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Introduction to Behavioral Science explores the foundational concepts, theories, and methodologies used to understand how individuals and groups think, feel, and act. This course examines the influences of psychology, sociology, economics, and anthropology on human behavior and decision-making processes, both at the individual and collective level. Through the analysis of real-world case studies and experimental findings, students learn how behavioral science insights can be applied to various domains such as health, education, policy-making, and organizational settings. The course also highlights ethical considerations and the importance of scientific rigor in behavioral research.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 14th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Q1) You want to test people's reactions to a new artificial sweetener, so you give them coffee with two different kinds of sweetener.Although you know which sweetener is which, you don't let them know which sweetener they're getting.This type of experiment is called a __________ experiment.
A) double-blind
B) single-blind
C) placebo effect
D) placebo bias
Answer: B
Q2) Regarding their research on weight loss, Conlon and his colleagues weighed the participants on a standard digital scale at the beginning of the weight-loss period and once every week until the program ended.This exact procedure being used to represent the participants' weights is referred to as the
A) operational definition.
B) tentative theory.
C) null hypothesis.
D) contingent reinforcer.
Answer: A
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Q1) Areas of the brain that are NOT primarily sensory or motor in function are called the A) somatosensory areas.
B) association cortex.
C) temporal lobes.
D) incidental lobes.
Answer: B
Q2) Which gland is associated with body rhythms and sleep cycles and secretes the hormone melatonin?
A) pituitary
B) pineal
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
Answer: B
Q3) Megan has experienced what appears to be a seizure.So, the doctor affixes electrodes to Megan's scalp in order to obtain a recording of her brain waves and determine whether her brain waves are showing a seizure pattern.The doctor is using a technique known as a(n)__________.
Answer: EEG
electroencephalograph
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Q1) Erica is accustomed to riding her own bicycle.She decides to ride her brother's bike, which is slightly larger.Piaget would call the changes Erica makes in order to ride her brother's bike
A) assimilation.
B) accommodation.
C) conservation.
D) transformation.
Answer: B
Q2) Regarding the intellectual development of infants, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) During the first months of life, babies are able to learn from what they see, make predictions, and search for explanations.
B) Babies as young as eight weeks can imitate actions a day after seeing them.
C) Three- to eight-week-old babies seem to understand that a person's voice and body should be connected.
D) Although infants have not yet developed crystallized intelligence, they do have a remarkable capability for rapid learning, or fluid intelligence.
Answer: B
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Q1) One's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced through the creation of perceptional sets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chris lost the vision in his left eye in an accident.Regarding driving and depth perception, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Chris will be unable to drive because he will have no depth perception.
B) Chris will have to rely on monocular depth cues in order to drive.
C) Chris will have difficulty estimating his speed.
D) Chris will find himself braking too soon or too late.
Q3) A ventriloquist is able to convince you that words are coming from his dummy's mouth because the dummy's mouth movements match the timing of the words actually coming from the ventriloquist.The ventriloquist is making use of the perceptual principle of
A) continuation.
B) figure-ground.
C) closure.
D) contiguity.
Q4) Light sensations caused by pressure applied to the eye are referred to as __________.
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Q1) One thing that cocaine, "highway hypnosis," high fever, and meditation all have in common is that they produce
A) hypnagogic images.
B) relaxation.
C) euphoria.
D) ASCs.
Q2) From 1886 to 1906, Coca-Cola contained small amounts of A) alcohol.
B) marijuana.
C) cocaine.
D) morphine.
Q3) Research suggests that meditation, including mild sensory deprivation, is a way to elicit
A) the relaxation response.
B) lucid dreaming.
C) cataplexy.
D) anhedonia.
Q4) Of the two basic states of sleep, the one that increases after physical exertion, helps us recover from bodily fatigue, and is dream free about 90 percent of the time is __________ sleep.
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Q1) The learned ability to respond differently to various stimuli is known as A) stimulus degeneralization.
B) stimulus discrimination.
C) positive transfer of responding.
D) negative transfer of responding.
Q2) Regarding the experiments using intracranial self-stimulation, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) When rats self-administer nicotine, they are even more likely to engage in intracranial self-stimulation because nicotine further increases the sensitivity of the pleasure pathways.
B) After the rats had pressed the intracranial self-stimulation lever to exhaustion, they were less likely to press the lever again once they were revived.
C) Intracranial self-stimulation involves electrical stimulation of the limbic system of the brain.
