from salesperson group by salesperson_id; A)True
B)False
Q5) The CREATE SCHEMA DDL command is used to create a table. A)True B)False
Q6) Discuss the pros and cons of using dynamic views.
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Q1) In which of the following situations would one have to use an outer join in order to obtain the desired results?
A) A report is desired that lists all customers who placed an order.
B) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders.
C) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders during the most recent month, and includes customers who did not place an order during the month (their total will be zero).
D) There is never a situation that requires only an outer join.
Q2) A type of join where a table is joined to itself is called a(n):
A) ternary join.
B) self-join.
C) unnatural join.
D) pinned join.
Q3) A named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs are called:
A) stored procedures.
B) treatments.
C) triggers.
D) trapdoors.
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Q1) ________ is/are any of several classes of software that allow an application to interoperate with other software without requiring the user to understand all software involved.
A) User interface enhancers
B) Middleware
C) Interface managers
D) MPP
Q2) A DTD is a language used for defining XML databases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stripping an XML document means storing each element of an XML schema in a relational table and using other tables to store the elements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the distribution of application logic components across clients and servers in the client/server environment.
Q5) Three-tier architectures generally result in higher long-term costs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Rotating the view of a multidimensional database for a particular data point is called data:
A) cubing.
B) drill-down.
C) dicing.
D) pivoting.
Q2) For performance reasons, it may be necessary to define more than one fact table for a star schema.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Grain and duration have a direct impact on the size of ________ tables.
A) selection
B) grain
C) fact
D) figure
Q4) The enterprise data model controls the phased evolution of the data warehouse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the difference between transient data and periodic data.
Q6) What are some approaches to handling slowly changing dimensions?
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Q1) The process of combining data from various sources into a single table or view is called:
A) extracting.
B) updating.
C) selecting.
D) joining.
Q2) A data governance committee is always made up of high-ranking government officials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the characteristics of data after ETL?
Q4) A method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture is called ________ extract.
A) static
B) incremental
C) partial
D) update-driven
Q5) Joining is often complicated by problems such as errors in source data.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) NoSQL systems allow ________ by incorporating commodity servers that can be easily added to the architectural solution.
A) scaling down
B) scaling out
C) scaling up
D) scaling over
Q2) Analytics are typically divided into three major categories (i.e. descriptive analytics). Describe each category and provide an example question that each category would address.
Q3) Using data to predict events is an example of predictive analytics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Big data databases tend to sacrifice consistency for availability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) HDFS is an acronym for Hadoop distributed file system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the Five Vs of Big Data.
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Q1) The actions that must be taken to ensure data integrity is maintained during multiple simultaneous transactions are called ________ actions.
A) logging
B) concurrency control
C) transaction authorization
D) multiple management
Q2) Most data outages in organizations are caused by hardware failures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The restoration manager allows the DBMS to restore the database to a correct condition and restart processing transactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ is a DBMS module that restores the database to a correct condition when a failure occurs.
A) backup facility
B) recovery manager
C) restart facility
D) transaction logger
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Q1) Which of the following is true of data replication?
A) Reduced storage requirements
B) Slower response
C) Node decoupling
D) Requires Oracle
Q2) What is horizontal and vertical partitioning?
Q3) A remote unit of work allows updates at the single remote computer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS.
A) distributed UOW
B) join SQL statement
C) distributed request
D) data transfer command
Q5) Which of the following characterizes homogeneous environments?
A) Contains simple pathways
B) Same DBMS used at all locations
C) Some users require only local access
D) Cross-linked systems easily communicate
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Q1) According to the UML Notation Guide, complete means:
A) a descendant may come from more than one supertype.
B) a descendant may be not descended from more than one of the subclasses.
C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.
D) the list of objects is NOT stable.
Q2) What is an association and an association role?
Q3) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In aggregation, some of the operations of the whole automatically apply to its parts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between an abstract class and a concrete class?
Q6) Which of the following operations does NOT alter the state of an object?
A) Update
B) Query
C) Constructor
D) Class-Scope Update
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