Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course designed to acquaint students with the structure and function of the human body. Emphasizing the interrelationship between anatomy (the study of body structure) and physiology (the study of body function), this course explores major body systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive systems. Students will learn essential terminology, basic cell and tissue structure, and the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory activities, and interactive learning, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how the bodys components work together to support life.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?
A)increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature
B)decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature
C)decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose]
D)increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch
E)decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure
Answer: D
Q2) Which subspecialty of anatomy deals with the study of structural changes associated with disease?
A)embryology
B)developmental biology
C)radiographic anatomy
D)pathological anatomy
E)immunology
Answer: D
Q3) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A triple covalent bond is formed between atoms sharing _______ valence electrons.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)six
E)eight
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following illustrates the use of a radioisotope as a tracer?
A)monitor blood flow through the heart
B)shrink a tumor by killing tumor cells with emitted radiation
C)destroy overactive thyroid gland
D)treat prostate cancer
E)treat advanced cervical cancer
Answer: A
Q3) Describe a hydrogen bond.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the transport process by which gases,like O2 and CO2,move through a membrane.
A)osmosis
B)active transport
C)secondary active transport
D)simple diffusion
E)endocytosis
Answer: D
Q2) Compare mitosis to meiosis.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) Which of the following transport processes moves substances through cells using endocytosis on one side of a cell and exocytosis on the opposite side of the cell?
A)phagocytosis
B)secondary active transport
C)transcytosis
D)osmosis
E)simple diffusion
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flat sheets of pliable tissue that cover or line a part of the body are referred to as A)lymph.
B)stroma.
C)interstitium.
D)membranes.
E)serum.
Q2) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)transitional epithelium
E)areolar tissue
Q3) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q4) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q5) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Q6) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
Q7) Discuss the difference(s)between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to paleness of the skin such as seen in patients with shock or anemia?
A)hirsutism
B)pallor
C)jaundice
D)androgenic alopecia
E)erythema
Q2) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
Q4) "Goose bumps" are caused by
A)contraction of arrector pili muscles.
B)secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
C)contraction of dermal papillae.
D)stimulation of hair root plexus.
E)secretions from the sebaceous gland.
Q5) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q7) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
Q8) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
Q2) Which of the following conditions results when the articular cartilages in a joint degenerate to the point where the bony ends of articulating bones touch?
A)osteogenic sarcoma
B)rickets
C)osteomalacia
D)osteoarthritis
E)osteopenia
Q3) Name and describe the major arteries found in bone.
Q4) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
Q5) This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children.
A)open
B)comminuted
C)impacted
D)greenstick
E)stress
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column?
A)herniated disc
B)scoliosis
C)kyphosis
D)lordosis
E)spina bifida
Q2) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
A)fissure.
B)foramen.
C)fossa.
D)meatus.
E)sulcus.
Q3) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
A)Females
B)Males
C)Both genders
D)The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System:
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the
A)anterior border (crest)of the tibia.
B)tibial tuberosity.
C)medial condyle of the tibia.
D)tibiofemoral joint.
E)intercondylar eminence.
Q2) The bones of the face are derived from
A)the cartilaginous neurocranium.
B)the membranous neurocranium.
C)mesoderm.
D)the membranous viscerocranium.
E)endoderm.
Q3) The ear bone and the hyoid bone are derived from the
A)cartilaginous neurocranium
B)membranous neurocranium
C)cartilaginous viscerocranium
D)membranous viscerocranium
E)endoderm
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
Q5) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of joints do NOT have a synovial cavity??1.Fibrous joints?2.Cartilaginous joints?3.Synovial joints
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1 and 2
E)All of these choices
Q2) This type of complex movement involves a continuous sequence of flexion,abduction,extension,and adduction resulting in a distal body part moving in a circle.
A)Gliding
B)Lateral flexion
C)Hyperextension
D)Circumduction
E)Elevation
Q3) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.
Q4) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
Q5) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.