D) Intracranial self-stimulation is considered to be a primary reinforcer.
Q3) After a response has been extinguished, it will often reappear after a short time has passed.This is referred to as a(n)__________.
Q4) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to __________.
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Q1) Explain the space and time capacities of short-term memory, the effects of chunking and maintenance rehearsal on these capacities, and the best method for moving information from short-term into long-term memory.
Q2) Which subpart of declarative memory records personal experiences that are linked with specific times and places in one's life?
A) episodic memory
B) eidetic memory
C) semantic memory
D) procedural memory
Q3) The technique that uses the process of redintegration to improve the memory of eyewitnesses is called
A) episodic priming.
B) the keyword method.
C) the cognitive interview.
D) eidetic imaging.
Q4) According to economist Jesse Shapiro, the more positive fictional commercials we see, the less likely we are to remember an actual negative experience with a product, a process he referred to as "memory __________."
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Q1) An advertisement states that job applicants must have a B.S.degree in chemistry and three letters of recommendation.This illustrates a __________ concept.
A) prototypical
B) relational
C) disjunctive
D) conjunctive
Q2) According to Psychologist Janet Davidson, the three abilities involved in insight are
A) selective attention, convergent thinking, and divergent thinking.
B) cognitive assimilation, selective attention, and selective encoding.
C) selective attention, selective comparison, and convergent thinking.
D) selective encoding, selective combination, and selective comparison.
Q3) The denotative meaning of a word is
A) its stereotypical definition.
B) its emotional or personal meaning.
C) its dictionary definition.
D) the exact spelling and pronunciation of any word.
Q4) Fixations and functional fixedness are specific types of mental sets.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Because the gifted child may become bored in classes designed for average children, many schools now provide for these extremely bright children special __________ classes.
Q2) Will has a mental age of nine and a chronological age of ten.Will's IQ is __________.
Q3) Regarding the twin studies on intelligence, twins who develop from a single egg and have the exact same genes are known as __________ twins.
A) dizygotic
B) fraternal
C) identical
D) nonidentical
Q4) People with intellectual disabilities
A) can be hurt by rejection, teasing, and ridicule.
B) respond warmly to love and acceptance.
C) have a right to self-respect and a place in the community.
D) are characterized by all of these.
Q5) Heredity does seem to impose upper limits on IQ, even under ideal conditions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Regarding "yo-yo dieting," which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A) "Yo-yo dieting" lowers the body's set point for fat.
B) "Yo-yo dieting" tends to speed up the body's rate of metabolism.
C) "Yo-yo dieting" actually makes it harder to lose weight when dieting and easier to regain weight when the dieting ends.
D) "Yo-yo dieting" is characterized by all of these statements.
Q2) Regarding factors that influence eating, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The availability of a variety of tasty foods can lead to overeating and obesity in societies where such foods are plentiful.
B) Leptin tends to enhance the tongue's sensitivity to sweet tastes.
C) If you eat too much of any particular food, it will become less appealing.
D) The presence of others can affect whether people overeat or undereat depending on how much everyone else is eating and how important it is to impress them.
Q3) Recordings of brain activity show that it is impossible to experience positive and negative emotions at the same time.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nonconsenting persons are the focus of which of the following paraphilic disorders?
A) sexual masochism disorder andsexual sadism disorder
B) fetishistic disorder andtransvestic disorder
C) pedophilic disorder andexhibitionistic disorder
D) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a sexual dysfunction?
A) paraphilic disorders
B) sexual pain disorders
C) orgasm disorders
D) desire disorders
Q3) Which of the following is one of the androgens secreted mainly by the male sex organs and is responsible for the development of many male sexual characteristics?
A) thyroxin
B) epinephrine
C) testosterone
D) progestin
Q4) Explain how gender role stereotyping and rape myths may encourage the act of rape.
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Q1) Grace has a positive self-evaluation that is not securely held.We can predict that she will
A) show a lack of confidence initially and in all of her interactions with others.
B) at first seem confident but will quickly become defensive when challenged.
C) be angry and defensive in all her interactions with others.
D) at first show a lack of confidence but will gradually show more confidence as she interacts with others.
Q2) Which of the following is the most objective measure?
A) structured interview
B) projective test
C) personality questionnaire
D) behavioral assessment
Q3) In the Minnesota study on reunited twins, many of the twins had similarities in political beliefs, job histories, hobbies, and favorite foods.Explain whether heredity or environment account for these similarities.