Q6) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q7) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The contractile organelles of a skeletal muscle fiber are thread-like structures called
A)myofibrils.
B)myoglobin.
C)mitochondria.
D)Z discs.
E)M lines.
Q2) After the fusion of myoblasts,the muscle fiber loses its ability to do what?
A)grow
B)lengthen
C)contract
D)go through cell division.
E)all of the answer choices
Q3) Which of the following is NOT seen in exercise-induced muscle damage?
A)torn sarcolemmas
B)damaged myofibrils
C)sore muscles
D)progressive degeneration of muscles
E)disrupted Z-discs
Q4) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a muscle that moves the mandible?
A)orbicularis oculi
B)masseter
C)orbicularis oris
D)epicranius
E)frontalis
Q2) In which of the following body regions,would you find the external anal sphincter?
A)peritoneum
B)perineum
C)pelvic cavity
D)abdominal cavity
E)thoracic cavity
Q3) A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are called the A)fulcrum and resistance.
B)leverage and load.
C)lever and resistance.
D)effort and load.
E)lever and effort.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch,pressure,vibration,or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear,and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)temperature-sensitive channel
Q2) A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating
A)EPSPs
B)water-filled channels in its membrane
C)IPSPs
D)either EPSPs or IPSPs
E)All the choices are correct
Q3) Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.
Q4) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of A)arachnoid mater.
B)pia mater.
C)dura mater.
D)interstitial fluid.
E)subdural space.
Q2) Another term for the summing of EPSPs and IPSPs in the gray matter of spinal cord is
A)refraction.
B)facilitation.
C)integration.
D)adaptation.
E)tetany.
Q3) Which of following is NOT a function of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors?
A)Awareness of muscle tension in body
B)Prevention of damage to muscles
C)Protection of spinal nerves
D)Prevention of damage to tendons
E)Maintenance of muscle tone
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends throughout the brainstem and functions to help maintain consciousness.
A)Cuneate nucleus
B)Gracile nucleus
C)Medial lemniscus
D)Reticular formation
E)Decussation of pyramids
Q2) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?
A)Hunger
B)Thirst
C)Blood calcium concentration
D)Emotional behavior
E)Body temperature
Q3) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus,hypothalamus and epithalamus?
A)Cerebellum
B)Brain stem
C)Cerebrum
D)Diencephalon
E)Dura mater
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A)Long preganglionic neurons
B)Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls
C)Vagus nerve output
D)Ganglia found near visceral effectors
E)Sacral spinal cord output
Q2) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?
A)cerebrum
B)cerebellulum
C)thalamus
D)hypothalamus
E)pituitary
Q3) Patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication.After taking the medication,the patient's muscle spasms ceased,but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength.In addition,the patient's resting heart rate has increased.Explain the effects of the medication the patient received.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A)pain.
B)tickle.
C)temperature.
D)pressure.
E)itch.
Q2) Visceral pain results from stimulating
A)nociceptors.
B)Pacinian corpuscles.
C)exteroreceptors.
D)proprioceptors.
E)thermoreceptors.
Q3) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A)One
B)Dozens
C)Hundreds
D)Thousands
E)None
Q4) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of this structure is to regulate the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil.
A)Retina
B)Cornea
C)Iris
D)Choroid
E)Ciliary muscle
Q2) How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop?
A)5
B)150
C)10
D)22
E)55
Q3) This outer layer of dense connective tissue serves to protect the inner parts of the eyeball.
A)Sclera
B)Pupil
C)Iris
D)Cornea
E)Retina
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A)Insulin
B)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C)Glucagon
D)Thyroid hormone
E)Calcitonin
Q2) The following is a possible progression of which of the following disorders: Inadequate dietary iodine intake low level of thyroid hormone in blood increased TSH secretion thyroid gland enlargement.
A)Acromegaly
B)Tetany
C)Goiter
D)Cushing's syndrome
E)Addison's disease
Q3) Enuresis,or bedwetting,may be caused by psychological,anatomical or physiological factors.In the latter case,vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment.What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis?
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) During hemopoiesis,some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A)proerythroblasts.
B)T lymphoblasts.
C)B lymphoblasts.
D)NK lymphoblasts.
E)all of these choices.
Q2) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin?
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)AB
E)Not enough information is provided to answer question.
Q3) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood,which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient?
A)Agglutination (clumping)of the transfused blood cells.
B)Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells.
C)Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
D)More than one of the answer selection is correct.
E)No adverse reactions would occur.
Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures?
A)Right atrium
B)Interventricular septum
C)Bicuspid valve
D)Aortic semilunar valve
E)Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q2) What is the function of foramen ovale during fetal life?
A)Allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium.
B)Allowing blood to flow directly from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.
C)Serves as a valve in the vena cava to regulate venous blood flow.
D)Prevents back flow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle.
E)Prevents back flow of blood from pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle.
Q3) This pouch-like structure increases the total filling capacity of the atrium.
A)Ventricle
B)Coronary sulcus
C)Fossa ovalis
D)Interatrial septum
E)Auricle.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the veins of the systemic circulation eventually drain into the A)superior vena cava.
B)inferior vena cava.
C)coronary sinus.
D)superior and inferior vena cava.
E)superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus.
Q2) When an artery or arteriole is damaged,its smooth muscle layer contracts producing
A)tear in the vessel.
B)new vessel branching off the artery or arteriole.
C)a vascular spasm.
D)tetanus.
E)increased blood flow to the damaged vessel.
Q3) This type of shock is due to decreased blood volume.
A)Hypovolemic
B)Cardiogenic
C)Vascular
D)Obstructive
E)Neurogenic
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary response will peak how many days after an exposure?
A)1 day or less
B)2-7
C)10-17
D)20-30
E)Over a month
Q2) Which anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis,phagocytosis and inflammation?
A)Transferrins
B)Perforins
C)Complement proteins
D)Defensins
E)Interferons
Q3) Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier?
A)Macrophages
B)Saliva
C)Urine
D)Mucus
E)Stratified squamous epithelium
Page 24
Q4) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
Q5) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?
A)Muscularis
B)Mucosa
C)Serosa
D)Submucosa
Q2) In the mouth,the tooth sockets are lined with
A)Gingivae
B)Cementum
C)Periodontal ligament
D)Pulp
E)Root
Q3) The hard palate?1.is the anterior portion of the roof of the mouth.?2.is formed by the maxillae and palatine bones.?3.is covered by a mucous membrane.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)All of these choices
Q4) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
Q5) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
A)Gluconeogensis
B)Lipogenesis
C)Phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Lipolysis
Q2) When the terminal phosphate is cut off ATP what is formed?
A)Adenosine diphosphate
B)GTP
C)Adenosine monophosphate
D)Metabolic water
E)Glucose
Q3) Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin E
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin O
E)None of these choices
Q4) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule.
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)glucosamine
D)glucose
E)calcitriol
Q2) The proximal convoluted tubules reabsorb which percentage of filtered water?
A)25%
B)50%
C)65%
D)80%
E)99%
Q3) Absence of angiotensin converting enzyme will lead to
A)decreased blood pressure
B)increased blood pressure
C)will not have any effect on blood pressure
D)All of these choices
E)None of these choices
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Q5) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.
A)Fundiform ligament
B)Broad ligament
C)Suspensory ligament
D)Ejaculatory ligament
E)Perineum ligament
Q2) In male embryos,this hormone is responsible for the development of the urethra,prostate,and external genitals.
A)LH
B)FSH
C)Progesterone
D)Esterogen
E)Dihydrotestosterone
Q3) The straight tubules in the testis lead into the A)Efferent ducts
B)Afferent ducts
C)Rete testis
D)Ductus epididymis
E)Epididymis
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) Which condition listed is a developmental abnormality due to mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period of time?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q3) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q4) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Q5) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q6) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
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