Q4) The id resides only in the unconscious level of awareness.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Regarding stress management, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Setting aside time for "me acts," such as loafing, browsing, puttering, playing, and napping is important to prevent stress.
B) Disorganization creates stress.
C) Deliberately doing things at a slower pace will decrease one's stress.
D) Expressing one's feelings to others or in writing tends to increase one's stress.
Q2) A method of managing bodily reactions to stress by visualizing peaceful scenes is called __________.
Q3) If your doctor or therapist tells you that you must lower your LCU score, he or she is trying to directly help you with your
A) blood sugar level.
B) overactive thyroid.
C) parasympathetic overactivity.
D) stress levels.
Q4) Each evening before going to bed, Michelle tightens all the muscles in her feet, then voluntarily relaxes them.Then she tightens all the muscles in her legs, then voluntarily relaxes them.She does this all the way to her head.Michelle is practicing the technique of
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Q1) What percent ofall adults have a specific phobic disorder in any given year?
A) 2.8 percent
B) 5.2 percent
C) 8.7 percent
D) 17.5 percent
Q2) The Freudian explanation of anxiety disorders emphasizes A) the avoidance paradox.
B) learned habits of self-defeating behavior.
C) forbidden sexual and aggressive impulses that threaten a loss of control.
D) the development of a faulty or inaccurate self-image and distorted self-perceptions.
Q3) When an affected person fakes the medical problems of someone in his or her care in order to gain attention, that person would be diagnosed with A) Munchausen syndrome.
B) Prader-Willi syndrome.
C) Munchausen syndrome by proxy.
D) a conversion disorder.
Q4) Delusions and hallucinations are considered negative symptoms of psychosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) By using which of the following could Alba learn to associate a negative emotional response with her undesirable habit of compulsive hair-pulling?
A) operant conditioning
B) escape training
C) aversion therapy
D) conditioned helplessness
Q2) The reduced use of full-time commitment to mental hospitals for the treatment of mental disorders is referred to as __________.
Q3) Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)is currently the most popular approach to nonmedical therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During psychodrama, which of the following involves taking the part of another person to learn how one's own behavior appears from this other person's perspective?
A) reciprocal determinism
B) shaping
C) role reversal
D) transference
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Q1) You usually have strong feelings about an issue, are knowledgeable about it, and think and discuss it often when you have
A) a long-standing habit regarding the issue.
B) cognitive dissonance regarding the issue.
C) conviction about the issue.
D) an expectation about the issue.
Q2) Marian watches Jan's two kids one afternoon while Jan gets a haircut.The next weekend, Marian asks Jan if she will keep her three kids the whole weekend while she and her husband go to her class reunion.According to research on compliance, which statement is most accurate?
A) Jan will most likely refuse Marian's request.
B) Jan will most likely agree to Marian's request.
C) Whether Jan agrees or refuses will depend mainly on the age and temperament of Marian's children.
D) There is no way to predict Jan's decision from the information presented.
Q3) According to the classic study on norms and littering, the cleaner a public area is kept, the more likely people are to "trash" it.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to the textbook, which of the following factors is NOT likely to motivate people to help?
A) feeling a connection to the person in need
B) previous experiences of helping others
C) the perception of yourself as a sad, unfortunate person
D) seeing other people engaged in helping others
Q2) A major step toward a deepening friendship involves
A) complementary needs matching.
B) sharing private thoughts and feelings.
C) avoiding self-disclosure.
D) overdisclosure.
Q3) Social interaction that occurs without obvious differences in power and status is referred to as
A) individuating.
B) superordinate contact.
C) equal-status contact.
D) just-world interactions.
Q4) Responding to an upsetting situation by giving into anger is an often ineffective __________ coping strategy.
Q5) Describe five factors that would affect one's tendency to help in an emergency.
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Q1) An assessment tool that presents realistic work situations to applicants in order to observe their skills and reactions is called a
A) quality circle assessment.
B) situational judgment test.
C) projective aptitude test.
D) vocational interest inventory.
Q2) The challenges of living in space habitats include which of the following?
A) restricted physical movement
B) noise
C) sensory monotony
D) all of these
Q3) Regarding mock juries, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Psychologists use mock juries to help understand how real jurors vote.
B) Mock juries may be given written evidence and arguments to read before making a decision.
C) Mock juries may watch videotaped trials staged by actors.
D) Mock juries ask questions of eyewitnesses to prepare them to present to the actual juries.
Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.
Q5) Detailed biographical information about a job applicant is known as __________.
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